JAMB 1978 Past Questions – Geography
JAMB 1978 Past Questions and answers
JAMB 1978 Past Questions begins
1. Give the most appropriate name for the feature P.
A. Cot B. Plateau C. Valley D. Elbow E. Spur
2. What is the angular bearing of settlement Dor from settlement Can?
A. 400 B. 450 C. 3000 D. 3200 E. 325°
3. Estimate the height of Trigonometry station .
A. 315 metres B. 320 metres C. 325 metres D. 345 metres E. 365 metres.
4. What is the most likely cause for the paucity of surface streams on the eastern half of the area?
A. No rainfall B. Rugged topography C. Flat terrain D. Poor vegetation E. Nature of the rocks.
5 Which of the following phrases best describes the entire area on the right bank of River Ere?
A. A dissected upland B. A dissected plateau C. A glaciated mountain D. An undulating land E. A scarp land.
6. The scarcity of settlements on the eastern half of the area is probably due to
A. absence of roads B. scarcity of surface water C. rough topography D. swampy land surface E. insect pests.
7. Which of the following pairs best accounts for the importance of Ere?
1. Road junction, 2. Industries 3. Commerce 4. River Ere
A. land 3 B.3 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3 E. 2 and 4.
8. Which of the following groups of activities Ere most likely to be important in this area?
A. Animal husbandry and mining B. Trade and commerce C. Mining and commerce D. Arable farming and lumbering E. Lumbering and mining.
9. What is a typical farmer in the Sudan Savannah of Nigeria most likely to be doing in June?
A. Clearing his land for planting B. Planting his main cash crop C. Harvesting his main cash crop D. Resting because he has less to do E. Taking part in, a fishing festival.
10. When is the earth relative to the sun in the position shown in the Fig. 2?
A. December 22 B. March 21 C. June 21 D. September 22 E. October 23.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions – Geography
11 Which of the following phenomena is not directly related to the revolution of the earth?
A. Seasonal changes B. Varying duration of sunshine hours C. Unequal solar radiation on the earth’s surface D. Night and day E. The tropics.
12 Name the feature shown in Fig. 3.
A. Crag and tail B. Seif dune C. Nunatak D. lnselberg E. Crescent dune.
13 Name the climate represented by the data
J F M A M J J A S 0 N D
Temp. °C 14 17 23 28 33 34 31 30 29 26 20 15
Rain.mm 23 1813 18 13 74 180 174 117 10 3 10
A. Equatorial climate B. Mediterranean climate C. Monsoon climate D. Tropical climate E. Sub tropical climate.
14 Which pair of activities would you NOT find in equatorial climate?
1. Commercial grain farming, 2. Rice cultivation, 3. Lumbering 4. Plantation agriculture 5. Dry farming
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 5 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 5 E. 2 and 3.
15 Which of the following statements is not borne out by the pie graph?
A. Asia is the world’s largest producer of natural rubber B. Africa is a major producer of natural rubber C. Natural rubber comes mainly from developing countries D. The developed countries are not producers of natural rubber E. Natural rubber is a product of the hot lands of the world.
16. Inter-regional trade among countries in West Africa is promoted mainly by
A. relationship with former colonial rulers B. production of similar goods C. deliberate governmental policies in recent times
D. competition among the nations in Africa E. frequent changes of government in different countries.
17. Which statement is not true of the Middle Belt in Nigeria?
A. The soil is not productive B. The population is sparse C. There are insect pests and disease carriers D. Mineral resources can be found there E. None of the above.
18. Which of the following zones is the least industrialised in Nigeria?
A. Lokoja— Ajaokuta B. Lagos — Ikeja C. Port Harcourt—- Aba D. Kaduna —-Zaria E. Abeokuta —– Ibadan.
19. Which purpose is NOT served by the Kainji Dam?
A. Provision of research facilities B. Provision of water for domestic use all over Nigeria C. Provision of fishing facilities D. Generation of electricity for use all over Nigeria E. Provision of recreation facilities.
20. What is the Nile valley best known for?
A. Industrial development B. Water navigation C. Commerce D. Development E. Hydro-electricity
JAMB 1978 Past Questions – Geography
21. Which is not exported by the Republic of South Africa?
A. Wines B. Maize C. Wool D. Coffee E. Wheat.
22. Name the most important industrial mineral of Ghana
A. Diamond B. Bauxite C. Manganese D. Gold E. Aluminium.
23. Which of the following factors least explains the fast growing population in African countries?
A. Control of diseases B. Decline in death rates C. The education of women D. Improvement in transportation F. Provision of more hospitals.
24. If a map at a scale of 1:50 000 is reduced by half what is the scale of the new map?
A. 1: 250 000 B. 1:25000 C. 1:200000 D. 1: 100 000 E. 1: 125 000.
25. Which of the following most accurately describes the climate of coastlands which are adjacent to cool ocean currents?
A. Summer rain, winter drought B. Winter rain, summer drought C. Rain all the year round D. Monsoon rainfall pattern E. Aridity.
26. How were the major mountain belts of the world produced?
A. By wind erosion B. By folding C. By glacial erosion D. By weathering E. By river deposition.
27. Which of the following factors must account for the rapid increase in world population during the twentieth century?
A. The slave trade was abolished B. Death rates have decreased rapidly C. Birth rates have increased rapidly D. Increasing world production of food E. Large-scale migration of people.
28. What does subsistence agriculture mean?
A. Intensive agriculture B. Extensive agriculture C. Agricultural production for cash. D. Agricultural production for export E. Agricultural production for household consumption.
29. Which of the following types of agriculture would you expect to find around a big city in an industrial society such as in Europe?
A. Dairy farming B. Grain farming C. Fish farming D. Animal husbandry E. Intensive subsistence agriculture.
30 Which of the following provides the best location for a bakery?
A. Near a regular source of flour B. In an area of cheap labour C. Near a large market for bread D. Near a source of good clean water E. Near a regular source of electricity.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions – Geography
31 The greatest volume of shipping across the Atlantic Ocean is
A. between Africa and South America B. between Africa and North America C. between North America and South America D. between Europe and North America E. between Europe and Africa.
32 Which of the following towns is NOT a pre-colonial town?
A. Ilorin B. Bida C. Enugu D. Ibadan E. Kano.
33 Which of the following has the highest mean annual rainfall?
A. Freetown B. Accra C. Lome D. Lagos E. Enugu.
34 The Middle Belt of West Africa is NOT characterised by one of the following. Which one?
A. Low population densities B. Ethnic fragmentation C. Few large towns D. Much export crop production E. Predominance of subsistence agriculture.
35 Which ONE of the following statements about the railway lines of Africa is false?
A. There is no transcontinental railway in Africa which can be compared with the Trans-Siberian Railway in length or importance B. Africa’s railway lines are all of uniform gauge C. Few railway lines in Africa cross from one country to another D. The railway lines of Africa generally run from the coast inland E. The densest railway network in Africa is in the Republic of South Africa.
36. Which one of the following countries has an export trade which is dominated by a single mineral?
A. Central Africa Empire B. Uganda C. Kenya D. Zambia E. Mozambique.
37 A World Title Boxing contest took place in New York (750W time zone) on a Tuesday between 21.30 and 22.30 hours and was televised live. When did viewers in Lagos (1 50E time zone) watch the contest live on television?
A. Wednesday between 03.30 and 04.30 hours B. Monday between 03.30 and 04.30 hours C. Tuesday between 15.30 and 16.30 hours D. Tuesday between 21.30 and 22.30 hours E. Tuesday between 02.30 and 03.30 hours.
