WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Economics 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1. Economic problems arise in all societies because
(a) resources are mismanaged by leaders (b) there is no proper planning (c) resources are not in adequate supply (d) the services of economists are not employed.
2. Which of the following is not emphasized in a production possibility curve?
(a) Scarcity of resources (b) economic development (c) inefficiency in the use of resources (d) Unemployment of labour.
3. The organisation of productive factors is the responsibility of the
(a) management (b) entrepreneur (c) production manager (d) labour union.
4. Producers operating in a free market economy are more efficient as a result of
(a) the existence of competition (b) the very few number of participants (c) the commitment of the shareholders (d) government’s regulation of their activities.
5. In a pie chart, the population of a city is represented by a sector 450. If the country has a population of 10 million people, then the city’s population is
(a) 0.0045 million (b) 4.5 million (c) 1.25 million (d) 16 million.
6. A download sloping demand curve means that
(a) total revenue declines as price is lowered (b) demand falls as output rises (c) demand falls as output falls (d) price must be lowered to sell more.
7. If the price of commodity X rises and consumers shift to commodity Y, then commodities X and Y are
(a) substitutes (b) complements (c) inferior goods (d) bought together.
8. Goods whose demands vary directly with money income are called
(a) inferior goods (b) complementary goods (c) substitute goods (d) normal goods.
9. An exceptional demand curve can result from
(a) increase in price of raw materials (b) increase in the size of the population (C) expectation of future price increase (d) change in taste of the consumer.
10. Palm oil and palm kernel are in
(a) joint supply (b) competitive demand (c) competitive supply (d)complementary demand.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
11. Which of the following is true about supply of land? It
(a) is higher in the urban than rural areas (b) varies with time (c) rises with demand (d) is fixed.
12. The backward bending supply curve of labour indicates
(a) an abnormal supply situation (b) the law of supply (c) that labour supply and wage rate are directly related (d) that the elasticity of supply is uniform.
13. A supply curve parallel to the X – axis indicates
(a) fairly elastic supply (b) infinitely elastic supply (c) fairly inelastic supply (d) perfectly inelastic supply.
14. If the marginal utility of a commodity is equal to its price, then
(a) the consumer is in equilibrium (b) more of the commodity can be consumed (C) total utility is also equal to its price (d) the market is not in equilibrium.
15. A price floor is usually fixed
(a) at the equilibrium and causes shortage (b) above the equilibrium and causes shortage (c) below the equilibrium and causes surpluses (d) above the equilibrium and causes surpluses.
16. A market is in equilibrium when
(a) there is no government intervention (b) the demand is the same as the supply (C) buyers and sellers are free to sell more goods (d) there is no free entry and exit.
17. A firm’s average cost decreases in the long-run because of
(a) increasing returns to scale (b) diminishing average returns (c) decreasing marginal returns (d) decreasing average fixed cost.
18. “The larger a firm, the lower its cost of production”. This statement explains the
(a) law of diminishing returns (b) concept of economics of scale (c) law of comparative cost advantage (d) theory of division of labour.
Use the table below to answer questions 19 and 20
| Quantity | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
| Total Cost | 20 | 25 | 28 | 30 | 38 | 55 | 92 | 135 |
19. The total fixed cost is
(a) $ 7.00 (b) $ 30.00 (c) $ 20.00 (d)$135.00.
20. At output level 5, the total variable cost is
(a) $ 5.00 (b) $20.00 (c) $ 55.00 (d) $ 35.00.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
21. In the long-run. A firm must shut down if its average revenue is
(a) greater than average cost (b) less than average variable cost (c) equal to the minimum average cost (d) equal to the average cost.
22. Public limited liability companies are democratic in nature because
(a) government appointees are members of the board (b) they are run by elected public officers (c) electoral principles are adopted in the day-to-day management (d) shareholders elect the board of directors.
23. In the event of bankruptcy, owners of joint-stock companies lose
(a) their private properties (b) both company and private assets (c) only the capital invested (d) only their dividends.
24. Wholesalers play an important role in the distribution of goods and services because they
(a) are located very close to consumers (b) finance both producers and retailers (c) pass information on from retailers to consumers (d) sell in small units to consumers.
25. If workers at the school canteen cannot sell during the holidays, this is an example of
(a) structural unemployment (b) frictional unemployment (c) seasonal unemployment (d) residual unemployment.
26. Positive checks as envisaged by Thomas Malthus can be prevented if
(a) death rate is reduced (b) marriage is abolished (c) more hospitals are built (d) moral restraint is adopted.
27. Which of the following factors is not a reason for farmer’s unstable incomes?
(a) dependence on too many crops (b) poor storage facilities (c) adverse weather condition (d) recession in the world economy.
28. Local firms can help in reducing unemployment in a country when
(a) land acquisitions becomes centralized (b) imports of substitutes are reduced (c) waste in the firm is eliminated (d) subsidies to firms are decreased.
29. An industry is described as a group of firms
(a) that provides jobs for many people (b) which uses advance technology in production (c) which produces similar products (d) that provides jobs for few people.
30. The largest component of national income in developing countries consists of
(a) profits (b) profit and rent (c) rent (d) wages and salaries.
31. A baker bought flour and other ingredients for $250.00 spent $52.00 on distribution, sold the bread for $320.00. The value added by baker is
(a) $302.00 (b) $52.00 (c) $18.00 (d) $622.00.
32. In a country with large population of full-time housewives, national income
(a) will be composed of goods produced by women (b) figures will be grossly over-stated (c) statistics will be difficult to calculate (d) figures will be grossly under-stated.
33.Demand-pull inflation is likely to be caused by
(a) an increase in the cost of factor inputs (b) increase in the income tax rate (c) increase in bank lending rates (d) increasingly large budget deficit.
34. Holding money to take care of contingencies is
(a) a speculative motive (b) a transactions motive (c) a precautionary motive (d) an expansionary motive.
35. If a housewife has meat and wants tomatoes, she must find someone who has tomatoes to give and wants meat. This concept is described as
(a) scale of preference (b) opportunity cost (c) complementary demand (d) double coincidence of wants.
36. The stock exchange is an example of the
(a) labour market (b) money market (c) commodity market (d) capital market.
37. What happens when the central bank increases the bank rate in an economy?
(a) borrowing is discouraged (b) customers increase their borrowing (c) banks can increase their lending (d) money supply increases.
38. Income is redistributed when the rich are progressively taxed and
(a) more private schools are established (b) subsidy is provided on petroleum products (c) more public goods are provided (d) farmers are given guaranteed prices.
39. In order to increase revenue, government should tax commodities for which demand is
(a) perfectly price inelastic (b) price inelastic (c) price elastic (d) unitary elastic.
40. Which of the following activities will not lead to economic growth?
(a) massive importation of capital goods (b) intensive capital formation locally (c) use of modern technology (d) massive importation of consumer goods.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
41. The poorer the country, the larger the percentage of labour force engaged in
(a) agriculture (b) mining (c) trading (d) manufacturing.
42. Which of the following measures can be adopted to stabilize the external value of the local currency?
(a) reduce the volume of exports (b) increase the demand for imports (c) increase domestic money supply (d) reduce the demand for imports.
43. Which of the following is not measure for reducing balance of payments deficits?
(a) export drive (b) reducing tariffs (c) adding value to export goods (d) increasing local production.
44. Nations engage in external trade because of differences in
(a) comparative cost (b) absolute cost (C) fixed cost (d) variable cost.
45. One advantage of international trade is that
(a) prices of goods become stable (b) countries become self-sufficient (c) goods consumed are produced at a very high cost (d) it makes possible the consumption of variety of goods.
46. Which of the following forms of economic integration is a member nation free to impose duty against non¬members?
(a) customs union (b) free trade area (c) common market (d) economic community.
47. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) performs the following functions except
(a) granting long-term loans (b) assisting with technical expertise (c) reducing tariff among members (d) developing human resource.
48. An electrical engineer who is teaching Physics in a secondary school is said to be
(a) underemployed (b) unemployed (C) fully employed (d) technologically unemployed.
49. One benefit a country can derive from the extraction of crude oil is increase in
(a) population (b) employment (c) money (d) demand for imports.
50. Which of the following cannot be classified as a natural resource?
(a) iron rod (b) wild life (c) solar energy (d) gold.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Economics 1 ANSWERS
1.C 6.B 11.D 16.B 21.B 26.D 31.C 36.D 41.A 46.D
2. B 7.A 12.C 17.C 22.D 27.A 32.B 37.A 42.D 47.C
3. B 8.D 13.B 18.A 23.C 28.B 33.A 38.C 43.C 48.B
4. B 9.C 14.C 19.C 24.B 29.C 34.C 39.D 44.A 49.C
5. C 10.A 15.B 20.D 25.C 30.B 35.D 40.D 45.D 50.C
Economics 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A. 1: The table below shows the composition of exports and imports of a hypothetical country. Use the information in the table to answer the questions that follow.
| Exports | Amount $ | Imports | Amounts $ |
| Crude oil | 120,000,000 | Rice and Flour | 140,000,000 |
| Groundnuts | 40,000,000 | Petroleum product | 80,000,000 |
| Tourism | 45,000,000 | Vehicles and accessories | 50,000,000 |
| Shipping & Insurance | 60,000,000 | Banking services | 60,000,000 |
| Bauxite | 80,000,000 | Freight and insurance | 140,000,000 |
(a) Calculate the value of visible exports.
(b) Calculate the balance of trade for the country.
(c) List the items of invisible exports and imports.
(d) Calculate the current account balance of the country.
(e) Is the country developed or developing? Give one reason for your answer.
2. The cost and output schedule of a firm is shown in the table below.
| Output (kg) | 0 | 15 | 35 | 60 | |
| Variable cost ($) | 0 | 30 | 55 | 75 | |
| Total cost ($) | 15 | 45 | 70 | 90 | 05 |
| Total revenue | 0 | 30 | 70 | 120 | 70 |
(a) Using the data in the table, at each level of output, calculate the firm’s (i) marginal revenue
(ii) marginal cost.
(b) At what output level did the firm:
(i) break even
(ii) make the highest profit
(iii) attain equilibrium
(c) Identify the market structure in which the firm operates.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B
3. (a) Define optimum population.
(b) In what three ways can rapid population growth slow down the rate of economic development?
(c) Describe any three measures that can be adopted to control rapid population growth.
4. (a) What are state-owned enterprises?
(b) State any three reasons for the establishment of state-owned enterprises.
(c) Highlight any four problems associated with state-owned enterprises.
5. (a) Differentiate between unemployment and underemployment.
(b) With one example each, explain the following.
(I) seasonal unemployment
(ii) structural unemployment
(iii) frictional unemployment
(iv) cyclical unemployment.
6. (a) What is commodity money?
(b) Identify any three problems associated with trade by barter.
(c) Explain any three ways by which the advent of money has solved the problems of the barter system.
7. (a) What is a demand schedule?
(b) State the law of demand.
(c) Using appropriate examples, explain the following types of demand:
(i) competitive demand
(ii) derived demand
(iii) joint demand
(iv) composite demand.
8. (a) What is a tax?
(b) Describe the following rates of taxation.
(i) progressive tax
(ii) proportional tax
(ill) regressive tax.
(c) Explain the following principles of a good tax system:
(i)equity
(ii) convenience
(iii) economy.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Economics 2 ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (a) Value of visible exports = crude oil + groundnut oil + bauxite
= $120,000,000 + $40,000,000 + $80,000,000 +$240,000,000
(b) Balance of trade = total value of visible exports – total value of visible imports
Visible exports = $240,000,000
Visible imports = rice and flour + petroleum product + vehicles and accessories
= $140,000,000 + $80,000,000 + $50,000,000 = $270,000,000
Balance of trade = $240,000,000- $270,000,000 = – $30,000,000
(c) Invisible exports include tourism, shipping and insurance, Invisible imports include banking services and freight and insurance.
(d) Current account balance = value of total exports – value of total imports
= ($345,000,0000) – ($370,000,0000) = – $25,000,000
(e) The country is a developing one. This is because:
(i) Its exports are made up mainly of unprocessed primary products.
(ii) Its imports are made up mainly of finished goods.
(iii) The value of imports exceeds exports.
2
(b)(i) The firm’s break-even point is at output level 35.
(ii) The firm makes the highest profit at output level 85.
(iii) The firm attains equilibrium at output level 15.
(c) The firm is operating in perfectly competitive market.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B
3. (a) Optimum population is the size of population which when combined with the available resources and level of technology will yield the highest output per head.
(b)(i) There is likely to be a high level of unemployment.
(ii) There will be a high dependency ratio.
(iii) There will be pressure on resources as government expenditure on provision of social amenities will be on the increase.
(iv) Per capita income will fall which may result in a low standard of living.
(v) There will be congestion on land which will affect productivity in agriculture.
(vi) There will be urban congestion with its attendant social vices.
(vii) There will be low savings and capital formation.
(viii) There maybe balance of payments problems due to an increase in import bills to meet the shortfall in local production.
(C) (i) Family planning.
(ii) Education on the need for smaller family sizes.
(iii) Implementation of tighter immigration measures.
(iv) Discouraging early marriages.
(v) Encouraging girl’s education.
(vi) Discouraging polygamy.
(vii) Incentives for smaller family sizes, e.g tax relief.
(viii) Strengthening social security systems for the aged to forestall the need for large families.
(ix) Enactment and enforcement of laws to regulate family size.
(x) Making cost of child-raising high by abolishing free education.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4(a) State-owned enterprises are business organisations established by law financed and controlled by the state for the benefit of society.
(b)(i) To provide social amenities such as water and electricity at affordable/reasonable prices.
(ii) To protect the people from exploitation by private firms through the establishment of similar firms.
(iii) To control private monopoly through nationalisation.
(iv) To raise revenue for government for developmental purposes.
(v) To provide public goods which are not normally provided by the private sector. E.g Defense.
(vi) To create employment which helps to raise the standard of living of the citizens.
(vii) For strategic reasons since certain industries cannot be left in the hands of the private sector e.g ammunition production.
(viii) Where huge initial capital is involved, government steps in when the private sector cannot provide it.
(xi) To diversify the economy, leading to growth and development.
(x) To ensure even development across the country.
(c)(i) Red-tapeism/bureaucracy: There is a lot of bureaucracy and administrative difficulties in state enterprises which tend to make quick decision-making very difficult.
(ii) Lack of initiative: Bold and progressive policies are very important for the success oi every business. This is however lacking in state-owned enterprises because they are to account to both the public and to parliament. The fear o failure may not allow them to take such decisions.
(iii) Less competition and inefficiency: Public corporations may not be competitive and efficient in their operations because they are usually monopolies without competitors, so they may no actually strive to be efficient.
(iv) Lack of personal interest: Management of workers of state corporations may not have the needed personal interest in the work since it belongs to the state.
(v) Loss of consumer sovereignty: Since mos public corporations produce under monopolistic conditions, the consumers may not have wide variety of goods to choose from. Their sovereignty is lost.
(vi) Political influence: The appointment o managerial staff affects morale and efficiency where such appointments are not based on merit.
(vii) Corruption and misappropriation of resources result in inefficiency.
(viii) Inadequate funding of state enterprises poses a challenge to their ability to operate efficiently.
(ix) Pricing policy: Government often interfere in the pricing policy of goods and services in state-owned enterprises.
(x) Some management staff lacks the necessary managerial skills to handle large-scale operations.
(xi) There is tribalism and nepotism in the appointment and promotion of staff in state-owned enterprises.
(xii) Changes in policies due to changes in government affect the smooth operations of state-owned enterprises.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
5. (a) Unemployment is situation where people who are able and willing to work at the existing wage rate are unable to find work OR a situation where factors of production such as capital lie idle or cannot be put to productive use. While underemployment exists when labour is engaged in any form of occupation/work below its full potential OR a situation where resources like capital is not optimally used.
(b) (i) Seasonal unemployment: This refers to a fall in demand for labour at certain times of the year due seasonal changes e.g when schools are on vocation, sellers in the school canteen become seasonally unemployed; farmers become unemployed during the dry season.
(ii) Structural unemployment: This occurs when there is a fall in the demand for the product of an industry leading to workers being permanently laid off. OR Structural unemployment occurs when there is a fall in the demand for the process of production changes, such that some workers become redundant e.g the use of earth-moving equipment has rendered labourers who use pick axes and shovels redundant in the construction industry; counting machines and ATMs have resulted in less people being employed as cashiers.
(iii) Frictional unemployment: This is unemployment caused by workers changing jobs or school leavers searching for jobs e.g a fresh graduate looking for a job.
(iv) Cyclical Unemployment: This is unemployment caused by a deficiency in aggregate demand leading to a deflationary phase of the business cycle e.g. when aggregate demand falls, firms need to cut down on labour.
6. (a) Commodity money is any product that can be used as a means of payment but which is valuable in its own right e.g beads.
(b)(i) The problem of double coincidence of wants made trade difficult and time wasting.
(ii) Many goods used in barter trade cannot be divided into smaller units.
(iii) Problem of exchange rate makes it difficult to determine how many of one commodity was to be exchanged to another commodity.
(iv) Under barter, there was little room for borrowing and lending because exchange was based on need.
(v) Goods used were bulky and conveyance was difficult.
(vi) Some goods are perishable and so savings was difficult, making storage of wealth difficult and discouraging large scale production.
(c) (i) Money has solved the problem of double coincidence of wants i.e. with money you can buy all you want or sell what you have at anytime.
(ii) With money, payment for a commodity can be deferred to a future date.
(iii) Money saves time and energy as you no longer have to search for somebody to exchange you commodity with.
(iv) With money, it is possible and easier to store wealth, making room for large scale production.
(v) Money has solved the problem of bulkiness since modem money can be carried around easily.
(vi) Money has created a standard unit of measurement making borrowing and lending easier in the economy.
(vii) Money has made determination of exchange rate of commodities easier.
(viii) Because money has several denominations, it has solved the problem of indivisibility associated with commodity money e.g cattle.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
7(a) A demand schedule is a table which shows the different quantities of a commodity which consumers are willing to buy at various prices at a particular time.
(b) The law of demand states that at a higher price, less is demand and at a lower price, more is demanded, other things being equal.
(c)(i) Composite demand: This refers to the total or aggregate demand for a commodity which has several uses. The composite demand for cassava for instance comprises the demand for cassava for its various uses e.g. making garri, for making industrial starch, for making fufu, e.t.c
(ii) Derived demand: This is demand for a commodity which is not needed for direct satisfaction, but rather for the production of other goods e.g. the demand for labour and other factors of production.
(iii) Joint or complementary demand: This refers to demand for commodities which are needed together to satisfy a want. There is joint demand for two commodities when they are such that without one, the other cannot satisfy a want e.g car and petrol, torch and batteries e.t.c.
(iv) Competitive demand: This applies to commodities which can be used interchangeably. Demand for substitute goods is thus competitive e.g Milo and Bournvita, meat and fish, turkey and chicken e.t.c
8. (a) A tax is a compulsory levy imposed by the government or its agency on individuals, companies or on goods and services.
(b) (I) A progressive tax is one in which as the level of income rises, tax rate also rises.
(ii) A tax is proportional when all tax payers pay the same percentage as tax irrespective of their levels of income.
(iii) A regressive tax is one in which as the level of income rises, the rate of tax rather falls, thus the higher income earners are taxed at lower rates than lower income earners.
(c) (I) Equity: This means fairness and states that tax should be based on ability to pay in order not to cause hardship to the tax payer.
(ii) Convenience: The payment of the tax should be convenient to the tax payer i.e. time and method of payment should be convenient.
(iii) Economy: The cost of collecting the tax should be small in relation to the revenue obtained from the tax.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Government 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1. A government performs the following functions except
(a) safeguarding life and property (b) maintaining law and order (c) providing all the needs of its citizens (d) providing basic welfare needs
2. The basic purpose of setting up a state is to
(a) maintain law and order (b) protect foreign interest (c) promote development (d) provide social facilities
3. A political system in which government controls every aspect of a citizen’s life is
(a) feudalism (b) monarchy (c) democracy (d) totalitarianism
4. A political system in which the state owns and controls the major means of production is known as
(a) feudalism (b) socialism (c) fascism (d) capitalism
5. Communist governments aim at distributing goods and services according to
(a) gender and class (b) loyalty to the party (C) need and ability (d) work and residence
6. The theory of separation of power is associated with
(a) Jean Bodin (b) Baron de Montesquieue (c) A.V. Dicey (d) J.J. Rousseau
7. The process of taking part in the selection of leaders in a country is political
(a) socialization (b) participation (c) interaction (d) culture
8. By comparison, a state is
(a) less permanent than a government (b) more permanent than a government (c) more changeable than a government (d) equally permanent with a government
9. In modern democracies, a government is
(a) a contract between the rulers and the ruled (b) a preserve of the political party in power (c) monopoly of the ethnic groups in the majority (d) alternation of power between the majority and minority tribes
10. Rule of law can be limited by
(a) power (b) state of emergency (c) legitimacy (d) checks and balances
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
11. The principle of separation of powers becomes meaningful when it is linked with the concept of
(a) the certainty of the law (b) checks and balances (c) legality of the law (d) judicial independence
12. Which of the following factors does not militate against representative government in West Africa?
(a) Electoral irregularities (b) coup d’etat (c) Gagged media (d) Universal adult suffrage
13. Those who believe in democracy and good governance are opposed to a single party system because it
(a) encourages weak leadership (b) does not ensure national unity (c) curtails personal liberty (d) encourages divisiveness
14. The fundamental law of a country refers to its
(a) acts of parliament (b) conventions (c) constitution (d) judicial precedence
15. A country’s constitution could be derived from the following sources except
(a) judicial precedents (b) customary sources (c) statutory sources (d) party manifesto
16. Planning and formulation of government policies are first initiated at
(a) cabinet meetings (b) media houses (c) political rallies (d) open forum
17. Which of the following is the primary function of parliament?
(a) Impeachment of the president (b) Making of laws (c) Ratifying international treaties (d) Acting as an electoral college
18. Judicial review is a mechanism for checking
(a) arbitrary use of power (b) irresponsible journalism (c) electoral malpractices (d) military adventures
19. In a parliamentary system of government, the legislature and executive are fused to ensure
(a) supremacy of the ruling party in administering the state (b) smoothness in the administration of the state (c) the constitution is read in parliament at all times (d) the judiciary consults parliament before ruling on cases
20. A country with homogeneous societies and a small population is suitable for the establishment of
(a) a nation state (b) a unitary state (c) a federal state (d) an autonomous state
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
21. Which of the following factors usually leads to the collapse of a confederal state?
(a) weak central government (b) absence of a confederal parliament (c) Ill-equipped armed forces (d) absence of a ceremonial Head of State
22. In the presidential system of government, the chief executive is responsible to the
(a) judiciary (b) monarch (C) electorate (d) senate
23. Which of the following alternatives is a feature of a federation?
(a) unwritten constitution (b) unicameral legislature (c) supremacy of the constitution (d) right to secede
24. A federal government is a form of
(a) decentralization (b) centralization (c) confederation (d) revolution
25. To preserve individual liberties, the judiciary should
(a) consist of honest and impartial judges (b) be appointed by the executive (C) be prosecuted for judgment against the executive (d) participate in partisan politics
26. Citizens can seek redress against injustice from the state through the
(a) ombudsman (b)head of civil service (c) civil service commission (d) titular executive.
27. Which of these is not a source of revenue for political parties?
(a) Dues (b) Grants (c) Tolls (d) Donations
28. Which of these functions is performed by both political parties and pressure groups?
(a) interest aggregation and articulation (b) source of mediation in a state (c) provision of specialized information (d) seeking to manage affairs of a state
29. Pressure groups seek to influence the polices of government
(a) to the advantage of their members (b) so that all citizens can benefit (c) to suit the manifestoes of political parties (d) to conform with electoral act
30. Which of the following agencies helps the most in shaping public opinion?
(a) pressure groups (b) mass media (C) colleges and universities (d) peer groups
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
31. Public opinion can be measured through all of the following expect the
(a) imposition of laws without any debates (b) conduct of opinion (c) general views expressed in the mass media (d) holding of referendum in a state
32. On which of the following grounds can a citizen abstain from voting?
(a) Religion (b) Education (c) Wealth (d) Status
33. An electoral system which allows party members to elect candidates for elective office is called
(a) general election (b) by election (c) direct election (d) primary election
34. Indirect election is best described as
(a) only women electing legislators (b) the citizenry electing legislators (c) electoral college electing legislators (d) only adults electing legislators
35. The class that controls and supervises the activities of the executive class in the civil service is
(a) clerical class (b) manipulative class (C) professional class (d) administrative class
36. The agency responsible for investigating allegation of maladministration and punishing offending career officers in the executive is the
(a) Federal Character Commission (b) Ethics Commission (c) Judicial Commission (d) Public/Civil Service Commission
37. The anonymity of civil servants means that they should not be
(a) prosecuted for any professional misconduct (b) disciplined because of their expertise (C) above the law of the land (d) praised or blamed publicly
38. The following were limitations imposed on traditional rulers under colonial rule except they
(a) were not permitted to raise armed forces (b) had no power to impose taxes (c) had no power to install or depose a chief (d) were no longer spiritual heads of the people
39. A system of administration which allowed traditional rulers to rule their people under the supervision of the British officials in West Africa is
(a) divide and rule (b) colonialism (c) indirect rule (d) assimilation
40. One reason for the adoption of indirect rule in British West Africa was
(a) availability of British officials (b) to ensure justice (c) inadequate finance (d) to assimilate the indigenes
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
41. Local government is established in order to
(a) bring government nearer to the people (b) build churches and mosques (c) curb corruption in the society (d) promote political apathy