38. Which of the following currents has a warming influence upon the coast along which it flows?
A. Mozambique current B. Labrador current C. Benguela current D. Canaries current E. Humboldt current.
39 Which of the following lakes owes its origin mainly to faulting?
A. Lake Chad B. Lake Superior C. Lake Malawi D. Lake Victoria E. Lake Kariba.
40 The wearing away of the sides and bottom of a river’s channel is called
A. hydraulic action B. corrosion C. attrition D. corrasion E. solution.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions – Geography
41 Temperature is to isotherms as air pressure is to
A. isopleths B. contours C. isobars D. isolines E. isohyets.
42 Which of the following gradients is the steepest?
A.1in135 B.1in351 C.1in531 D.1in315 E. 1 in 153.
43. In which one of the following countries is commercial grain farming an important occupation?
A. Nigeria B. Kenya C. Spain D. Canada E. Brazil.
44. Pick out the incorrect statement.
A. The Ruhr is a great industrial region B. Scandinavia is noted for its hardwood timber C. The North Sea is a great fishing area D. Katanga is a copper mining region E. Woollen fabrics are manufactured in Yorkshire
45. Nigeria is the world’s leading producer of
A. groundnuts B. petroleum C. columbite D. palm kernels E. timber.
46. The length of a year is 3651/4 days because that is the time it takes
A. the sun to revolve round its orbit B. the earth to rotate on its axis C. the moon to revolve once round the earth D. the sun to revolve once round the earth E. the earth to revolve once round the sun.
47. Two factors which promote rapid chemical weathering in the tropics are
A. high temperature and extreme aridity B. high temperature and low humidity C. low temperature and high humidity
D. high temperature and high humidity E. high temperature and low rainfall.
48. Smooth oval hills, composed mainly of boulders or glacial sands and gravels, are known as
A. eskers B. drumlins C. moraines D. aretes E. pyramidal peaks.
49. On a population map of the world, all but one of the following appear generally as regions of low population density. Which is it?
A. The hot deserts B. The Amazon forests C. Antarctica D. The island of Java E. The Canadian shield.
50. Mixed farming implies
A. growing crops and rearing animals on a given land area B. keeping poultry and rearing pigs on one and the same farm C. growing grains and root crops on the same piece of land D. mixed cultivation of wheat, barley, and oats E. intercropping of yam, cassava, and maize.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions Geography ANSWERS
1.A 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.D 11.D 12.E 13.D 14.D 15.E 16.C 17.E 18.A 19.C 20.E 21.E 22.D 23.D 24.D 25.E 26.B 27.B 28.E 29.A 30.C 31.D 32.C 33.A 34.D 35.B 36.A 37.A 38.A 39.C 40.D 41.C 32.A 43.E 44.B 45.C 46.E 47.D 48.B 49.C 50.A
JAMB 1978 Past Questions for Economics
1. Suppose that the equilibrium price of an article is N5.00 but the government fixes the price by law at N4.00 the supply will be
A. the same as the equilibrium supply B. greater than the equilibrium supply C. less than the equilibrium supply D. determined later by government E. none of these
2. A budget deficit means
A. that a country is buying more than it is selling B. that a country is selling more than it is buying C. a government is spending more than it takes in taxation D. a government is spending less than it takes in taxation E. a government is spending as much as it takes in taxation
3. In the diagram equilibrium price is:
A. P 2 B. P0 C. P1 D. indeterminate E. between PO. and P 1 Diagram P.2
4. When elasticity is zero, the demand curve is
A. perfectly elastic B. perfectly inelastic C. concave D. downward sloping E. circular
5. The following is NOT a reason for the existence of small firms:
A. scale of production is limited by size of market B. expansion brings diminishing returns C. large firms can cater for wide markets D. small firms can provide personal services E. all of the above
6. Inferior goods are defined in Economics as goods
A. whose quality is low B. consumed by very poor people C. whose consumption falls when consumers income rises D. which satisfy only the basic needs E. none of the above
7. Malthus became known through his popular theory which maybe stated simply
A. the death rate may become so high that people may not be able to produce B. population may outgrow the means of subsistence C. people will eventually decide not to have children D. migration of people from one place to another may leave some parts of the world barren E. all of the above
8. A commercial Bank is unique in that it is the only institution that
A. makes loans available to private people and businessmen B. accepts deposits C. can store people’s valuables D. can transfer money from one place to another for its customers E. saves money through the granting of credits
9. Which is an example of an invisible item in the Trade Account of Ghana?
A. Export of cocoa from Ghana B. Import of oil from Nigeria C. A gift of a Peugeot 504 by a firm in Nigeria to another firm in Ghana D. Payment for shipping and insurance by a Ghanaian company to companies outside Ghana E. None of the above
10. Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria?
A. Operation Feed the Nation B. Nigerian Youth Service Corps C. Increased loans to farmers and cooperatives D. Research in agriculture and extension services E. Mechanization of agriculture
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
11. If a company doubles all its input, and discovers that its output is more than doubles, we can say that the company is experiencing
A. increasing marginal utility B. diseconomics of scale C. increasing costs D. constant-returns to scale E. increasing returns to scale
12. Price control cannot work in Nigeria because
A. the population is too large B. the policemen hate to arrest people C. while it is fairly easy to control the producers and the importing firms, the small distributors are too many to be controlled D. control cannot work under a military rule E. too many things are produced in the country
13. A country has a surplus in its balance of visible trade if
A. the value of imports exceeds the value of exports of goods B. the value of exports exceeds the value of imports of goods C. the value of goods exported is equal to the value of goods imported D. it is able to spend a lot on capital programmes E. commercial banks’ assets increase
14. The Foreign Exchange Market is a market where
A. graded commodities like wheat, coffee etc. are sold and bought B. currencies are sold and bought C. treasury bills are sold and bought D. Government bonds are sold and bought E. Treasury certificates are sold
15. Which of the following financial assets carries the lowest rate of interest in Nigeria?
A Commercial bills B. Call money C. Treasury bills D. Development Loan Stocks E. Deposits with the Federal Savings Bank
16. The effect on the demand for product A caused by a change in the price of product B is called
A. cross-elasticity of demand B. elasticity of supply C. competitive demand D. composite demand E. joint demand
17. Which of the following can be regarded as a liability of a commercial bank?
A. Advances B. Deposits C. Treasury bills D. Overdrafts E. Cash
18. A tax which takes a higher percentage from higher incomes is called
A. a regressive tax B. a progressive tax C. a proportional tax D. an indirect tax E. a direct tax
19. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. A proportional tax is one which takes from high-income people a larger fraction of their income than it takes from low-income people B. Tax s on commodities or services which can be shifted elsewhere are usually called direct taxes C. The sole proprietor is a legal entity D. The influence of demand on price will be smallest in the short-run E. The cost of production is the most important determining factor of supply in the long run.
20. The largest liability appearing on the books of a commercial bank is
A. cash B. deposits C. loans and advances D. capital and reserves E. Treasury bills
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
21. The Lagos Clearing House is
A. a commodity market B. an import licensing centre C. another name for the Lagos Stock Exchange D. an insurance and underwriting centre E. a cheque sorting centre
22. The biggest source of government revenue in Nigeria is
A. mining rents and royalties B. company income tax C. import duties D. export duties E. petroleum profits tax
23. An increase in liquid reserve requirements by the Central Bank of Nigeria will result in
A. a reduction in commercial banks’ excess reserves B. more commercial bank loans to members of the public C. an increase in commercial banks’ excess reserves D. no change in commercial banks’ excess reserves E. a reduction in Central Bank’s gold reserves
24. A distinguishing characteristic of a consumers’ cooperative is the fact that
A. the customers are the owners B. the customers are the workers C. the customers are the managers D. the customers are low income people E. the customers are high income people
25. Disposable income is the same thing as
A. personal income minus personal saving B. personal income minus taxes C. national income minus depreciation D. exports minus imports E. savings plus investment
26. Marginal cost is
A. the lowest cost of producing goods B. the cost of production of the most efficient firm in an industry C. the cost of production of the most inefficient firm in an industry D. the cost of production of the last or extra unit of goods produced by a firm E. the cost of production at which the minimum profit is obtained by a firm
27. Which of the following is not a form of Business Organization?
A. Sole proprietorship B. Cartel C. Partnership D. Joint stock E. Cooperatives societies
28. As consumption of beer increases, its marginal utility to a drinker will
A. increase B. remain constant C. fluctuate D. decrease E. change proportionately
29. Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of labour in the country?