42. Which of the following policies replaced assimilation?
(a) indigenat (c) Loi Cadre (c) Association (d) Indirect rule
43. Which of the following is a reason for the failure of the assimilation policy in French West Africa?
(a) the change in name of their culture (b)the refusal of the Africans to be culturally colonized (c) the democratic policy of the French (d) Bribery of the opinion leaders by the French
44. Nationalism prior to the Second World War was led by
(a) educated elite and chiefs (b) chiefs and the elders (c) aggrieved cocoa farmers (d) African merchants
45. Which of the following is not a factor leading to military intervention in West African states?
(a) Excessive control of public enterprises (b) Falsification of election results (c) Mismanagement of the country’s economy (d) Corruption in high places
46. One of the problems of military administration in West Africa is that soldiers
(a) are representatives of the people (b) lack discipline (c) are not well organised (d) are not trained for governance
47. Foreign policy of a country could be influenced by
(a) personality of political leader (b) number of schools in a country (c) number of ministers in a country (d) national election
48. In order to promote democracy and good governance, the Commonwealth of Nations
(a) prosecutes leaders who commit atrocities at the international Criminal Court (b) organised seminars and training programs on technical assistance to members (c) sanctions members who do not pay their dues (d) sponsors election observer teams to monitor the conduct of elections
49. Which of the following is not a problem faced by the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)
(a) Financial security (b) Political instability (c) Larger market (d) Colonial heritage
50. The United Nation Organisation (UNO) is primarily regarded as successful because
(a) its membership continues to increase (b) of its control of outbreak of another World War (c) all members countries have veto power (d) more member countries acquire more nuclear power.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Government 1 ANSWERS
1C 6B 11B 16A 21A 26A 31A 36D 41A 46D
2A 7B 12D 17B 22C 27C 32D 37B 42C 47A
3D 8B 13C 18A 23C 28A 33D 38A 43B 48D
4B 9A 14C 19B 24A 29A 34C 390 44A 49A
5C l0B 15D 20B 25A 30A 35D 40D 45A 50B
Government 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
1. (a) Define Society
(b). identify four features of a society
2. (a) What is communalism?
(b) State four differences between feudalism and communalism
3. (a) Highlight three methods of acquiring citizenship.
(b) Outline two conditions an alien must satisfy before becoming a citizen of another country.
4. (a) Define opinion poll
(b) State any four factors that make the conduct of opinion poll unreliable in West Africa.
5. (a) Define a constituency
(b) Highlight any four merits of the single member constituency
Section B
6. Highlight five features of the Hausa/Fulani pre-colonial political system in Nigeria
7. (a) What is proto nationalism?
(b) Identify four features of proto nationalism
8. Highlight five functions of the President in the 1989 Constitution of Nigeria
9. What mechanisms should be put in place to forestall military intervention in politics?
10. State five obstacles to the implementation of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) aims and objectives.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Government 2 ANSWERS
1(a). A group of people who share similar values,laws traditions living in organised communities for mutual benefit.
i). It is controlled by rules/regulations, norms, conventions and customs.
(ii). It applies sanctions on its members as a means of ensuring or effecting discipline
(iii). It also applies the use of coercive means to ensure compliance with norms, rules and customs
(iv). The rules and regulations of a society are binding on all residents.
(v). Membership of a society is voluntary.
(vi). It is permanent in nature.
(vii). Member depends on one another for survival.
(viii). Roles in the society, are dynamic.
(ix). It is characterised by cooperation, competition and conflicts
(x). It is characterised by a unique culture(xi). It is characterised by common political, social and economic interests.
(xii). Common history, tradition, language, religion and sense of value.
2a Communalism is a socio-political system based on common ownership of land in which the sense of togetherness in the community is the factor of unity. It is also a system in which the mode of production, the land and what it produced belonged to all members of the community and are equitably distributed or shared.
(i). There is feudal lord in feudalism while in communalism there is no lordship.
(ii). In feudalism, land is a symbol for security while in communalism land is used as a means of economic benefit only.
(iii). The land belongs to the lord in feudalism, which in communalism the land is communally owned
(iv). The feudal system has conquest and subjugation as its feature while communalism, it is based peace and tranquility.
(v). Feudalism is a more advanced political system while communalism is operated in a primitive, less advanced society.
(vi). There is segregation/ class status in feudalism while in communalism there is equality in social status.
(vii). There is discrimination in income distribution in feudalism. In communalism there is equitable distribution.
(viii). In feudalism, there is compulsory service of the vassals/ serfs to the lords while in communalism, there is no compulsory service.
(ix). There is dictatorship in feudalism whereas there is none in communalism.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
3a. (i). Citizenship can be acquired by birth i.e. born by parents who are citizen of the country/state.
(ii). Citizenship can be acquired by naturalisation; a citizen of another country can apply for citizenship of another country, where he/she resides.
(iii). Citizenship by registration i.e. through marriage.
(iv). Citizenship by descent or when grandparents claimed to have migrated from somewhere.
(v). Adoption through legal process.
(vi). Honorary/conferment by the state.
(vii). Conquest through wars/subjugation.
(viii). Foundling. This citizenship involves rescuing of children on the streets.
b (i). The alien must have good character or of good reputation
(ii). The alien must have married a citizen for less than a period of 5 years.
(iii). He or she must have lived in the country for a very long period of time which may range from 15-20 years
(iv). The alien must have renounced his/her former nationality.
(v). The applicant for the citizenship must take the oath of allegiance
(vi). He/she must be of a matured age i.e. eighteen (18) years.
(vii). The alien must be capable of contributing meaningfully to the advancement and progress of the country.
(viii). He/she must be acceptable to the locality where he/she is residing.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4a. A scientific method of measuring view, opinions, and choice of the people based on predication of social, political and economic issues facing a state. E.g. Popularity of a government or predicting election results.
b. (i). Lack of expertise knowledge by officials conducting the polls.
(ii). Reliable methods which may produce accurate results are expensive
(iii). High level of-illiteracy and ignorance among the people.
(iv). Problems of analyzing statistical data/poor knowledge of statistical analysis.
(v). Lack of objectivity among the respondents! interviewees.
(vi). People get scared of being interviewed.
(vii). Poor communication network
(viii). Lack of objectivity among the pollsters.
(ix). Poor funding of poll
(x). Poor knowledge of instrument design and administration e.g. misleading sampling techniques, incomplete or inaccurate questions and structured interviews formats.
(xi). Principle of confidentiality in the civil and public service
(xii). Falsification of information/data by both sources and data collectors.
(xiii). Nature of Government e.g. military/civilian.
5a. A constituency is an electoral district where the electorate exercises their right to elect their representatives into government/parliament.
b. (i) i. Community support: single member constituency encourages candidates who are community based
(ii). Better knowledge of candidates: it enables the voters to have better knowledge of their candidates.
(iii). Active interest: It stimulates the interests of the voters in the election.
(iv). Easy to operate: It is easy to practices as the winners emerge easily.
(v). Reduce cost: It is not costly as opposed to multi- member constituency election where election materials and personnel are fewer.
(vi). Promotes political stability: The system makes it easy for a party/candidate to win a majority in the legislature and thus maintain political stability.
(vii). The constituencies are small and therefore it makes accountability to be enforced.
(viii). The small size of the constituencies make personal contacts between voters and representatives possible and easier.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B
6 (I). Centralisation of authority: Hierarchy in governance. The Emir was the head of government. He was assisted by appointed chiefs. E.g. Madawaki, Galadima, Waziri.
(ii).Payment of tributes to sustain administration: There were rates paid by the people for land, property and cattle.
(iii).The size of the Emirate system was large: The emirate occupied a large expanse of land with many populations.
(iv). Stratification: The Hausa/ Fulani society was segmented into upper, middle and lower classes, and the Talakawas.
(v). Army: Every emirate kept a standing army under the control of Madawaki.
(vi). The judiciary: The emirate judicial system was based on the sharia laws headed by Alkali and the Emir’s court was the highest court.
(vii). Rulership was for life.
(viii). Succession to the throne was hereditary.
(ix). The political system was based on theocracy e.g. Islamic religion.
(x). Emirs were empowered to make laws where Islamic laws were silent.
(xi) Emirs were empowered to pronounce death sentence on defaulters.
(xii). There was regularised system of taxation in operation.
(xiii). Executive, Legislative and Judicial powers were concentrated on the Emir.
7(a)Proto-nationalism denotes that the activities of the nationalist movements were geared towards reforms and participation of the natives in the colonial administration rather than for immediate self-government.
(b) (i). Demands of the nationalists were aimed at reforms and participation in the colonial administration.
(ii).Movements formed under proto-nationalism were elitist, i.e. domination by the elites.
(iii).The proto-nationalism organizers employed constitutional and non-violent means in seeking redress.
(iv).The leaders were conservative their activities were restricted to the urban centres.
(v) There was formation of inter-territorial movements such as the National Congress of British West Africa (NCBWA).
(vi) It was also characterised by the formation of youth movements e.g Gold Coast Congress etc.
(vii). Their activities were more popular along the coastal areas.
(viii). Most of the movements were centred on personalities whose deaths led to their collapse.
(ix). Most of the leaders were either publishers or editors of newspapers. These newspapers were used to pursue their nationalist objectives.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
8.(i). The President is the Chief Executive of the country Who performed the day to day administration of the country.
(ii). He inaugurated the National Assembly at the beginning of each session.
(iii). He assented to bills passed by the National Assembly into laws.
(iv). He appointed key officers e.g. ministers, ambassadors, the CBN Governor, Director of government agencies among others.
(v). He represented the country at international conferences like UNO, AU, Commonwealth, ECOWAS, etc.
(vi) He was the Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces.
(vii). He performed ceremonial functions
(viii). He exercised prerogative of mercy: He pardoned convicted persons or those found guilty of treasons.
(ix). He signed treaties with other countries on behalf of the country.
(x). He formulated policies for good governance.
(xi). He prepared and presented annual budget to the National Assembly for approval
(xii). He was empowered to declare a state of emergency/maintenance of law and order.
(xiii). He presides over executive council.
(xiv). He received ambassadors from other countries/ He maintained external relations with other countries.
(xv). He could declare war subject to the approval of the National Assembly.
(xvi). Declare National Assembly close i.e. prorogue
9.a (i). The existence and promotion of democratically elected government
(ii). Promotion of good governance.
(iii). Eradication of corruption and abuse of office.
(iv). Avoidance of electoral malpractice by encouraging free and fair elections.
(v). Encouraging national unity by suppressing tribalism and nepotism.
(vi). Enhanced conditions of services for the military.
(vii). Proper civic education for the armed forces on their role/Enlightenment for military on their roles.
(viii). Promotion of accountability and transparency in governance.
(ix). Appeal to civilian administration to conform to the constitutional tenure of office.
(x). Equitable distribution of both human and natural resources.
(xi). Entrenchment of provision in the constitution to forestall or discourage military intervention in politics.
(xii). Non recognition of military governments by the international community or organisations, e.g. ECOWAS, Commonwealth etc.
(xiii). Responsive and responsible/good leadership
(xiv). Imposition of sanctions by the international community
(xv). Avoidance of political unrest/rivalry among politicians.
(xvi). Maintenance of cordial relationship among politicians.
(xvii). Civil disobedience/resistance by the populace and interest groups.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
10.(i). lntra and inter states conflicts/ political instability, e.g. Mali; DR Congo etc.
(ii). Fear or domination of smaller states by larger ones.
(iii). Inability of member states to pay their dues.
(iv). Inability to implement most of its policies.
(v). Language barrier.
(vi). The absence of an Africa High Command/ standing army.
(vii). Over-reliance of member states on their colonial masters.
(viii). The use of different currencies among member states.
(ix). Membership of other international organisations e.g. OPEC, Commonwealth etc.
(x). Poverty, famine, ignorance and diseases.
(xi). International terrorism.
(xii). Problems of refugees and internally displaced people.
(xiii). Over-dependence on external sources for development.
(xiv). Ideological differences.
(xv). The reluctance on the part of member-state to surrender their sovereignty for a common cause.
(xvi). Lack of consensus on international issues.
(xvii). Frequent border disputes.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Geography 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
Study the map of ALADE DISTRICT and use it to answer questions 1 to 10
1. What is the scale of the map?
A. 1:50,000 B. 1: 100,000 C. 1: 1:50,000 D. 1 :200,000
2 The highest contour-on the map is
A. £ 800m B 750m C 730m D 700m
3. Which area on the map can the trigonometrical station be found?
A. North-east B. South-east C. North-west D. South-West
4. What is the approximate length of the railway line on the map?
A.29 km B. 37km C. 40km D. 45 km
5. R. Kafue takes its source from a
A. plateau. B. ridge. C. knoll. D. conical hill.
6. The feature marked P is a
A. mountain. B. spur. C. knoll. D. valley.
7. The. northern part of the map is suitable for
A. mining. B. trading. C. lumbering: D. farming.
8. What type of settlement is ALADE?
A. Nodal B. Coastal C. Thy Valley D. Linear
9. What is the bearing of the trigonometrical station from Ilo on the map?
A. 168° B. 178° C. 190° D. 200°
10.The most important settlement in the area is
A. Ilo. B: Liapo. C. Aso. D.Alade
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Use the climatic data below to answer questions 11 – 14
| MONTH | Jan. | Feb. | Mar. | Apr | May | June | July | Aug | Sept. | Oct | Nov | Dec |
| Temperature °C) | 26 | 26 | 26 | 26 | 26 | 27 | 27 | 28 | 28 | 28 | 27 | 27 |
| Rainfall (mm) | 35 | 50 | 104 | 139 | 195 | 228 | 248 | 243 | 245 | 250 | 91 | 55 |
11. The annual range of temperature for the station is
A. 1°C. B 2°C C. 22°C. D. 28`C.
12 From which climatic region were the data taken?
A Desert B Mediterranean C Equatorial D Tropical Monsoon
13.Which of the following towns experiences the type of climate represented in the table?
A. Gao (Mali) B. Cairo (Egypt) C. Warn (Nigeria) D. – London (England)
14 What is the mean temperature from July to December 9
A 16.5°C B 17.2°C C. 27 5°C D 28 0°C
15. In Koppen’s Classification of climates, Cs, refers to
A. Steppe. B. Mediterranean. C Tropical Monsoon. D Tropical Continental
16. Which of the following features is associated with river capture?
A. Delta B. Meander C. Levee D. Wind gap
17. Volcanoes that have erupted before and show signs of possible eruption again are said to be
A. weak. B. extinct. C. dormant. D. ongoing.
18. The Northern hemisphere solstice is experienced on
A September 22 B June 21 C December 22 D. March 22
19 A community of plants and animals living in harmony within the same physical environment is referred to as
A. environmental interaction. B. terrestrial biocycle. C. ecosystem. D. biosphere.
20. Sea breeze is most effective at
A. winter. B. day time. C. summer. D. night time.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
21. The nearest planet to the sun is
A. Jupiter. B. Saturn C. Mercury. D. Earth.
22. The type of rain not experienced within the tropics is
A. fog. B. relief C. frontal. D. convectional.
23. A feature commonly found in the youthful stage of a river is
A Levee. B. Meander C. Ox-bow lake. D. Interlocking spurs
24.Which of the following is not a characteristic of Wadis?
A. They are river channels B. They occur in tropical areas C. They hold permanent streams. D. They have steep craggy walls
25. Stalactites and stalagmites are associated with which type of the. following rocks?
A. Granite B. and stone C. Limestone D. Basar
26. What is the time in Accra at Longitude 0° when the local time at Longitude 45°W is 12 noon?
A. 3.00pm B. 5.00 pm C. 7.00-pm D. 9.00 pm.
27. What is the distance between two places on the surface of the Earth which are located 8 °N and 10°S on the same longitude?
A. 1,011 km B. 1,998 km C.10,101 km D. 17,770 km
28. Coastal deposition results in the formation of
A. stack. B. arch. C. pillar. D. beach.
29. Which of the following pairs of elements are found in the core of the Earth?
A. Iron and silicon B. Iron and nickel C. Iron and calcium D. Iron and magnesium
30. In which of the following layers in the atmosphere does temperature increase with altitude?
A. Troposphere B. Ionosphere C. Stratosphere D. Exosphere
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
31. Relief rainfall is mostly associated with
A. lowlands. B. peneplains. C highlands. D deserts.
32. The extent of coastal erosion depends on the
A. amount of fresh water supplied by tributaries. B. depth of ocean water. C. salinity of the ocean. D. nature of the waves.
33. The envelope of gases surrounding the Earth’s crust is called
A hydrosphere B. barysphere C. atmosphere D. lithosphere.
34. Carbonaceous type of sedimentary rocks. are made from
A. remains of dead animals. B. vegetative matter. C. molten magma. D. living plants and animals.
35. Autotrophs, heterotrophs and decomposers are associated with
A. Vegetation B. Climate. C. Ecosystem. D. Geology.
36. Which of the following pairs of rocks is not correctly shown?
A. clay ⇒ slate B. limestone ⇒ marble C. sandstone ⇒ quartzite D. shale ⇒ graphite
37. Cold currents can also cause
A. rise in tide. B. rise in temperature of the area. C. sea level to rise. D. fogs instead of actual rain.
38. The most predominant occupation of most of the population of West African countries is
A. farming. B. fishing. C. mining. D. teaching.
39 Which of the following is not a characteristic of subsistence farming?
A The produce is mainly for home consumption B. It is capital intensive C. Simple farming tools are used D. It is labour intensive
40. Trans-continental highways link up
A. mining cities. B. countries in a continent C. State headquarters. D. local settlements.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
41. Heavy industries require
A. mostly coal.to run them. B. cheap raw materials as inputs. C.generators only as source of electricity. D. large capital to setup.
42 Which of the following is likely to make petroleum drilling unimportant?
A. Depletion of reserves B. Adequate capital C. Adequate skilled labour D. Good management
43 Which of the following statements most apply for solar energy production in Tropical Africa?
A. Generated without cost. B. Imported from Europe. C Produced in higher latitudes. D Cheap and readily accessible.
44. They are headquarters of governments and are usually, capital cities. This best describes
A. market towns. B. administrative towns. C. educational towns. D. mining towns
45 One of the usefulness of Import tariff on imported goods is the
A encouragement of importation. B. multiplication of foreign goods C protection of infant industries. D saving of money
46. Textile industries are located
A. near the market. B. where water resource is scarce. C. in wide plains D. near sources of raw materials.
47. Which of the following factors is unique for the development of the aircraft industry in California
A. Availability of cheap labour B. The peaceful political atmosphere. C. The government limited support. D. Clear sky which favours testing of aircraft.
48 The ranking of settlements into rural and urban is mostly based on
A. location B. size. C. pattern D. population
49. All the following agricultural practices are intensive farming techniques except
A. land rotation. B crop rotation C. mixed farming D. market gardening
50. Natural increase in population means excess of
A. emigration over immigration: B. immigration over emigration. C. deaths over births D. births over deaths
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Geography 1 ANSWERS
1.D 2B 3.B 4.B 5.B 6C 7C 8A 9B 10.D 11B 12C 13C 14C 15B 16D 17B 18B 19C 20C 21C 22B 23.D 24C. 25.C 26D 27B 28.D 29B 30B 31C 32A 33C 34B 35C 36D 37B 38A 39B 40B 41D 42A 43A 44B 45C 46.A 47A 48.A 49C 50.D
Geography 2: HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
1. (a) Highlight three characteristics of manufacturing industries in Tropical Africa. (b) State three ways by which manufacturing industries contribute to the economic development of Tropical Africa. (c) Outline four problems facing industrial developments in Tropical Africa.
2. (a) Outline four ways in which urban settlements differ from one another. (b) Outline three factors that have contributed to the high population density in Japan. (c) State three problems resulting from the high population density in Japan.
3. (a) Identify four ocean routes used in the world trade. (b) In what four ways has water transportation contributed to economic developments? (c) Outline four ways of improving transportation on inland waterways.
SECTION B
4. (a) Describe three characteristics of subsistence. agriculture in Nigeria. (b) Outline four advantages of subsistence agriculture. (c) Highlight three disadvantages of subsistence agriculture.
5. (a) Draw a sketch map of Nigeria. On the map, locate and name one area important for the manufacturing of: (I) cement; (ii) cocoa products; (iii) flour. (b) Highlight three benefits of large-scale manufacturing industries in Nigeria. (c) Outline three advantages which large-scale manufacturing industries have over small-scale manufacturing industries.
6. (a) Draw a sketch map of Nigeria. On the map, show and name one area each where the following minerals are mined: (i) coal; (ii) crude oil; (iii) limestone. (b) Describe the process of mining coal in Nigeria. (c) Identify four problems affecting the mining industry in Nigeria.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Geography 2 ANSWERS
1(a) Characteristics of manufacturing industries in Tropical Africa:
(i) mainly small-scale/little turnover.
(ii) mainly import substitution.
(iii) production of consumer goods.
(iv) concentrated in towns (v) depend on imported machinery/technology.
(vi) dominated by foreign multinational corporations
(vii) products are mainly consumed internally
(viii) labour intensive
(ix) Rely on imported labour
(x) mainly light industries
(xi) depend on foreign raw materials
(xii) local sourcing of raw materials.
(xiii) few are government owned and individual/family CT owned.
(xiv) transfer of technology.
(xv) boost international image. (xvi) less capital intensive.
(b)Ways by which manufacturing industries contribute to the economic development of Tropical Africa:
(i) Revenue to government.
(ii) Income to workers/investors.
(iii) conservation of foreign exchange.
(iv) Diversification of the economy.
(v) Provision of infrastructure.
(vi) Provision of goods.
(vii) Employment opportunities.
(viii) Stimulation of other sectors of the economy/growth of allied industries
(ix) Favourable balance of trade.
(x) Foreign exchange generation.
(xi) Increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(xii) improves standard of living.
(xiii) Manpower development/skill development.
(xiv) Funding of education and research.
(xv) Development of towns.
(xvi) Control of inflation.
(xvii) Reduce dependence on imports.
(xviii) Provision of social amenities.
(xix) Attracts foreign investments.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(C) Problems facing industrial developments in Tropical Africa
(i) Political instability/poor governance
(ii) Poor transportation
(iii) Poor communication facilities.
(iv) Inadequate capital/high interest rate/poor funding
(v) Insufficient raw materials.
(vi) Inadequate /erratic power supply
(vii) Shortage of investors/entrepreneurs.
(viii) Competition from foreign goods/preference for foreign goods.
(ix) Small markets/low purchasing power/low per capital income
(x) Poor management.
(xi) Inadequate skilled labour/poor quality skilled labour.
(xii) Labour unrest
(xiii) High taxation/tariff.
(xiv) Inconsistent government policy.
(xv) Low level of technology.
(xvi) Smuggling /sabotage.
(xvii) Poor maintenance culture.
(xviii) High cost of spare parts.
(xix) Land ownership problems.
(xx) High cost of production.
(xxi) High rate of inflation
(xxii) Difficulty in sourcing foreign exchange.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
2(a) Ways by which urban settlements differ from one another:
(i) Site (physical location)
(ii) Situation (locational relationship to other areas)
(iii) Size (area and population)
(iv) Function (administrative, industrial, commercial, etc.)
(v) Plan and layout (structure and pattern).
(vi) Outlook (cleanliness, beauty,)
(vii) Quality of services (high order – ICT, health, insurance, etc.)
(viii) Infrastructure/social amenities.
(b)Factors that have contributed to the high population density in Japan:
(i) Low mortality rate.
(ii) Improved medical services.
(iii) Availability of natural resources, e.g. water.
(iv) Advanced industrialization.
(v) Advanced/improved technology.
(vi) Practice of intensive agriculture.
(vii) Immigration.
(viii) Fertile alluvial soils which promote agriculture.
(ix) Favourable climate (monsoon)
(x) Large market
(xi) Presence of social amenities.
(xii) Accessibility.
(xiii) Improved transport.
(xiv)Advanced communication network
(xv)Availability of minerals (feldspar, granite, limestone, quartzite, etc).
(xvi) Political stability/good governance.
(xvii) High standard of living
(xviii) Well developed infrastructure.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c)Problems resulting from the high population density in Japan:
(i) Overcrowding.
(ii) Traffic congestion
(iii) Pressure on social amenities.
(iv)High cost of food.
(v) Environmental pollution/degradation.
(vi) High rate of stress (hypertension and other health related challenges)
(vii)-Unemployment/underemployment.
(viii) high rate of crime.
(ix) social vices (e.g. prostitution, drug abuse, etc.).
(x) High cost of living
(xi) Inadequate housing
(xii) Development of slums and ghettos.
(xiii) Increase in government expenditure.
(xiv) pressure on natural resources e.g. land
(xv) Waste management challenges.
(xvi) Development of slums and ghettos.
(xvii) increase of government spending
(xviii) pressure on natural resources.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
3(a) Ocean routes used in the world trade:
(i) The North Atlantic route
(ii) The Mediterranean-Asiatic route (The Mediterranean or Suez Canal route)
(iii) The South African route (Cape route).