A. Construction B. Aquaculture C. Distribution D. Mining and petroleum E. Transport and communications
30. The expression ‘Terms of Trade’ is used to describe
A. the quality of exports B. the direction of foreign trade C. terms of purchase on deferred payment basis D. the rate at which exports exchange for imports E. import licensing
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
31. If the demand for a product with a perfectly elastic supply increases, there will be
A. an increase in price and quantity offered B. an increase in quantity but price will remain the same C. a reduction in price and quantity-offered D. an increase in price but a reduction in quantity offered for sale E. an increase in quantity offered but a reduction in price
32. Which of these would not be included in the fundamental principles of a free enterprise economy?
A. Private ownership of factors of production B. The right to organize factors for productive purposes C. The right to make private profit D. Government’s control of the mobility of factors of production E. Government’s efforts to encourage competitive capitalism within the laws of the country
33. Economics is called a social science because it is
A. a branch of the social studies B. a study of the ways man devises to satisfy his unlimited wants from limited resources C. a dismal science in the malthusian sense D. governed by scientific laws E. the study of human wants by means of scientific methods of observation
34. Opportunity cost is a term which describes
A. the initial cost of setting up a business venture B. cost of one product in terms of foregone production of others C. the monetary equivalent of the utility of a commodity D. costs related to an optimum level of production E. implicit costs
35. If consumer’s demand for product X increases as the price of product Y decreases, we can be fairly certain that
A. X and Yare complementary goods B. X and Yare substitute goods C. X and Yare independent goods D.X and Y are jointly supplied E. X and Yare inferior commodities
36. Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible transaction?
A. Import of cars B. Export of cocoa C. Export of crude petroleum D. Tourism E. Import of building materials
37. Which of the following is a term used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess of transfer costs?
A. Interest rates B. Opportunity costs C. Economic rent D. Indirect costs E. Wages
38. Less developed countries obtain foreign exchange reserves mainly from the export of
A. manufactured goods B. processed and semi-processed commodities C. invisible items D. primary products E. all of the above
39. By ‘trade by barter’, we mean
A. trade done by people in villages B. exchange of goods for money C. international trade D. exchange of goods for goods E. the trade. of the Middle Ages
40. In order to build up its capital stock, the typical less developed country should ideally
A. increase, total savings B. depend on hand-outs from foreigners C. nationalize all foreign concerns D impose tariffs on imports E. none of the above
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
41. The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows:
A. it is always successful B. continuity is no problem C. control and supervision is under one man D. funds are easy to obtain E. Inter-generational equity is assured
42. Which of these should determine, in a planned economy, how the factors of production are to be allocated among different production activities?
A. Fairness B. The distribution of income and wealth C. Public need, which is determined by the government D. Private needs determined by the market E. The ability of an individual to make profit
43. Which of the following activities of Government precludes the existence of a market economy?
A. The imposition of taxes B. The control of the location of industry C. The central planning of all production D. The fixing of maximum prices for all necessities E. The establishment of laws requiring the registration of business firms
44. Which of the following is NOT strictly included in the study of economics?
A. The study of wants B. The study of choice C. Whether a particular want satisfies a good or bad purpose D. The study of scarcity E. The study of substitution
45. Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country?
A. Increase in death rate B. Decrease in birth rate C. Emigration D. Migration E. Better medical facilities
46. The optimum population of a country is reached when
A. all factors of production have been fully employed B. the productive effort per, man is at its highest with a given volume of resources C. the total population of a country increases D. the natural resources of a country increases E. the working population of a country increases
47. In economics, production is complete when
A. goods are produced in the factories B. goods are sold to tile wholesalers C. goods and services are produced by the government D. prices are fixed for goods and services E. goods and services finally reach the consumers
48. A rational consumer will adjust his spending pattern so that:
A. he buys only the one item that gives him the most total satisfaction B. the marginal utility he gets from the last unit of each item is the same C. the marginal utility he gets from the last naira spent on each item is the same D. the total utility he gets from each item is the same E. the total amount of money he spends on each item is the same
49. Bondholders are treated more favourably than shareholders because
A. they are not liable for the company’s losses B. they have a greater voice in electing the board of directors C. they control the management D. they have a prior claim on the company’s assets E. none of the above
50. The numerical measure of elasticity is:
A. % change in Q ÷ % change in P
B. change in Q ÷ change in P
C. % change in P ÷ % change in Q
D. change in P ÷ change in Q
E. change in P plus change in Q ÷ change in P where P = Price, and Q = Quantity
JAMB 1978 Past Questions Economics ANSWERS
1. C 4 B 7.B 10.B 13. B 16. A 19. A 22.E 25. B 28. D 31. B 34. B 37. C 40.A 43.C 46.B 49.E
2. C 5.B 8.C 11.E 14. B 17. B 20. B 23.C 26. D 29. B 32. D 35. A 38. D 41.C 44.C 47.E 50.A
3. B 6.C 9.D 12.C 15. D 18. B 21. E 24.A 27. B 30. D 33. B 36. D 39. D 42.C 45.A 48.C
JAMB 1978 Past Questions for Government
1. Democracy means a system of government in which
A. the majority rules B. the minority rules C. there is no party system D. the people rule E. none of the above.
2. A constitution is federal if
A. it provides for a presidential system B. it is unwritten C. it is not unitary D. the central and component units or authorities are co-ordinated and equal E. there is a division of powers between a central and number of other component authorities.
3. The Executive is A. a committee of the legislature B. the body that makes the law C. the body that executes the policies of government D. the highest organ of government E. the body which enforces the law.
4. The judiciary is
A. an arm of the Executive B. the body which makes law C. a body of lawyers D. the body which interprets the law E. None of the above.
5. The ‘Separation of powers’ means the same thing as
A. a presidential system of government B. checks and balances C. the rule of law D. supremacy of the judiciary E. none of the above.
6. Rights are A. claims which the law allows B. claims against the states. C. claims against other individuals D. claims which are natural to men E. what are written in the constitution.
7. Pressure groups are
A. organisations which want to overthrow the government B. organisation which seek to influence the policies of government C. associations of people who share the same ideology D. political parties E. religion orders. –
8. A Cabinet system of government is practised in
A. the USSR B. the USA C. the Peoples Republic of China D. the United Kingdom E. North Korea.
9. The citizen’s obligations are
A. what the government orders B. duties the individual imposes on himself. C. what the law requires of individual D. what the military decrees E. what political parties demand of their members.
10. An electoral system is the system which governs
A. the appointment of the Pope B. how people vote. C. the conduct of elections D. the appointment of cabinet ministers E. the appointment of judges.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
11. An unwritten constitution is one which
A. is not subject to judicial review B. is only partially written C. is not written at all D. is made up solely of a set of convention. E. none of the above.
12. Delegated legislation is legislation
A. which is not submitted to Parliament B. made by judicial tribunals C. made by a Minister acting under an Act of Parliament D. made by a local government E. made by a parastatal.
13. Before colonial rule, Yoruba traditional rulers were appointed by
A. the people acting through their representatives B. Ogboni C. Ifa (oracle) priests D. Oduduwa E. Kingmakers.
14. The first political party, properly so-called, was formed in Nigeria
in A. 1916 B. 1923 C. 1944 D. 1948 E. 1951.