(iv) The South Atlantic route.
(v) The North Pacific route.
(vi) The Trans-Pacific route.
(vii) The Panama canal route.
(b). Ways in which water transportation has contributed to economic developments:
(i) movement of goods/services.
(ii) Enhanced high production of goods.
(iii) Development of tourism.
(iv) Access to natural resources.
(v) Manpower development/capacity building;
(vi) Improved standard of living.
(v) National integration.
(vi) Development of infrastructure.
(vii) Industrial development/allied industries.
(viii) Development of towns and cities.
(ix) promotes internal trade.
(x) promotes international trade.
(xi) Development of ports and harbours.
(xii) Employment opportunities.
(xiii) Diffusion of ideas/ innovation/technology.
(xiv) Linkage of places (national and internal)
(xv) Revenue to government.
(xvi) Income to workers and investors.
(xvii) Foreign exchange earnings.
(xviii) Movement of people.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c)Ways of improving transportation, on inland waterways:
(i) Dredging of river channels.
(ii) Installation Of modern/improved navigation aids.
(iii) Manpower development.
(iv) Building of canals to straighten winding water courses/channelization.
(v) Cleaning of water weeds.
(vi) Government. and public partnership to operate and maintain transportation.
(vii) Medical facilities could be fitted on boats.
(viii) Construction and maintenance of river ports.
(ix) Easy access to loans for operations/provision of capital.
(x) Training and retraining of marine personnel.
(xi) Use of modem and refrigerated vessels.
(xii) Use of-ice breakers.
(xiii) The use of barrages or narrow boats.
(xiv) Construction of dams to maintain depth of water.
(xv) Construction of canals to by-pass waterfalls and cataracts.
(xvi) Modern safety measures on vessels/protective devices.
(xvii) Modem security measures.
(xviii) Good-and modern management practice.
(xix) Removal of tree stumps. (xx) Enlightenment on the use of inland waterways.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4(a) Characteristics of subsistence agriculture, in Nigeria:
(i) Mixed farming.
(ii) Small size of farms/land fragmentation.
(iii) Use of family labour.
(iv) Labour intensive.
(v) Involves slash and burn method.
(vi) Yield per hectare is relatively low.
(vii) Cultivation is mainly for consumption.
(viii) Little attention given to cash crops.
(ix) Farmland abandoned when crop yields decline.
(x) Less capital intensive.
(xi) Crops include cereals, root crops and legumes, etc.
(xii) Organic manure may be used.
(xiii) Crops are seasonal.
(ix) Simple farm tools are used.
(x) Practiced in regions of low population.
(xi) Land is left to fallow.
(xii)No specialization.
(xiii) Natural control of pests.
(xiv) Limited damage to the soil.
(b) Advantages of subsistence agriculture:
(i) Low cost of land preparation.
(ii) Cheap family labour.
(iii) Ease of practice because of small farm size.
(iv) Mixed cropping ensures food security.
(v) Mixed cropping checks erosion/leeching. (
vi) Burning adds ash to enrich the soil.
(vii) Land regains fertility, after period of fallow.
(viii) Non-application of artificial fertilizers.
(ix) -Non-application of pesticides.
(x) Crops are normally natural and non-genetically modified.
(xi) Little capital is needed.
(xii) Fodder for livestock.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c) Disadvantages of subsistence agriculture:
(i) Burning destroys soil organisms.
(ii) Burning alters soil structure.
(iii) Farm sizes are small and may not support large families/communities.
(iv) Requires much human energy to practice.
(v) Easy spread of diseases.
(vi) Unreliable family labour.
(vii) Easy spread of pests.
(viii) Burning results in deforestation and environmental degradation.
(ix) Low yield.
(x) Cannot be practiced in highly populated areas
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
5(a) Map of Nigeria showing:
(i) Area for cement manufacturing.
(ii) Area for cocoa products.
(iii)Area for flour products
(b) Benefits of large-scale manufacturing industries in Nigeria:
(I) Provides employment.
(ii) Development of social amenities.
(iii) Revenue generation
(iv) Stimulation of other sectors of the economy.
(v) Foreign exchange earning.
(vi) Growth of allied industries.
(vii) Diversification of the economy.
(viii) Provision of goods.
(ix) Skill acquisition/manpower development.
(x) Conservation of foreign exchange.
(xi) Income to investors/workers.
(xii) Development of towns.
(xiii) National prestige.
(xiv) Promotes trade (national/international).
(xv) Development of infrastructure.
(xvi) Increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
(xvii) Improved -trade balance.
(xviii) Control of inflation.
(xix) Funding of education and research.
(xx) Improved standard of living.
(xxi)Acquisition of technology.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c) Advantages of large-scale manufacturing industries over small-scale manufacturing Industries:
(i) Stimulates more growth of other sectors of the economy.
(ii) Operation is more efficient (in) Skill acquisition is higher,
(iii) Ability to procure capital from financial institutions
(iv) Leads to increase trade.
(v) Unit cost of production is lower.
(vi) Higher Gross National Product (ONP).
(vii) Ability to engage in research.
(viii) Higher productivity.
(ix) Provision of welfare facilities.
(x) Stimulates more infrastructural development.
(xi) More employment avenues/opportunities.
(x) More revenue to government.
(xi) Leads to the development of more settlements.
(x) Higher conservation of foreign exchange.
(xi) More efficient advertisement.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(xii) Absorbs more risks.
6(a) Map of Nigeria showing:
(i) Area for coal.
(ii) Area for crude oil.
(iii) Area for limestone.
(b)(i) Underground/adit method:
(i) Removal of soil and rock overburden.
(ii) Props are built from strong tree trunks to support mine roofs.
(iii) Air is pumped into mine by-machines.
(iv) Explosive may be used to aid excavation.
(v) Pick axe used in breaking coal.
(vi) Shovel used in loading coal to conveyor belt.
(vii) Coal is conveyed out of the mine to the surface.
(viii) Conveyed from mine to the point of consumption or export.
(ii) Open Cast Method:
(i) Open cast method.
(ii) removal of overburden.
(iii) Use of explosive.
(iv) Pick axe used in breaking coal seams.
(v) Use of shovels.
(vi) Conveyance by rail or truck.
(vii) Conveyance to processing plant/point of use/export.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c) Problems affecting the mining industry in Nigeria:
(i) Shortage of spare parts/high cost of spare parts.
(ii) Inadequate skilled labour.
(iii) Poor-transportation.
(iv) Mining hazards.
(v) Insecurity.
(vi) Erratic power supply.
(vii) Fall in demand of some minerals.
(viii) Difficult terrain.
(ix) High cost of production/operation.
(x) Price fluctuation.
(xi) Labour unrest /relations.
(xii) Inadequate investors.
(xiii) Inadequate capital.
(xiv) High debt levels.
(xv) Illegal mining.
(xvi) Low level of technology.
(xvii) Poor management
(xviii) Conflict between mining companies and communities.
(xix) Smuggling/sabotage.
(xx) Outdated topographical/geological maps.
(xxi) Depletion of reserves.
(xxii) Inconsistency in government policies.
Geography 3: PRACTICAL AND PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1. Study the map extract provided on a scale of 1:50,000 and answer the questions that follow (Attach the topographical map extract to your answer booklet) (a) On the attached topographical map extract, mark and name the following features using the Letters in the brackets: (i) ridge (RG); (ii) col (CL); (iii) confluence (CF); (iv) spur (SP); (v) isolated hill (1H). (b) Shade an area above 950 ft ill the north western part of the map. (c) In your answer booklet, calculate the gradient along the line between points A and B On the map. (d) Describe two drainage characteristics of the River Tam.
2. The Population distribution in the regions of Country M in the year 2011 is represented in the table below.
| REGION | POPULATION |
| A | 100,000 |
| B | 380,000 |
| C | 160,000 |
| D . | 220,000 |
Use the data to answer the questions that follow:
(a) Using the map above and using a scale of one dot to represent 20,000 persons, produce a dot map for Country M. (b) On the dot map produced in 2(a), suggest a suitable title. (c) State two advantages of dot maps
3. With the aid of annotated diagrams, explain the characteristics and mode of formation of the following features: (a) gorges; (b) seif dunes.
4. (a)(i) List three landforms found in limestone regions. (ii) Draw a well labelled diagram to show the underground features of a limestone region.
(b) Outline three ways by which limestone is beneficial to man.
5. (a) With the aid of a diagram, explain eclipse of the moon. (b) State three characteristics of Great Circles. (c) Outline three uses of Great Circles.
6. Contrast the characteristics of Equatorial climate with the Tundra climate.
7. With appropriate diagrams, outline three conditions under which the following features can be formed: (a) river capture; (b) waterfall.
8. Write a geographical account of flooding in urban areas under the following headings: (a) four causes; (b) three effects. (c) four measures that can be used to control the flooding.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Geography 3 ANSWERS
1.(a) Marking and naming of features on topographical map:
(i) Ridge. (ii) Col. (iii) Confluence. (iv) Spur. (v) Isolated hill.
(b) Shading of area above 950ft
(c) Calculation of Gradient:
(d)Description of the drainage characteristics of River Tam
(i) The major or largest river in the mapped area.
(ii) Has many tributaries.
(iii) Drainage pattern is dendritic/tree-like pattern.
(iv) It flows from northwest to the centre and then eastwards.
(v) It is in its middle course.
(vi) It flows through U-shaped valley
(vii) The width of the river is between 10 – 100 ft.
(viii) Meanders are found in the north-west of the map.
(ix) The southern boundary is Rain forest reserve.
(x) The slope of the river bed is gentle.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
2. (a) Calculating and plotting of dots on map:
Calculation of dots . …………………………Plotting of dots
Region A = 100,000/20,000=5 dots …..Region A: 5 dots
Region B = 380,000/20,000= 19 dots ..Region B: 19 dots
Region C = 160,000/20,000 = 8 dots …Region C: 8 dots
Region D = 220,000/20,000 = 11 dots ..Region D: II dots
(b) Suitable title:
Dot map showing distribution of population of the regions of country M in the year 2011.
(c) Advantages of dot maps:
(i) Give good visual impression.
(ii) Easy to interpret by counting the dots.
(iii) easy to compare the distribution of items using concentration of dots.
(iv) Clearly presents the density of distribution across land areas.
(v) easy to construct.
(vi) Can be used to represent a wide range of items.
(vii) It is easier to show variations in distribution of wide variety of items if different colours are employed.
(viii) Original figures can be worked out using the scale.
(ix) Best method to show absolute figures.
(x) Can be used with other methods, e.g. chloropleths
3(a)-Characteristics and mode of formation of gorges
Characteristics:
(i) also called ravines/canyons
(ii) elongated.
(iii) steep sided.
(iv) can be dry.
(v) favours the construction of dams.
(vii) could be associated with faults.
(viii) deep narrow river valley.
(ix) can be found in limestone regions.
(x) can be found on dissected plateaux.
(xi) found along rejuvenated rivers.
(xii) formed where rivers cross outcrops of resistant rocks.
(xiii) very common in. upper course of rivers.
(xix) xix) usually V-shaped
(x) examples include the Rhine in Germany Shiroro gorge on river Kaduna, Bumbuna gorge in Sierra Leone on River Rokel Bui gorge on
River Volta in Ghana. along River Indus in India. Ajena gorge in River Volta in Ghana, etc.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Mode of formation: (i) formed mostly in the upper course of a river.
(ii) formed where waterfall retreats – upstream.
(iii) formed along fault lines.
(iv) presence-of alternate bands of hard-and soft rocks
(v) formed where rivers cut deeply alone the lines of weakness vertically.
(vi) further vertical erosion deepens the valley
(vii) this-creates an elongated depression.
(viii) the depression has steep sides due to minimal lateral erosion
(ix) the valley is called a gorge.
(x) could formed where a river crosses a limestone region.
(xi) also where a river incises itself into the land surface due to fall in sea-level.
(b) Characteristics and mode of formation of self-dunes
Characteristics: (1) found in and regions (ii) they are sand deposits (iii)they are long and narrow ridges (iv) lie parallel to the direction of prevailing winds. (v) they lie parallel to each other. (vi) could attain meters in height. (vii) could be over 100 km in length. (viii) crests are characterized by peaks and saddles. (ix) they migrate and are therefore not stationary. (x) they are separated from each–other by a corridor. (xi) also known as longitudinal dunes. (xii) have steep sides. (xiii) the crest line is serrated.. (xiv) examples are-the Great Sand Sea of Egypt and Libya in the Sahara Desert, Northeastern Niger, Namibia Desert, Thar Desert. in West Australian Desert. Southern Persian desert.
Mode Of formation: (i) formed in desert areas. (ii) formed due to wind deposition. (iii) Sand dunes are deposited parallel to the dunes of sand. (iv) winds blow towards the sides of the corridors.- (v) this results in long parallel mounds of sand called the seif dunes. (vi) may also he formed when wind breaks through barchans. (vii) tile winds forming the barchans may- chance their direction. (viii) this results in removal of sand from the middle of the barchan. (ix) the removed sands are deposited at the horns to build up self dunes. (x) the crest of the sand dunes moves forwards as more sand is accumulated by wind action. (xi) sand is blown up the windward side. (xi) this action leads to dune advancement/migration.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4. (a) (i) Landforms found in limestone regions:
stalactite. stalagmite. doline, uvala. clint, grike, cave/carven, pillar/column, dry valley. gorge. chalk cuesta, sink hole/swallow hole and poije.
(ii) A labelled diagram showing underground features of a limestone region. Features: include stalagmite, stalactite, pillar. cave.subterrainean stream and underground lake.
(b) Ways by which limestone is beneficial to man:
(i) streams could-be used for domestic purposes.
(ii) springs provide drinking water.
(iii) limestone is used as raw materials in cement.. industries.
(iii) chalk is obtained from limestone.
(iv) source of underground water.
(v) caves could serve as hiding places in times of war.
(vi) used in iron and tin-smelting
(vii) tourism. (viii the metal lead is mostly found in limestone regions.
(ix) grass for livestock industries used as material for construction.
(xi) weathered to form soil
(x) used to neutralize acidity of soils and lakes
(xi) used in the manufacture of glass.
(xii) farming activities could be carried out in limestone regions
(xiii) reservoir of crude
(xiv) hunting
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
5.(a) Explanation of eclipse of the moon
(i) also called lunar eclipse (i) the earth revolves round the sun (iii) the moon revolves round the earth (iv) when the earth comes between the sun and the moon the earth blocks rays of the sun from reaching the moon (vi) the shadow creates darkness or umbra on the moon. (vi) this unusual darkness is called eclipse (viii) total coverage of the moon. Lunar Eclipse leads to total eclipse (ix) partial coverage of tile moon leads to partial eclipse.
(b) Characteristics of Great Circles
(i) imaginary circular lines drawn on maps or globes
(ii) they run in all directions
(iii) they are limitless in number
(ix) any line-that divides the earth into two equal parts is a Great Circle
(v) the centre of Great Circles is also the centre of the Earth
(vi) the equator is the only latitude that is a great circle.
(vii) the shortest distance between any two points on the earth surface lies along the circumference of the Great Circle
(vii) It is capable.of dividing the earth into two equal halves
(viii) each halve is called hemisphere.
(ix)any two opposite longitudes form a Great Circle, e.g. Longitudes 900 & 900W; 1800 & 0°.
(x) they are equal in length.
(c) Uses of Great Circles:
(i) for locating places on the earth’s surface
(ii) in determining approximate distances between places.
(iii) serve as the shortest distance between two points on the earth’s surface.
(iv) in determining directions
(v) by commercial aircrafts for long distance journeys
(vi) in saving-time in aviation and navigation.
(vii) by ship for navigation
(viii) in cutting fuel cost in aviation and navigation
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
6. Contrast of the characteristics of the Equatorial climate with The Tundra climate:
(i) Equatorial climate is located near the Equator while the Tundra climate is located near the poles
(ii) Tundra climate is located around latitudes 60° – 90° north and south of the Equator while the Equatorial climate is located around latitudes 5° north and south of the Equator.
(iii) Equatorial climates can be found in the Amazon Basin of South America, Zaire of Central African and the Coasts of West Africa while Ike Tundra climate can be found in the-coastal strip of Greenland, Eurasia and Antarctica, northern Canada and Alaska.
(iv) Equatorial climate has high temperatures.-all- ear round while Tundra has low temperatures all year round.
(v) Equatorial mean temperatures is as high as 27° while Tundra temperature is as low as 29°C.
(vi) Equatorial climate has higher precipitation of 2000 mm and above while-the Tundra has low precipitation of 250 mm and below.
(vii) Rainfall occurs throughout the year in Equatorial climate of marked dry season while in Tundra climate rainfall occurs only in summer.
(viii) Equatorial climatic areas are usually hot (moist) while Tundra climatic areas are cold and moist with snow and frost (winter)
(ix) Equatorial climate experience small annual range of temperature of about 1° to 3°C while the Tundra has high annual temperature range of 40C – 50C.
(x) Equatorial climate experiences very little differences between length of day and night While Tundra experiences several weeks of continuous-night in winter and several weeks of continuous day in summer.
(xi) Equatorial climate has high humidity throughout the year while Tundra has low humidity throughout the year.
(xii) Rainfall occurs in Equatorial climatic areas while snow occurs in the Tundra climatic areas.
(xiii) There is high incidence of frost-in Tundra while there is none in Equatorial areas.
(xiv) Thunderstorms are experienced in the Equatorial climatic areas while blizzards are experienced in the Tundra climatic areas.
(xv) Trade winds are found in the Equatorial climatic areas while Polar Easterlies are found in Tundra climatic areas.
(xvi) Equatorial climatic areas experience unstable convective clouds while the Tundra climatic areas experience stable Stratiform clouds.
(xv) Equatorial climatic has double maximum rainfall while Tundra has single maximum rainfall.
(xvi) The rays of the sun are vertical in the Equatorial areas while they are incline in Tundra regions.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
7. (a) Conditions under which river capture can be formed:
(i) excessive relief rainfall in favour of powerful rivers.
(ii) there-must be two parallel consequent rivers.
(iii) the-consequent rivers must be-separated by water shed/divide
(iv) one of the rivers must be more powerful, i.e. have more erosive power than the other.
(v) the valley of the more powerful river must be deeper than the other.
(vi) the powerful river should have steeper slope or gradient.
(vii) the powerful river must’have strong head-ward erosion
(viii) it must cut back into the headland faster than the other.
(b) Conditions under which waterfall can be formed:
(I) there must be a resistant rock.
(ii) the resistant rock must lie across/discordant to the river valley.
(iii) the river must plunge over the resistant rock to form a waterfall.
(iv) the river valley must have river flowing in it.
(v) a fault line scarp must cut across a river Valley
(vi) a river must plunge over an edge of a plateau
(vii) high velocity of flow
(viii) presence of a hanging valley damming of fivers.
(ix) presence of a dyke across the river channel.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
8. (a) causes of flooding in urban areas:
(i) excessive rainfall
(ii) refuse dumping into drains
(iii) poor engineering/construction of drainage system.
(iv settlements along river channels
(v) volcanic eruption.
(vi) tsunamis.
(vii) wind storms e.g.hurricane, tornadoes;typhoon.
(viii) non enforcement of environmental laws.
(ix) strong-tidal waves along the coast.
(x) erecting structures along waterways.
(xi) bursting of weak dams.
(xii) inadequate urban planning.
(xiii) extensive cementing of compounds in urban areas.
(xiv) overpopulation and increased solid waste generation.
(b) Effects of urban flooding:
(i) loss of lives.
(ii) loss of properties.
(iii) causes soil erosion.
(iv) interruption of social and economic activities
(v) environmental degradation
(vii) creates need for emergency relief supply.
(viii) deposition of silt and garbage
(ix) displacement of people
(x) increase in government expenditure.
(xi) health hazards
(xii)difficulty in movement
(xiii) pollution of environment.
(xiv) washes away railway lines and roads.
(xv) easy spread of waterborne diseases.
(xvi) destroys biodiversity.
(xvii) contamination creep.
(xix) retards urban development.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c) Measures that can be used to control flooding
(i) enforcement of legislation against indiscriminate waste disposal.
(ii) efficient urban planning.
(iii) construction of wider culverts and drains.
(iv) frequent cleaning of drains.
(v) re-channeling of floodwater from city centres.
(vii) public enlightenment.
(viii) the use of water pumps to suck away floodwater.
(ix) construction of dams to create reservoirs.
(x) strengthening old dams
(xi) building/construction of artificial levees or embankments along river banks.
(xii) provision of more refuge bins in urban centres
(xiii) organized communal efforts at cleaning drainage channels
(xv) environmental education in schools.
(xvi) creation of lanes-and lawns in urban areas
(xvii) establishment of disaster management agencies
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Biology 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1: The scientist who introduced binomial nomenclature in the classification of organisms was
A. Charles Darwin. B. Carolus Linnaeus. C. John Ray. D. Louis Pasteur.
2. Which of the following statements is true about arthropods?
A. Prothorax bears only legs B. Mesothorax bears only legs C. Metathorax bears only wings D. Prothorax bears only wings
3. What level of organization is Spirogyra?
A. Organ system B. Organ C. Cell D. Tissue
4. The streaming movement of cytoplasm within Paramecium is known as
A. transpiration. B. digestion. C. cyclosis. D. Osmosis.
5. Which of the following cell organelles is found only in plant cells?
A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Lysosomes D. Plastids
6. Active transport differs from diffusion in that active transport
A. is a very fast process B. allows the movement of substances against concentration gradient. C. takes place in both light and dark reactions of photosynthesis. D. occurs in both plant and animal tissues.
The diagrams below are illustrations of an experimental set-up to demonstrate a type of tropic response in plants. Study them and answer questions 7 and 8.
7. The type of response demonstrated is
A. phototropism. B. geotropism. C. hydrotropism. D. thigmotropism.
8. The conclusion drawn from the experiment is that
A. shoots of plants are negatively thigmotropic. B. shoots of plants are negatively geotropic. C. leaves of plants D. roots of plants are positively are positively phototropic. hydrotropic.
9. The odontoid process is found on the
A. axis vertebra. B. atlas vertebra. C. thoracic vertebra. D. sacral vertebra.
10. A seedling was made to stand in a solution of red ink for three hours and a transverse section of the stem was examined under the microscope. The process being investigated was
A. the importance of micro elements to plants. B. ascent of water through the xylem. C. diffusion of coloured substances. D. distribution of food in plants.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
11. Which of the following structures would carry out respiration?
A. A. germinating cowpea. B. decolorized leaf. C. dry leaf. D. boiled cowpea.
12. Which of the following substances is not an excretory product of animals?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Urea C. Sweat D. Oxygen
13. An example of homeostasis in living organisms is
A. cooling effect resulting from evaporation of water from the body surface. B. root hairs of a plant growing towards a source of light. C. changing of the body colour of chameleon to match the colour of the foliage, on which it is resting. D. the release of phosphorus into the phloem of a plant growing in a phosphorus-deficient soil.
14. Ultrafiltration in the kidney takes place in the
A. renal vein. B. medulla. C. loop of Henle. D. Bowman’s capsule.
15. The thyroid gland is located at the base of the
A. midbrain. B. kidney. C. neck. D. liver.
16. Which of the following statements about the response of neurones to stimulus is correct?
A. Neurones respond to stimulus of any strength B Neurones respond to all stimuli applied in rapid succession C. Neurones
respond more rapidly during the absolute refractory period D. Intensity of stimulus must reach a threshold value before the neurones can be excited
17. Which of the following practices may lead to infection of the eye? Use of
A. contact lenses. B. convex lenses. C. biconcave lenses. D. concave lenses.
18. The structures for gaseous exchange in breathing roots are
A. stomata. B. lenticels. C. cuticle. D. mitochondria.
The diagram below is an illustration of the life cycle of an insect. Study it and answer questions 19 and 20
19. The adult insect in this life cycle is
A. housefly. B butterfly. C. cockroach. D. mosquito.
20. The larva is also known as
A. nymph. B. maggot. C. caterpillar. D. chrysalis.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
21. The source of energy required by plants during food production is
A. photosynthesis. B. chlorophyll. C sunlight. D. microorganisms.
22. One major difference between plant and animal nutrition is the ability of plants to synthesize
A. food for plants animals. B. water for plants. C. water for animals. D.food for plants only.
23. By what process is starch converted into maltose?
A Hydrolysis B Condensation C Translocation D Photosynthesis
24 The ascent of water in tall trees is mainly due to
A adhesive forces B transpiration pull C root pressure D. ‘cohesive forces.
25. The duodenum, of a person was surgically removed. Which of the following food substances would have their digestion affected?
A. Starch and protein only B. Starch and . lipids C. Starch, peptones and maltose D. Starch, protein. and lipids
26. Which of the following dental formulae represents the dentition in rabbits?
A. 1 2/1 C% P3/2 M3/3
B. 1 2/2 C1/1 P2/2 M3/3
C. 1 2/2 C% P2/3 M3/3
D. 1 2/1 C0/1 P3/2 M3/3
The diagram below is an illustration of-ii experimental set-up to demonstrate a property of soil. Study it and answer questions 27 and 28
27. The property of soil demonstrated is
A. particle size,. B. capillarity. C. colour. D. texture;
28. Which of the following statements would be a correct observation at the end of the experiment? Water moves
A. highest in sandy soil. B. lowest in loamy soil. C. to-the same level mall soil types. D. highest in clayey soil.
29. The most important factor(s) that influence the ecological niche of an organism is/are the
A. water, light and predator-prey relationship. B. food and water availability. C. physical environment. D. competition for food and space.