15. The Lol Cadres, a major factor in the constitutional development of the French colonial territories, was introduced in
A. 1940 B. 1946 C. 1950 D. 1956 E. 1960.
16. The Coussey Commission Report laid the ground work for the eventual independence of
A. Nigeria B. Gambia C. Gold Coast (Ghana) D. Sierra Leone E. Liberia.
17. The (former) Western Region of Nigeria became internally self-governing in
A. 1955 B. 1956 C. 1957 D. 1958 E. 1959.
18. The first Pan African conference was held in
A. Paris B. Brussels C. London D. New York E. Manchester.
19. The Public Service Commission (Nigeria) is responsible for the appointment of all
A. Judges of the High Court B. officials of public corporations C. civil servants D. military personnel E. university teachers.
20. Constitutional cases in Nigeria can only be raised in the first instance in
A. the Supreme Court B. the High Courts C. the Court of Appeal D. Sharia Court of Appeal E. none of the above.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
21. Which of the following would act for the Head of State when he is out of the country
A. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B. The Chief of Staff, Army C. The Chief of Staff, Supreme Military Headquarters D. The Chief of Staff, Air Force E. The General Officer Commanding, First Division.
22. To raise funds, local government can levy
A. import duties. B. income taxes. C. excise duties. D. rates. E. profits tax.
23. The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of
A. the OAU. B. the Commonwealth. C. the United Nations. D. the OCAM. E. the Africa Development Bank.
24. Nigeria is not a member of
A. the OAU B. the Security Council of the UN C. the African Development Bank D. the Commonwealth E. OCAM.
25. The primary function of political party is to
A. oppose the government B. aggregate interest C. mobilise public opinion D. provide welfare for their members E. provide support for the military.
26. The OAU was formed in
A. 1946 B. 1956 C. 1960 D. 1963 E. 1965.
27. All members of the newly constituted local government councils in Nigeria were
A. directly elected B. indirectly elected C. appointed by the state governors D. appointed by the Head of State E. none of the above.
28. Which of the following is true as a major function of elections
A. The elections serve the purpose of recruitment of leaders to office in a modern state B. The elections give the people a chance to eliminate opponents who are in office C. They are means of testing the popularity of politicians D. Politicians use elections as tools to deceive the populace E. Elections are means by which politicians keep themselves in power.
29. The first Governor-General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard B. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Sir James Robertson D. (the late) Major-General Aguiyi-ionsi E. The Ooni of Ife.
30. The Supreme policy-making organ in the Organisation of African Unity is
A. the Council of Ministers B. the Assembly of Heads of State and Government C. the General Secretariat D. specialised Commissions E. none of the above.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
31. In which of these organs of the United Nations Organisation is veto power exercised by some countries?
A. The World Health Organisation B. The Security Council C. General Assembly D. The UN Committee against Apartheid
E. The International Court of Justice.
32. In a Federal System (such as Nigeria) the Local Governments are directly responsible
A. to the Federal or Central Government B. to the State Government C. to the Federal and State Government D. to no other level of government E. to any level of government which can provide money for its programmes.
33. The 1946 Constitutions in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana) were the results of
A. Pressures from nationalists within the colonies B. Pressures from the British Government C. Pressures by the United States of America D. Pressures from within and from outside these colonies E. none of the above.
34. If the rights of the individual are violated or threatened, where can he go for redress?
A. The Executive branch of government B. The Legislative branch of government C. The Local Government Council D. The Judicial branch of government E. The Ministry of Internal or Home Affairs.
35. In the Presidential System of Government, the president is elected to office by
A. the Cabinet B. the Parliament or Legislature C. Military D. the people through direct elections E. the political party.
36. The Military take over power from politicians in West African countries
A. when politicians have become corrupt, and are reckless in their use of power B. when there is a breakdown of law and order in the country C. for reasons which touch on the interest of the military D. because of the personal ambitions of some politicians E. all of the above.
37. By establishing public corporations, governments are trying to
A. eliminate private enterprise B. compete with private enterprises C. render crucial service to the public in area which the civil service cannot effectively handle D. make quick profit at the expense of the people E Band D.
38. The Constitution of any given country must provide for
A. the distribution of powers B. the rights and duties of the individual C. the rule of law D. none of the above E. A, Band C.
39. In a modern state, pressure groups find that the most effective way of achieving their purposes is by
A. causing trouble among the populace B. influencing decisions of government C. forming political parties D. rigging elections
to offices of the state E. A and C.
40. Which of the following would you consider the most famous among the leaders of nationalist movements in Nigeria?
A. Kwame Nkrumah B. General Olusegun Obasanjo C. Herbert Macaulay D. Anthony Enahoro E. Dauda Adegbenro.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
41. The idea of ‘collective responsibility’ in the Executive branch of government means that
A. no single member of the Executive can take any responsible decision B. a member of the Executive has no way Out of decisions made in that body C. a member of the Executive cannot publicly criticise decisions collectively made without first resigning
D. responsible within the Executive is not unilateral E. parliament must ratify Executive decisions collectively reached.
42. Indirect Rule, as practised by the British in their West African colonies
A. did not attempt to reform existing traditional institutions B. was over glorified and expedient nonsense. C. satisfied neither the rulers nor the ruled D. had nothing in common with the reality of French rule in their colonies. E. meant ruling through existing rulers
and attempting to check their excesses.
43. The French idea of assimilation as applied in their colonies
A. was to make Frenchmen out of African subjects B. would have been allowed to produce more Frenchmen in the colonies than in France itself C. recognised real value in traditional African culture and was merely aimed at upgrading it D. produced nothing but African puppets in the colonies E. was abandoned within a couple of years of its operation.
44. The most remarkable thing about post-independence political development in the Gambia is
A. that the country has been swallowed up by the much bigger country of Senegal B. the relatively untarnished reputation of Sir Dauda Jawara C. that without reliance on overwhelming force, the government has remained in power and tolerated operation
D. the uniquely robust economy which the government has succeeded in establishing for the country and distributed fairly among its people E. the existence of opposition parties.
45. The dominant idea behind the establishment of the Organisation of African Unity is
A. that Africa most unite B. to show the world that Africa can also do what Latin American and Asian countries have done C. to provide a framework and opportunities for co-operation on common African problems D. to promote economic development of Africa E. to have its Secretary General co-ordinate the foreign policies of member states.
46. The nationalist movements in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana)
A. were different from each other in all respects B. produced the same results in both countries C. were dominated by traditional rulers D. influenced each other significantly E. were led by philosopher kings.
47. The new Local Government Reforms in Nigeria
A. seek to establish uniformity in type, purpose and functions of local authorities B. make traditional rulers more powerful than ever before C. are a waste of time and the federal government’s money D. promote unity but allow for some diversity in the structure of local government E. would definitely establish clean and efficient governments at the local level.
48. The treaty establishing the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was
A. concluded in Lome (Togo) in December, 1976, after hard and extensive negotiations B. designed as the main pillar on which an eventual African Common Market would be built C. the brain-child of logo and Ghana D. signed in Lagos in May. 1975, to promote trade and other economic co-operation in the region as a whole E. to immediately eliminate tariffs and other barriers to trade among members.
49. The Principle of universal adult suffrage refers to
A. the right of all adult people to vote B. the structure of political parties C. the legal nature of a constitution D. the right to free speech E. all of the above.