30. The diagram below is an illustration of organisms in an air-tight aquarium. The most important factor needed by the organisms is
A. light energy. B.low humidity. C. oxygen. D. nitrate.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
31. Which of the following instruments is used to determine the turbidity.of water?
A. Hygrometer B. Hydrometer C. Secchi disc D. Rain gauge
32. In an ecosystem, the least efficient energy transfer link is from the
A. secondary consumers to decomposers. B. sun to producers. C. primary consumers to secondary consumers. D. producer to primary consumers.
33. Xerophytes have the following characteristics aimed at conserving water except
A. thick cuticle. B. broad leaf surfaces. C. sunken stomata. D. waxy cuticle.
34. An association between living organisms in which one lives on an&feeds at the expense of the other is known as
A. commensalism., B. predation. C. parasitism. D. mutualism.
35. When large numbers of organisms share limited space and resources, the immediate result is
A. extinction. B. emigration. C. competition. D. immigration.
36. Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacterium?
A. Ringworm..B. Poliomyelitis C. Syphilis D. Malaria
37. Conservation of wildlife is necessary mainly because
A. wild species cannot resist diseases better than their domesticated species. B. many predator wild animals help in the control of pests. C. it prevents the extinction of species. D. many people derive pleasure from observing wild animals.
Two unconscious patients X and Y whose blood group genotypes: are AO and AR respectively were transfused with blood from the same donor. Patient X.immediately showed signs of difficulty in breathing while patient Y showed no negative reaction. Use the information above to answer questions 38 and 39.
38. Patients X and were likely transfused with blood of genotype
A .. OO. B. AO. C. BO. D. AA.
39. What should the hospital have done to prevent patient X from showing the symptom described above? Patient X should have
A. undergone an agglutination test. B. been asked for the-blood . group. C. been screened for HIV D. undergone malaria test.
40. The greatest contribution to genetic studies was made by
A. Gregor Mendel. B. Thomas Morgan. C Charles Darwin D Robert Hooke
41. The exchange of genes between homologous chromosomes is called
A. crossing over. B. back cross. C. test cross. D. mutation. ..
The diagrams below are the illustration of the inheritance of coat colour in mice. J, K, L ,M and N are parents. The cross between two parent mice gave rise to offspring P, Q. Rand S. Study the diagrams and answer questions 42 and 43.
42. Which parent mouse is heterozygous for coat colour
A. M B. J C.K D.L
43. Which of the offspring are all homozygous
A. P B.Q C.S D.R
44. Genes that remain linked are those
A. close to each other on the chromosomes. B. on the same locus on the chromosomes. C. on the homologous chromosome D. which are allelic pair
45. A plant cell has 14 chromosomes prior to-mitosis. What is the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells?
A. 14 B. 56 C. 28 D. 7 .
46. The chemical bod that holds the bases of the.two strands of DNA together is
A. oxygen bond. B. hydrogen bond; C. electrovalent bond.. D. covalent bond.
The diagram below is all illustration of one of the theories of evolution. Study it and answer questions 47 and 48.
47. Who proposed the theory in the illustration?
A. Louis Pasteur B. Gregor Méndel C.Robert Hooke D. Jean Lamarck
48 The theory supports
A.struggle for survival B: natural selection. C. independent assortment. D. the use and disuse of-body.arts.
49. In evolution, fossils are naturally preserved in
A. rocks B. water C. chemicals D. trees.
50 Which of the following insects is not a social insect?
A Termite B.Housefly C Honeybee D. Ant
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Biology 1 ANSWERS
1B 2D 3D 4C 5D 613 7C 8D 9A 10C 11A 12D 13C 14D 15C 16C 17A 18A 19B 20C 21C 22A 23B 24B 25D 26A 27B 28D 29B 30C 31C 32A 33B 34C 35C 36A 37C 38D 39A 40A 41A 42D 43C 44D 45D 46A 47B 48B 49A 50B
Biology 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
I. (a) Explain briefly how the structure of each of the following cells relate to their functions: (i) sperm cell; (ii) palisade cell. (b) Make a drawing 8 cm – 10 cm long of the front view of the female reproductive system in humans and label fully. (c) State two differences between reproduction in mammals and in amphibians. (d) State two methods of birth control in humans.
2. (a) Name the gases involved in the photosynthesis of a plant. (b) State one role each of the gases named in 2(a). (c)(i) What is a variegated leaf? (ii) Which part of the variegated leaf would test positive when treated with iodine solution? (iii) State two reasons for the answer in 2(c)(ii). (v) Name one mineral element required by plants for the formation of the part that would test positive in 2(‘c)(ii). (d) The table below indicates different methods by which organisms obtain food. Place the following organisms under the headings in the table below:
Human, Mushroom, Venus flytrap, Waterleaf plant, Tapeworm, Elephant grass, Housefly, Lichen, Spirogyra, Rhizopus.
3. (a) Explain briefly the following terms: (I) renewable natural resources; (ii) nonrenewable natural resources. (b) Give two examples each of: (i) renewable natural resources; (ii) non-renewable natural resources. (c) State five ways of conserving forests. (d) State four effects of adding animal manure to garden soil. (e) Give the possible genotypes in humans.
4. (a) Explain briefly the following terms: (i) gene; (ii) hybrid; (iii) trait. (b) Two heterozygous yellow flowers are crossed. Using a genetic diagram; state the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of the first filial generation. (c) State four transmittable characters in plants.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION C
FOR CANDIDATES IN NIGERIA ONLY
6. (a)(i) Explain briefly chemosynthesis as a mode of nutrition. (ii) Give two examples of organisms that carry out chemosynthesis. (b) List three gases in the atmosphere with their percentage composition.
(c)(i) State four characteristics of a salt marsh habitat. (ii) Explain briefly how plants are modified for anchorage in a salt marsh habitat. (d)(i) List four bacterial diseases associated with poor food hygiene. (ii) State three effects of poor food hygiene. (e) A persons was involved in a car accident and became unconscious due to excessive blood loss. Explain briefly how the blood lost could be restored. (f) State three differences between ti//age and bush burning as farming practices.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Biology 2 Answers
SECTION A
1: (a) Structure of Cell Relating to its Function:
(i) Sperm cell: —Has a long/whip-like tail/flagellum; with which it swims to reach the egg/ovum of the female organism; Has a head with acrosome; for digesting/penetrating egg membrane; Has a nucleus in its head; which fuses with the nucleus of the ovum/egg cell during fertilization to form a zygote; —Its middle piece contains mitochondria; for supply of energy/ ATP.
(ii) Palisade cell: —Has thin wall; for easy penetration of light; Has numerous chloroplasts in peripheral cytoplasm; for maximum absorption of sunlight; Has large vacuole containing cell sap; for temporary storage of products of photosynthesis.
(b) Diagram of the Front View of the Female Reproductive of Humans
(c) Differences between Reproduction in Mammals and Amphibians
(d) Methods of Birth Control in Humans: —Abstinence; —Use of contraceptive pills/injection of hormonal drugs; —Coitus interruptus/withdrawal method; —Safe period/rhythm method; —Sterilization of men! vasectomy; —Sterilization of women/tubal ligation; —Use of condoms/female condom/male condom; —Use of spermicide/foam; —Use of implant/nor plant; —Use of IUD/intra-uterine devices; —Use of diaphragm
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
2: (a) Gases Involved in the Photosynthesis of a Plant: —Carbon dioxide/Carbon (IV) oxide; —Oxygen.
(b) Role of Gases Involved in Photosynthesis: (i) Carbon dioxide/Carbon (IV) oxide: Raw material for photosynthesis/to produce glucose/starch. (ii) Oxygen: By-product /given off during photosynthesis.
(c)(i) Variegated Leaf: A leaf with different colour parts/patches/green and non-green parts. (ii) Part of variegated leaf that would be positive when treated with iodine solution. The green part/patch. (iii) Reasons for the answer in 2(c)(ii): Presence of chlorophyll/chloroplast; for trapping solar energy; to manufacture starch; which turns blue-black with iodine solution. (iv) Mineral elements used to manufacture chlorophyll: Magnesium/iron/nitrogen.
(d) Table
3: (a)(i) Renewable Natural Resources: Materials that can be reused/replaced/regenerated/recycled; after they have been used. (ii) Non-renewable Natural Resources: Materials that are difficult/impossible to regenerate/ recycled; after being exhausted/depleted. (b)(i) Renewable Natural Resources: Air: soil; crops; fisheries; water; vegetation/forest; game/wildlife. (ii) Non-renewable natural Resources: Rocks; coal; minerals/ correctly named examples; crude oil/petroleum..
(c) Ways of Conserving Forest: —Prevent forest/bush fires; —Practice selective cutting of trees/avoid indiscriminate felling of trees; —Regulations/laws to control excessive clearing of forest; —Practice afforestation/plant new trees; —Employ forest guards to prevent/arrest intruders; —Use pesticides to kill pests/control plant diseases; —Embark on public education on dangers of deforestation.
(d) Effects of Adding Animal Manure to Garden Soil: —Animal manure provides nutrients/nitrogenous materials/improves soil fertility; —Animal manure are acted upon by nitrifying bacteria; —To form nitrates for plants; —Manure improves the water-holding properties of the soil by binding the soil particles together/improves soil structure; —Prevents soil from being blown away by wind/erosion. (e)- Possible Genotypes in Humans:
AA
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4. (a) Explanation of Terms (i) Gene: Is a unit of heredity/genetic material; composed of DNA; located on ti chromosome. (ii) Hybrid: Is an offspring; formed from across between parents that are genetically different but of same species. (iii) Trait: Is a feature /character; that is possessed by an organism; and can be transferred from parent to offspring.
(b) Genetic Cross:
Parental genotype
Gametes
Correct crossing (CC)
Offspring F1 generation
Phenotypic ratio 3:F
Genotypic ratio 1:2:1
(c) Transmittable Characters in Plants:
—Type of seed; —Size of fruit;
-Colour of flower; -Height of plant;
-Colour of leaf -Texture of seed coat;
-Size of plant; -Leaf shape;
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
6. (a)(i) Chemosynthesis: —The process by which same organisms manufacture their food; —By converting carbon molecules into organic substances; —Using the oxidation of inorganic substances/hydrogen sulphide/ ammonia methane; —As a source of energy without the use of sunlight/solar energy. (ii) Examples of Organisms that Carry out Chemosynthesis: —Sulphur bacteria; —Nitrosomonas; —Nitrobacter; —Blue-green algae; —Nitrococcus.
(b) Percentage Composition of Gases in the Atmosphere:
(c)(i) Characteristics of salt Marsh Habitat: —Presence of low oxygen levels; —High salinity; —Soft muddy environment; —Presence of changing water levels; —Flat lowland; —Swampy/water-logged; —Low light penetration. (ii) Modification of Plants to salt Marsh
Habitat: —Plants grow long/have numerous roots; to hold to the substratum; possess stilt roots; for anchorage.
(d)(i) Bacterial Diseases Associated with Poor Food Hygiene: —(Staphylococcal) Food poisoning; —Dysentery; —Cholera; —Hepatitis; —Typhoid; —Gastritis; —Botulism; —Tuberculosis. (ii) Effects of bad food hygiene: —May lead to intestinal ulcer; —May lead to serious food poisoning; —Sickness/discomfort; —Frequent stooling/running stomach/diarrhoea; —Loss in economic value/loss in food value; —Death.
(e) Restoring Blood Loss of an Accident Victim after a Car Accident: —The victim must first be rushed to the hospital —Where the blood sample will be taken, —For agglutination test, —To know the blood group —Then the compatible blood is transfused to the victim.
(f) Differences Between Tillage and Burning
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: English Language 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.
1. Binetou’s inquisitiveness is in sharp contrast with her sister’s
(a) indifference (b) noisiness (c) calmness (d) dullness
2. Though at first it appeared an insignificant idea, it turned out to be quite__________
(a) outstanding (b) successful (c) remarkable (d) interesting
3. After grasping the fundamental aspects of his job, Kwesi had to cope with more________ procedures.
(a) advanced (b) academic (c) subsidiary (d) secondary.