50. A constituency
A. is the same as a legislature B. is part of the campaign process C. is an area or district in which the inhabitants can send a representative to parliament D. is an important part of every monarchy E. consists of party executives and free-wheelers.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions Govt ANSWERS
1. A 4. D 7. B 10.D 13. E 16 C 19.D 22.D 25. B 28.A 31. B 34.D 37.D 40.D 43.A 46.D 49.A
2. E 5. B 8. D 11. B 14. D 17. C 20. B 23. D 26. D 29.A 32. B 35.D 38. E 41. C 44. C 47.A 50. C
3. C 6. A 9. C 12. C 15. C 18.A 21. C 24. C 27.A 30. B 33.0 36.E 39. E 42. E 45. C 48. D
JAMB 1978 Past Questions for Physics
JAMB 1978 Past Questions and Answers
JAMB 1978 Past Questions for Chemistry
JAMB 1978 Past Questions and Answers
JAMB 1978 Past Questions – chemistry
JAMB 1978 Past Questions for Biology
1. A plant which grows on another plant without apparent harm to the host plant is called
A. a parasite B. an epiphyte C. a saprophyte D. a predator E. a hermaphrodite
2. The process represented by the equation is:
A. proteinsynthesis B. respiration C. photosynthesis D. transpiration E. translocation.Chlorophyll
3. The oxygen given off during the process is derived from
A. sunlight B. chlorophyll C. carbon dioxide D. atmosphere E. water
4. One of the functions of the xylem is
A. strengthening the stem B. manufacturing food C. conducting manufactured food E. storing unused sugar.
5. People suffering from myopia
A. can see near objects clearly B. can see far away objects clearly C. cannot see any object clearly D. are colour-blind E. are able to see better in the dark.
6. The cilia in paramecium are used for
A. respiration B. locomotion C. protection D. regulating food intake E. excretion
7. Eugenia may be classified as a plant because it
A. has chloroplasts B. has a gullet C.lives in a pond D. possesses a flagellum E. has a pellicle.
8. A trawler on a fishing trip caught a type of animal with hairs on its body. This animal could have been.
A. an amphibian B. a reptile C. a shark D. a mammal E. a seagull.
9. Which of these types of skeleton is most appropriate to the cockroach?
A. Hydrostatic skeleton B. Exoskeleton C. Endoskeleton D. Cartilaginous skeleton E. Bony skeleton.
10. When proteins are broken down they also provide
A. oxygen B. carbohydrates C. energy D. amino-acids E. carbon dioxide
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
11. The function of lenticle is
A.to remove excess water in the plant B. to absorb water from the atmosphere C. for gaseous exchange D. to absorb light E. to store food.
12. The following events take place during conjugation in spirogyra. 1. The protoplasm in each of the conjugating cells separates from the cell wall to form a gamete; the gamete of one filament passes through the conjugation tube to meet the gamete of the other filament. 2. The zygote soon becomes surrounded by a thick brown wall to become zygospore which bursts after a short rest and germinates to produce a new filament. 3. The nuclei of the gemetes fuse to form a zygote. 4.The protuberances meet and where they touch, the cell-wall disappears so that a conjugation tube joining the two cells is formed. 5. Protuberances appear on the walls of cells of two filaments of Spirogyra lying side by side opposite one another. Now, what is the sequence in which the above events occur?
A. 1,2,3,4,5 B. 1,2,4,5,3 C. 3,4,5,2,1 D. 5, 4, 1,3,2, E. 5,4,3,1,2
13. Which of the following is characteristic of the animal cell?
A. presence of chloroplasts B. possession of a cellulose cell wall C. absence of large vacuoles D. presence of large vacuoles D. presence of chromosomes.
14. Nitrating bacteria keep the soil fertile by
A. converting nitrates to nitrogen B. converting ammonium salts to pitrates C. converting atmospheric nitrogen to plant protein D. converting nitrates to nitrous oxide E. converting atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates.
15. In the life history of Schistosoma (Bilharzia), one of the following is the intermediate host
A. man B. snail C. mosquito larva D. crayfish E. fish
16. In which one of the following groups of organisms do all the members have asexual methods of reproduction?
A. A green filamentous alga, a flowing plant and a bird B. A toad (or frog), Amoeba and Mucor (or Penicillium) C. A flowering plant, tapeworm (or Ascaris) and a green filamentous alga D. Mucor (or Penicillium) a bird and a toad (or frog) E. Amoeba, Mucor (or Penicillium) and a green filamentous alga
17. The hormones which tone up the muscles of a person in time of danger is from the
A. thyroid gland B. pancreas C. adrenal gland D. liver E. spleen
18. The study of the organisms and the environment of an abandoned farmland is the ecology of
A. a community B. a population C. a species D. a habitat E. an ecosystem’
19. Which one of the following statements about the mammalian kidney is false?
A. The glomerulus is formed by a branch of the renal artery B. The glomerulus is a part of uniferous tubules C. The Bowman’s capsule is in the cortex of the kidney D. The uniferous tubules are richly supplied with blood vessels E. The glomerulus is lodged in the Bowman’s capsule
20. A potometer with a leafy shoot weighed 18.9g initially and 17.9g after 1 hour. From this, it follows that
A. the shoot absorbed 1 of water per hour B. 1g of water per hour is evaporated from the potometer C. the shoot lost lg of water per hour D. the potometer water receded at the rate of lg per hour E. the shoot was respiring and lost weight at the rate of 1kg per hour.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
21. At fertilisation
A. one chromosome from the male joins another from the female B. one gene from the male combines with another from the female C. the male nucleus fuses with the female nucleus D. one set of chromosomes combines with another set from the female. E. one cell from the male fuses with another from the female.
22. The neck region of the tapeworm (Taenia) is responsible for the
A. production of eggs B. storage of eggs C. formation of new segments D. development of the suckers E. fragmentation of the body segments.
23. Which of these is not true of the insect? the possession of
A. two pairs of antennae B. jeinted appendages C. exoskeleton D. three pairs of legs E. segmented body
24. During reproduction of the organism in Fig.i the first structure to divide is
A. 1 B. 2. C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
25. Rhizopus (or Mucor) obtains its food from dead organic matter. It is said to be
A. a facultative parasite B. a saprophyte C. an obligate parasite D. a commensal E. an autotroph
26. The part numbered 12 is
A. pectoral fin B. scale C. opercular plate D. gill plate E. gectoral girdle.
27. During the movement of the fish from point 1 to target 8 one of these parts is not involved.
A. 7 B. 5C. 3 D. 6 E. 10
28. The feature that distinguishes the toad or frog from fish is the absence of
A. scales B. lungs C. paired appendages D. a tail E. skin glands.
29. Which of these is not associated with the tadpole stages of the toad or frog?
A. V shaped gland B. Operculum C. External gills D. Jelly E. Shell.
30. Which of these is not associated with the movement of the toad, reptile or birds?
A. Hopping B. Bopping C. Flapping D. Gliding E. Pecking
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
31. Which of these is not part of the feather of a bird?
A. Wing B. Aftershaft C. Inferior umbilicus D. Vane E. Barbule
32. Which of these is not a function of the mammalian skin?
A. Protection against bacterial infection B. Excretion of wastes and water C. Production of vitamin D when exposed to light D. Production of pigments to reduce temperature E. Regulation of body temperature
33. Which of these elements is required by plants in small quantities only?
A. Boron B. Nitrogen C. Phosphorus D. Magnesium E. Potassium
34. Which of these is a direct photosynthetic product?
A. Glucose B. Starch C. Protein D. Fats E. Latex
35. The number shown as 8 refers to
A. upper epidermis B. cuticle C. stome D. guard cell E. lower epidermis.
36. The structure responsible for trapping the sun’s energy during photosynthesis is
A. 5 B. 6. C. 3 D.2 E. 8
37. Which of these plays no role in photosynthesis?
A. 9 B. 8 C. 5 D.2 E.3
38. A potometer was used to compare the rate of loss of the same volume of water from a plant under different environmental conditions as under a fan, at the sea shore, under the sun, in the airy laboratory and in a cupboard. Which of the times was likely to have been obtained in a cupboard?
A. 15 secs B. 30 secs C. 25 secs D. 20 secs E. 28 secs.
39. Figure 4 shows diagrams for the correction of short sightedness. If the unbroken lines represent light rays from the object and the broken lines the refracted rays through the lens, which of these is correct?
A. A B.B C.0 D.D E.E
40. The mammalian stomach can carry out a number of processes except
A. absorption of glucose B. secretion of hydrochloric acid C. secretion of gastric juice D. churning of food E. production of trypsin
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
41. A spirogyra cell was placed in solution X. After 1. minute, the cell had been plasmóysed, solution X was
A. tap water B. a very strong sugar solution C. a very weak sugar solution D. a very weak salt solution E. distilled water
42. A farmer X working in a swamp did not eat any food nor drink any water. Which of these diseases can he not contact?
A. Cholera A. Bilharzia B. River blindness D. Malaria E. Sleeping sickness.
43. A carbohydrate molecule in the blood in the right ventricle of the heart is pumped into the cell of the toe of man. Which of these structures is it unlikely to pass through en route?
A. Pulmonary artery B. Lungs C. Heart D. Liver E. Aorta
44. in a phototropic experiment, young seedlings in a box were subjected to light from one direction. The seedlings continued to grow erect. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Only the tips of the seedlings received light B. The light was not strong enough C. The seedlings were rather too young D. The tips of the seedlings may have been covered E. The box containing the seedlings should have been placed on a laboratory bench.
45. WhIch of these is not a characteristic of wind pollinated flowers?
A. Smaller quantities of sticky pollen are produced B. Feathery styles of stigmas pendulously hang outside the flower C. Small, inconspicuous, scentless flowers D. Large anthers which are loosely attached to filaments E. Light pollen grains produced in large quantities from anthers.
46. A germinating seed requires oxygen which is essential for
A.converting carbohydrate into glucose B. transporting energy from one part of the plant to another C. the production of energy by oxidising essential carbohydrates D. Hydrolysis of proteins E. the formation of water molecules within the germinating seed.
47. Which of these products obtained from analysing sweat from the skin is not an excretory product?
A. water B. salt C. dust D. urea E. urates
48. In the food chain shown in Fig. 5 below, the secondary consumer is
A. 6 B. 2 C.3 D.5 E.4
49. In a breeding programme, a cross was made between two true-breeding cowpea types: one with round seeds and the other with wrinkled seeds. If roundness is dominant while wrinkleness is recessive, in the first fillial generation, all the seeds produced will be
A. 25% wrinkled, 75% round B. 100% wrinkled C. 50% wrinkled, 50% round D. 75% wrinkled, 25% round E. 100% round
50. Figure 6 represents an experiment with two types of soils. This experiment is to demonstrate
A. soil attraction for water B. soil porosity C. soil capillarity E. soil permeability
JAMB 1978 Past Questions Biology ANSWERS
1.B 4.A 7.A 10.D 13.C 16.E 19.B 22.C 25.C 28.A 31.A 34.A 37.D 40.D 43.D 46.C 49.A
2.C 5.B 8.D 11.C 14.B 17.C 20.C 23.A 26.E 29.E 32.D 35.D 38.B 41.E 44.A 47.C 50.C
3.E 6.C 9.D 12.D 15.B 18.E 21.C 24.C 27.A 30.E 33.A 36.C 39.D 42.B 45.A 48.E
Mathematics
JAMB 1978 Past Questions and Answers
English Language
COMPREHENSION:
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
A.
All over the world till lately, and in most of the world still today, mankind has been following the course of nature: that is to say, it has been breeding up to the maximum. To let nature take her extravagant course in the reproduction of the human race may have made sense in an age in which we were also letting her take her course in decimating mankind by the casualties of war, pestilence, and famine. Being human, we have at last revolted against that senseless waste. We have started to impose on nature’s heartless play a humane new order of our own. But when once man has begun to interfere with nature he cannot afford to stop half way We cannot with impunity, cut down the death-rate and at the same time allow the birth-rate to go on taking nature’s course We must consciously try to establish an equilibrium or sooner or later, famine will stalk abroad again
1. The author observes that
A. war, pestilence and famine were caused by the extravagance of nature B. nature was heartless and senseless C. there was a time when uncontrolled birth made sense D. it was Wise-at a time when mankind did not interfere with normal reproduction E nature war heartless in its reproductive process
2. Which of these statements does not express the opinion of the author?
A. Mankind has started to interfere with the work of nature. B. Many people had died in the past through want and disease. C. Mankind should not have the maximum number of children possible. D. Mankind should take care of its children. E. Man’s present relationship with nature in matters of birth and death is a happy one
3. ‘humane’ as used in the passage means
A. sensible B. wise C. human D. benevolent E. thorough.
4 We must consciously try to establish an equilibrium’ (lines 7-8) implies that mankind must
A realistically find an equation B. strive not to be wasteful C deliberately try to fight nature D. try to fight nature E.purposely find a balance.
5. The main idea of this passage is that
A. nature is heartless B. man should control the birth-rate C. mankind will soon perish of starvation D pestilence causes more deaths than war E man should change nature’s course gradually. . . . . .
B.
The endeavour to maintain proper standards of fairness in journalism must be pursued. it is fatally easy for the journalist to deviate from the straight path There is his natural desire to make a story and insidious temptation to twist facts to square with his paper’s policy. Both are as indefensible as the framing of misleading he for the sake of effect. The conscientious journalist must check any tendency to bias; and guard against the dangers inherent in personal antipathies or friendships, and in traditional opposition between rival schools of thought. When a political opponent, whose stupidity habitually provokes attack, makes an effective speech, honesty requires that he be given credit for it. Where personal relationships might make it easier and more congenial to keep silent than to criticize, the journalist must never forget his duty to the public and the supreme importance of recording the truth.
6 When may a journalist have to act against his own inclination?
A When his friends act stupidly. B When he becomes weak and decrepit C When his enemies make a mistake D When his political opponents frame misleading headlines E After he has been given a bribe
7. A journalist would be able to uphold the tenets of his profession if.
A he seeks publicity B.” he tries to achieve popularity C. he resist: temptation to’ bias. D. he can manipulate his story to please his employers. E. he tries to protect his friends. . .
8 ‘insidious’ (line 2) means
A. subtle B. wicked C. natural D. unusual E. wild. .
9. A dutiful journalist must
A. read widely B. have political acumen C. make no enemies but friends D:be able to make an effective speech E. be able to recognize merit wherever found. .
10. The duty of the journalist to the public entails
A. giving credit to his political enemies B. keeping quiet when necessary C. trying to ‘make a story’ D. telling the truth E. defending the weak.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
C
So far. I have been speaking of science in its universally viewed from the perspective of the world at large For in the context of our own country and our sister developing countries many factors mentioned earlier are not very important. For example, pollution, deterioration of the environment and population explosion are not yet serious problems for us in this country. .
Let me now turn to a more specific area,, namely, the question of scientific choice for developing countries. There is no doubt that the role which science and technology have played in the upliftment of the material and economic well- being of the developed nations will, and does, influence the criteria that the Third World nations choose in order to establish their science policies and priorities. But the criteria to be used by these nations do not have to be the same as those which have brought the developed countries to their present stage of evolution For while human beings have the same problems their solutions tote meaningful will have to be sought within some relevant frame of reference such as the available resources and expertise social values place and time in the historical scale
11.The frame of reference in this passage (line 11) means
A point of information B range of authority C.-economic pattern D context of situation E wholesome choice
12 The writer apparently believes that science and technology our country can achieve
A peace and order B progress and material success C social values and universality D wealth and economic progress E military development and power.
13 According to the passage the basic consideration for developing science and technology should be three of following: 1 technical know-how 2 availability of raw. materials 3 atmospheric pollution 4 the people’s tradition and beliefs 5 population 6 capital
A 2, 1 and 6 only. B. 3,2 and A only C. 5, 3 and 6 only D. 6, 5 and 4 only E. 5,2 and 6 only. . . .. ..
14 The main idea of this passage is that
A there is a yawning gap between the haves and the have-nots B there is need to rid his countrymen from the scourges of hunger, disease, ignorance and want C. there could be atmospheric pollution and population explosion D. the concerns of science and technology are the same in all countries E. ea nation must plan its development according to its needs and resources
15 The term our sister developing countries implies
A Britain Gambia and Canada B Ghana Germany and Togo C. Russia, Switzerland and America D. Liberia, Sierra-Leone and Gabon E. China, India and Holland.
D
These two factors, the altitude and the weather, tend separately and together to defeat the climber. The height weakens, lows him down, it forces him to spend days and nights in the course of his assault on the summit if weather besides adding to the demand of his energy and moral fortitude conspires to deny him the time he nee to complete his mission. Whereas in lower mountains and on easy ground the weather may be no more than handicap, high Himalayas it is decisive, regardless of terrain.
The deduction to be drawn from these two factors was clear enough. We-must either so fortify ourselves that v could continue, without detriment, to live and have our being above the limit of natural acclimatization, or better st we must solve the problem of speed. It was desirable, in fact, that we should meet both these requirements, ar thus give to those chosen to attempt the summit and to their supporting teams some measure of insurance against the vagaries of the weather, for safety in mountain climbing is as much as matter of swiftness as of sureness foot. Either or both could be achieved only by the administration of oxygen insufficient quantities to make up for ti deficiency in the air, and for the duration of the upward journey above the limit of successful acclimatization
16 The author believes that to overcome the problems of altitude and weather the climber needs mainly
A courage ai speed B. energy and moral fortitude C. sufficient quantities of oxygen D. swiftness and sureness of foot E. quid acclimatization.
17. conspires’ (line 3) means
A. ruins B. makes secret plans C. takes a wicked action D. combines E. aggravates
18. Regardless of terrain (line 5) means
A; every on easy ground B. despite the nature of the ground C. because steeper gradients D. ignoring the in-hospitality of the mountainside E. without considering the handicap
19. To live and have our being above the limit of natural acclimatization’ (line 7) means
A. to be protected from U effects of the weather B. to expect no protection from the bad weather C. to survive under unnatural wealth conditions D. limit our natural desires to get acclimatized to the weather E. none of the above.
20. Which ONE of the following was NOT a reason for using oxygen?
A. It gave the psychological encouragement B. It fortified them to live above the limit of natural acclimatization. C. It protected them against the unexpected changes of the weather. D. It quickened their journey to the summit. E. It helped them, to survive the worst effect of the weather.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
E.
I dare not lift the veil that protects our tribal marriage customs and ceremonies from the eyes of outsiders. There already too little in this world that is sacred; and what Fatmata and I were required to go through during the ne week must remain so. I was deeply in debt by the time everything was over, but I was absolutely satisfied with her parents choice. Fatmata was as black as satin, and as soft. She had the teeth and smile of a goddess. The Doi tutors had done their job well: she was a completely efficient lover and mother. I brought her home with swelling pride, and began at once to save all I could spare towards the cost of acquiring my second wife. My anti-Western revolt was gaining momentum.
21. The evidence would seem to indicate that
A. the author adores his wife B. he disapproves of her ways C. he thin she is extravagant D. the author regrets the cause of his debt E. she had not been properly brought up.
22. When the author said My anti-Western revolt was gaining momentum’ (line 7),
A. he was referring to the fact that he did not like polygamy B. he hated Europeans C. he did not want to marry another wife D. he admired everything about his wife E. he revolted against European values
23. It would appear that the marriage had turned him into
A. a good worker B. a faithful husband C. an incurable debt D. a tragic figure E. a proud husband.
24. Which one of the following, is NOT true of the passage?
A. The lady was beautiful. B. The marriage cost a lot of money. C. The marriage was according to native law and custom. D. Fatmata never had an issue.. E. The author wanted another wife.
25. ‘Swelling (Fine 5) means
A. jovial B. great C. remarkable D. happy E. growing
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in each of the following sentence
26. In the match against the Uplanders team, the Sub-mariners turned out to be the dark horse.
A. played m brilliantly B. played below their usual form C. won unexpectedly D. lost as expected E. won as expected.
27. Only the small fry get punished for such social misdemeanours.
A. small boys B. unimportant people C. frighten people D. frivolous people E. inexperienced people.
28. He spoke with his heart in his mouth
A. courageously B. with such unusual cowardice C. with a lot of confusion his speech D. without being able to make up his mind E. with fright and agitation.
29. The leader in today’s issue of our popular newspaper focuses on inflation.
A. president B. headline C. editor D. columnist E proprietor.
30 From the way my friend talks you can see he is such a bore.
A rude B brilliant C uninteresting D overbearing E. humorous.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
31. His jail terms were to run concurrently.
A. simultaneously B. uniformly C. laboriously D. consecutively E. judiciously
32. There is some obvious symmetry in the whole presentation.
A. confusion B. hesitation C. excitement D. ordering E. dissatisfaction.
33. This bill has to wait as we are now insolvent.
A.overworked B. bankrupt C. unsettled D. insoluble E. affluent
34. All his plans fell through.
A. failed B. were accomplished C. had to be reviewed D. were rejected E. fell.
35. The balance sheet at the end of the business year shows that we broke even.
A. lost heavily B. made profit C. neither lost nor gained D. had no money to continue business E. were heavily indebted to our bankers
36. He was appointed specifically to put the recruits through.
A. assign them to work B. train them C. discipline them D. assist them at work E. supervise them at work.
37. The result of his experiment represents a break through in medical science.
A. an outstanding success B. catastrophe C. an end to such experiments D. a breaking point E. a colossal failure.
38. Being an optimist, our professor always sees the bright side of most things.
A. charming B. illumined C. brilliant D. pleasing E. cheerful.
39. The State Governor appointed a Commission of Inquiry to go into the community’s complaints carefully and without prejudice.
A. investigate B. search C. look for D. account for E. ascertain.
40. The traffic situation in Lagos can lead to disastrous consequences; a man lost a very lucrative job because he was held up by it.
A. confused B. delayed. C. annoyed D. intrigued E. obstructed
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
41. Mrs. Dada has been deserted by her husband because he feels she has a heart of stone.
A. she has a heavy heart B. she has little warmth of feeling C. she has a hard heart D. she is hard hearted E. she has a strong heart.
42. Mr. Jack could be a successful businessman if he paid more attention to the more intricate aspects of account.
A Mr. Jack will undoubted succeed B. Mr.Jack cannot succeed C. Mr. Jack will have a very good chance of succeeding D. Mr. Jack will find it difficult to succeed E. Mr. Jack will succeed in spite of all odds.
43. If my father had not arrived, I would have starved. This sentence means
A. my father did arrive and I didn’t starve B. I had to starve because my father didn’t come C. my father didn’t arrive and I didn’t starve D. I should have starved but didn’t E. I had starved before my father arrived.
44. The two sprinters were running fleck and neck.
A. exactly level B. very slowly C. very fast D. with their necks together E. together.
45. He stared at her
A. glanced B. peeped C. looked D. gazed E. fixed.
46. When the man was caught by the police he presented a bold front
A,. he attacked the policeman boldly B. he walked up to the policemen C. he faced the situation with apparent boldness D. he bravely attempted to give them a present E. he frowned at them in a defiant manner.
47. 1 have been able to observe him at close quarters
A in government houses near-by B. within a short space of time C. in a small family house D. at close range E. at regular intervals.
48. At the sight of the ghastly accident the poor woman’s hair stood on end
A. the woman’s hair became straight B. the wind blew her hair upwards C. the woman was unmoved D. the woman disarranged her hair E. the woman• was frightened.
Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space:
49. When the beggar was tired he …..down by the roadside.
A lied B. laid C. layed E. lain.
50. He did not like…..leaving the class early.
A. we B. us C. our D. ourselves E. our selves.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
51. Before the operation the dentist found that his patient’s teeth …..
A. have long decayed B. have long been decayed C. have long being decayed D. had long decayed E. had been decayed
52. The ’employer, not the salesman and his representative . ….. responsible for the loss.
A. are B. are being C. are never D. have been E. is.
53. The boy was born before his parents actually got married and so the court has declared him …….
A. illegal B. illegitimate C. illicit D. unlawful E. untenable.
54. As he was still owing me two Naira, I was careful not to …..him any more money.
A. lend B. loan C. borrow D. extend E. credit.
55. Last week the …..at the theatre was the largest I had ever seen.
A. assembly B. congregation C. convention D. audience E. crowd.
56. If you travel by air you will be given an allowance to cover ……….
A. a luggagge B. luggage C. Iuggages D. a baggage E. baggages.
57. Tennyson and Browning lived about the same time and are therefore ………poets.
A. contrary B. contractual C. contemporaneous D. contemporary E. contemptible
58. The green snake which lives in the green grass is using a perfect …… .
A. ambush B. under cover C. camouflage D. shelter E. subterfuge.
59. In order to carry out the necessary examination the dead body was……..
A. extracted B. extradited C. exiled D. expelled E. exhumed.
60. Remember this matter is strictly ………
A. between you and I B. among you and I C. among you and me D. between you and me E. between you and myself.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
61. He went abroad with a view ……..a business partner.
A. to find B. to be finding C. to have found D. to finding E. he will find.
62. He had just entered the office …..the telephone rang.
A. as B. before C. since D. when E. until.
63. They ……receive visitors at short notice.
A. use to B.. are used to C. used to D. are always E. are use to
64. His suggestion is complete I …..the point and cannot be accepted.
A. to B. about C. beside D. on E. under.
65. For …..he is secretary, we shall not have correct minutes.
A. because B. as long as C. so long D. in as much E. although.
66. He went up quickly and returned …..
A. fastest B. fastly D. as fast E. in fastness.
67. Invariably, he ends all his letters ……….amicably.
A. You B. your’s C. yours’ D. yours E. your own.
68. If I went to the cinema I ……early.
A. shall return B. am returning C. would return D. had returned E. may return.
69. The traditional folk tales form an …..to the book.
A. index B. insertion C. information D. overview E. appendix
70. The frightening explosions in the factory …..a whole wing.
A. washed out B. wiped out C. rooted out D. flushed out E. cleared out.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
71. Our plane was scheduled to ……at 10.00 hrs but it was delayed because of bad weather.
A. fly out B. take off C. start out D. shoot off E. lift off.
72. As luck would have it, the weather brightened almost immediately and after six hours flight we. ….. at Heathrow Airport
A. touched down B. dropped.C. came down D. flew down E. stopped.
73 Before we left the airport each passenger was made to certain forms.
A.fill in B write in C enter in D go through E read out
74. My father cannot bear the …………of the .concoction..that emanates, from my mother’s soup pot
A. awe B. savouring C’aroma D. smell E. scent
75. I would not have condescended to appease the traffic police man but I happened……….’ .traffic regulations.
A to have broken B be breaking C .to break D. To break in E. to have evaded. ‘ . .. . . . ‘. ..’ .
76 The Managing Director did not pay his staff last month
A didn’t the B had he not C is not it D did he
77 Although he is in all respects a poor student he has managed to buy a tape recorder to improve his French
A mastery B., mastering C speaking D. E thinking
78. Granted you are my senior by one year, you cannot………….me around as if I were your servant’
A. control B. dribble C. order D. ask E. compel.
79 ………marked an important step in the history of the industrial revolution.
A. The, invention of the locomotive engine B The discovery of locomotion C The discovery of the engine D Inquiry into locomotion E The process locomotion
80 Because the referee was partial and his opponent rough, the loser of the wrestling match received cheers than the winner.
A thunderous B. many more C. overwhelming D. a little more E. several.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
81.. .The boxer was highly rated ……… his doggedness and ability to absorb heavy punches..
A by B. .trough.C. for D about E.in
82 Many lives are lost on Nigerian roads lack of consideration for other road users by many crazy, drivers
A view of B. resulting in C. owing totally to D. through E. by.
83 The man no longer feared his opponents after their spokesman had assured him that they were well disposed………..
A; to B. towards .C. around D. about E. for.
84. My little boy is hyper-active and he is therefore prone …. accidents.
A with respect to B. for C.’ to D.. about E. regards
85. His horrible high pitched laugh. ……on my nerves.
A. jàgs B. jabs C. jams D. jars E. jeers
86. The train rattled along…… full speed.
A in B. at C. with D. by E. oh.
87. You would have thought that somebody would’ve informed me ……
A. shouldn’t they? B. wouldn’t you? C. 1 should think D. you agree E. isn’t it?
88 If this had-happened to you, what. ……
A. would you do? B. have you done? C. would you have done? D. Will you dc E; would you be doing?
89. What a relief that the strike’…… when it did!
A. would end B. was ending C. ended 0.-has ended. .E. is ending.
90. We should take care ….the robbers come back.
A. maybe B should in case C. perhaps D. probably’E. in case
91 By the time the rainy season ended, all the young cocoa trees…. in size
A. have doubled B. had doubled C. were doubling D. doubled E. will double.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions
92 There were so many, children
A that she couldn’t feed them alt B than she could feed C than she couldn’t feed D.that she could feed them all E more than she could feed them all.
93 Isn’t: it high time you your office
A are leaving B do leave C leave D left E did leave
94 In West Africa the of sickle cell is about 25%
A incident B incidence C. accident D accident E incense
95 We got to the hall after the play
A is started B was starting C had started D has started E would started
Substitute for the underlined word in the following sentence the word that most closely expresses the opposite meaning
96 The plaintiff made very cogent submissions to the trial judge
A bailiff B prosecutor C lawyer 0 defend E accused
Choose the option which is nearest in meaning to the sentences in each of the following questions
97 We visited the home of one boy. That’s the boy I mean
A. That’s the boy whom we visited his home B That’s I boy whose home we visited C That’s the boy to whose home’ we visited D That s the boy whom we visited home. E. That’s the boy the home of whom we visited.
98. The dog was limping, it appeared that one of its legs might have been injured.
A. The dog was limping as if it ,an injured leg;. B. The dog was limping as it had an injured leg. C. The dog was limping so it had an injured leg D The dog was limping so as it. had an injured leg. E. The dog was limping for it had an injured.leg..
99 I can walk that distance and have done so many times
A I am used to walk that distance. B. I used to walk that distance. .D I used to walking that distance. D.] amused to walking that distance. E. I will walk that distance
100 For all he cared his parents might have been dead for years
A Although concerned about his parents he been unable to find out if they were alive B. He cared for no-one except his parents, and it was possible that I had died long before. C. He did not care whether his parents Were alive or had died long before. concerned about everyone, not just about his parents, who might have died long before. He cared very much his parents even though they were dead.
JAMB 1978 Past Questions English ANSWERS
1.C 6.A 11.D 16.C 21.A 26.C 31.A 36.B 41.D 46.C 51.D 56.B 61.D 66.D 71.B 76.D 81.C 86.A 91.B 96.D 2.E 7.C 12.B 17.D 22.E 27.B 32.D 37.A 42.C 47.D 52.E 57.D 62.D 67.D 72.A 77.A 82.C 87.B 92.A 97.B 3.A 8.A 13.A 18.B 23.E 28.E 33.B 38.E 43.A 48.E 53.B 58.C 63.C 68.C 73.A 78.C 83.B 88.C 93.D 98.A 4.E 9.E 14.E 19.C 24.D 29.C 34.A 39.A 44.A 49.D 54.A 59.E 64.C 69.E 74.C 79.A 84.C 89.C 94.B 99.D 5.B 10D 15.D 20.A 25.B 30.C 35.B 40.B 45.D 50.C 55.D 60.D 65.B 70.B 75.A 80.D 85.D 90.E 95.C 100.C