4. The youth prefer discussing contemporary issues to
(a) archaic (b) uninteresting (c) stale (d) political
5. As erroneous as it might sound, the Headmaster’s assumption was quite________
(a) wise (b) correct (c) precise (d) faulty
6. Halima likes to dwell on trivial, rather than_______ matters.
(a) strong (b) popular (c) weighty (d) heavy
7. We all know that Bola is insolent whereas Ade is______
(a) cowardly (b) respectful (c) humble (d) modest
8. A few days after Musa’s, his sister longed for his departure.
(a) coming (b) entrance (c) arrival (d) welcome
9. Algebra seems complicated, but with practice it becomes
(a) solved (b) simple (c) accessible (d) achievable
10. Mrs. Agide is unassuming whereas her twin sister is
(a) cheerful (b) boastful (c) loud (d) rude
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.
11. At Christmas, employees of the Sugar Factory receive huge________
(a) benefits (b) dividends (c) bonuses (d) salaries
12. The exposed milk in the container has turned_______
(a) sour (b) putrid (c) mouldy (d) stale
13. Not all activists champion_________ causes.
(a) worthy (b) real (c) concrete (d) favourable
14. The Mayor gave a glowing_______ at the funeral of the city’s only curator.
(a) citation (b) statement (c) tribute (d) commendation
15. At the end of, the National Anthem is played on our radio station.
(a) programming (b) production (c) transition (d) transmission.
16. The defence counsel was unable to convince the John’s innocence.
(a) plaintiff (b) witness (c) panel (d)jury.
17. Unfortunately, corruption is the most African countries.
(a) venom (b) bane (c) disaster (d) backbone
18.The results proved that the patient had hepatitis.
(a) investigation (b) diagnosis (c) probe. (d) test.
19. The new book has beautiful make it attractive.
(a) illustrations (b) demonstrations (c) illuminations (d) compositions
20. Their marriage was finally years of hostility.
(a) cancelled (b) annulled (c) broken (d) separated
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 3
After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that is most appropriate for each sentence.
21 Can you imagine Oka behaving as if he has all the knowledge in the world? This means that Oka.
(a) does not really know anything (b) knows so much more than we think (c) Is admired by everybody (d) respects other people
22. Akin is too full of himself. This means that Akin
(a) talks too much (b) eats too much (c) is too proud (d) is quite annoying
23. She slogged her guts out for the examination. This means that she
(a) failed the examination despite working hard for it (b) passed the examination despite not working hard for it (c) used unfair means to face the examination (d) really worked very hard for the examination.
24. I admire Modou: very few people can stomach all of Adaeze’s insults. This means that Modou
(a) tolerated Adaeze’s insults (b) was a weakling (c) had no answer to Adaeze’s insults (d) did the right thing by remaining silent.
25. After months of battling with stroke, he is now a shadow of his former self. This means that he
(a) is now frail (b) is vulnerable (c) is hopeless (d) has almost recovered.
26. Kura, you can’t be too careful when dealing with Wang. This means that Kura
(a) has no reason to be suspicious of Wang (b) can fully rely on Wang (c) has to be very careful in his relationship with Wang (d) may feel free in the company of Wang.
27. Don’t tell me another cock and bull story. This means that the speaker does not want to
(a) be further baffled (b) hear the same old story (c) hear another drab story (d) be further deceived.
28. Had he confessed much earlier, she would have trusted him. This means that he
(a)had confessed earlier on, but he wasn’t trusted (b) had confessed much earlier on and he was trusted (c) hadn’t confessed much earlier on and he was trusted (d) hadn’t confessed earlier on, and wasn’t trusted.
29. Kola: You really worked hard to win the case. Didia: You don’t know the half of it. This means that
(a) it wasn’t as difficult as Kola had thought (b) Kola’s statement wasn’t actually correct (c) it was even more difficult than Kola could imagine (d) winning the case didn’t mean much to Kola.
30. Femi is too clever by half. This means that Femi
(a) displays his cleverness in an annoying way (b) is not as clever as he thinks (c) pleases everyone he meets (d) hides how clever he really is.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 4
From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.
31. He was such a brilliant footballer!
(a) an inspired (b) an intelligent (c) a dazzling (d) a skillful.
32. The politician is a fluent speaker.
(a) an eloquent (b) a superficial (c) an insightful (d) a persuasive.
33. Everyone has the urge to succeed in life.
(a) compulsion (b) desire (c) need (d) courage.
34. When he heard the gunshot, he ran into a thick forest.
(a) tight (b) deep (c) dense (d) close.
35. That was a timely intervention.
(a)suitable (b)accurate (c) prompt (d) major.
36. David is not only hardworking but also scrupulous.
(a) painstaking (b) ambitious (c) pleasant (d) daring.
37. We really have to be careful because the situation is rather tricky.
(a) deceitful (b) trivial (c) unexpected (d) difficult.
38. I think that his essay is impeccable.
(a) erroneous (b) correct (c) satisfactory (d) faultless.
39. There has been a marked change in her study habit.
(a) significant (b) real (c) full (d) complete.
40. He was directed to write the letter.
(a) advise (b) instructed (c) persuaded (d) forced.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 5
From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.
41. Everyone of the students to be excited about the excursion.
(a) was seeming (b) is seeming (c) seem (d) seems.
42. We should assist the poor?
(a) shall we (b) isn’t it (c) shouldn’t we (d) we shouldn’t.
43. Either he or you clean up the mess.
(a) has (b) have (c) were (d) was.
44. If Musa had woken up earlier, he
(a) would not have missed (b) ought not to miss (c) shall have missed (d) may have missed.
45. He would rather appeal the decision
(a) instead of accepting (b) than accepting (c) than accepts (d) than accept.
46. The student complained that he the teacher.
(a) was not hearing (b) could not hear (c) does not hear (d) is not hearing.
47. My brother Lagos for the past ten years.
(a) is living (b) lived (c) will lived (d) has been living.
48. I am totally disappointed poor grades
(a) from (b)with (b)for (d)on.
49. He is a doctor but he dabbles now and then.
(a) in (b) through (c) on (d) into.
50. arrived before the manager. (a) Neither he nor I
(b) Neither me nor he (c) Either I nor him (d) Neither me nor him.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
51. The evening was rounded with a dance.
(a) off (b) up (c) out (d) down.
52.1 have done the dishes but I haven’t had the time.
(a) will (b) should (c) might (d) shall.
53. I have heard all said
(a) what (b) which (c) that (d) whatever.
54. Life in the city is challenging for the lazy.
(a) too much (b) so much (c) very much (d) much too.
55. It is always________ that get the blame.
(a) me (b) I (c) myself (d) mine.
56. He spends a deal of his time studying.
(a) large (b) great (c) big (d) huge.
57. I guess he holds position in the company.
(a) some kind (b) many kind of (c) some kind of (d) many kind.
58. He always gives coming late to school.
(a) one excuse or another (b) one excuse or the other (c) some excuse or another (d) some excuse or the other.
59. you turn down the volume of the radio? I am trying to read!
(a) May (b) Will (c) Would (d) Should.
60. I know it’s a secret, so I______tell anyone.
(a) couldn’t (b) shan’t (c) needn’t (d) mightn’t.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
61. At the last minute, Amidu backed of the plan.
(a) up (b) off (c) out (d) down.
62. He very handsome but I don’t like him.
(a) shall (b) will (c) might (d) can.
63. During her early days in school, she_______ study for hours.
(a) would (b) may (c) can (d) shall.
64. He this morning in a dazzling white shirt.
(a) turned off (b) turned in (c) turned by (d) turned out.
65. The police have_______ a warning to all residents of the area.
(a) put on (b) put in (c) put off (d) put out.
66. My parents taught me a lot of lessons, most of______ are difficult to forget.
(a) which (b) who (c) whom (d) what.
67. Sani on a banana peel and fell down.
(a) slide (b) slid (c) had slid (d) was sliding.
68. I look forward to from you.
(a) hear (b) hearing (c) be hearing (d) have heard.
69. I have made remarkable progress French.
(a) by (b) at (c) in (d) for.
70. The beans have not been properly.
(a) grind (b) ground (c) grinding (d) grounded.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 6
In the following passage, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below the passage, four options are given in columns lettered A to D. Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the passage.
An entrepreneur is a person who organises and manages any business enterprise, or one who combines the other factors of -71- to start a business and make a profit. He possesses considerable initiative and is willing to take -72- An entrepreneur can be a farmer, a dressmaker, a factory owner, a wholesaler or a _73_. More often than not, it is best for an entrepreneur to start a business from scratch rather than _74_ in or buy an existing business. One advantage is that he would be independent and not become a -75- or get to inherit some bad debt. The _76_ of a good entrepreneur must include hard work, innovation and creativity. He must be well-informed and confident to make worthwhile decisions. As it takes a great deal of energy, time and money to operate one’s own business, entrepreneurs must seek to possess good managerial _77- in order to manage their business successfully.
But how useful is the entrepreneur to the society? He is an innovator who develops new _78_ and services to make life easier and more comfortable. He plans, organises, directs and _79_ his business activities effectively, thus minimizing wastage of limited _80_ and enhancing productivity. Also, he creates employment and contributes to the generation of revenue for the government by paying taxes.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers English 1 ANSWERS
1.A 11.C 21.A 31.D
2.C 12.A 22.C 32.A
3.A 13.A 23.D 33.B
4.A 14.C 24.A 34.C
5.B 15.D 25.A 35.C
6.C 16.D 26.C 36.A
7.B 17.B 27.D 37.D
8.C 18.B 28.D 38.D
9.B 19.A 29.C 39.A
10.B 20.C 30.A 40.B
41.D 51.A 61.C 71.D
42.C 52.B 62.C 72.C
43.B 53.C 63.A 73.C
44.A 54.D 64.D 74.B
45.D 55.B 65.D 75.D
46.B 56.B 66.A 76.C
47.D 57.C 67.B 77.A
48.B 58.B 68.B 78.C
49.A 59.B 69.C 79.A
50.A 60.B 70.B 80.D
English Language 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A: ESSAY
1. You are dissatisfied with some practices in your school. Write a letter to your friend in another school discussing at least three of these practices and the improvement you desire.
2. Write an article suitable for publication in a national newspaper on the high cost of living, suggesting at least three ways in which the government of your country can tackle the problem.
3. Write a letter to the Chairman of the Environmental Protection Agency on the effects of illegal felling of trees and suggest ways to remedy the situation.
4. You are the main speaker in a debate on the topic: Children of literate parents perform better in school than those of illiterate parents. Write your argument for or against the motion.
5. Write a story to illustrate the saying: A bird in hand is worth two in the bush.
SECTION B: COMPREHENSION
6. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
The crowd was massive. Men, women, boys and girls from every nook and cranny of the village had gathered under the big iroko tree. Also in the crowd was an American couple, tourists, who were enjoying their holiday. At the centre of the large circle of people was the magician who had the reputation of performing unbelievable feats. Everybody was impressed with the feats which went along with the hilarious drumming.
Then came the next item. The magician’s three aides each took out a local gun while the magician danced even wilder. The gun-totting aides took up position in three different corners. The drumming became more frenzied and the magician performed more acrobatics. The people were not to wonder for long what the guns had to do with the whole show. One after the other, the aides aimed at the magician while he steadied himself to receive the shots. Each gun boomed with a loud report and the magician jumped up in celebration of his survival. The three shots seemingly got to him but he simply laughed to scorn the shooters.
The American tourist was more than mystified. He could not explain it. How could a man receive bullet shots in his chest and still remain unscathed? In disbelief, he shouted, “This is amazing, can’t be explained. But wait a minute, I’ll join the show myself.” There and then, he went to his car, took out his riffle, and returned to the crowd. “I’m gonna get this guy!” he proclaimed.
He took aim. The magician saw him out of the corner of his eye. He surveyed the scenario and decided that he was not prepared for this. Quickly, he showed a clean pair of heels. Tearing through the crowd, he ran for dear life. Some thought this was still part of the show, but when the man would not return, it was clear that he had bidden the audience a hasty farewell.
What the American and most others did not realise all the time was that the local guns had no bullets whatsoever, only the gunpowder.
(a) What suggests that the show was free?
(b) What evidence is there that the performance was not a one-man show?
(c) Why was the magician confident to receive the shots from his aides?
(d) What did the American tourist set out to prove?
(e)What might have happened if the American had completed his contemplated action?
(f) .. . .he showed a clean pair of heels. What does this expression mean?
(g)… which went along with the hilarious drumming.
(i) What is the grammatical name given to this expression as it is used in the passage?
(ii) What is its function?
(h) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replace it as it is used in the passage.
(i) feats (ii) aides 1 (iii) steadied (iv) mystified (v) unscathed (vi) hasty
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION C: SUMMARY
7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it.
Drug abuse is a menace in many countries. The continued abuse of drugs usually leads to addiction. This problem is more common among youths. The drugs that can be abused vary from prescribed medication to more controlled substances. Alcohol, cigarette and controlled substances such as cocaine, heroin, methamphetamine and so on are addictive drugs that are often used by many young people. They can be smoked, swallowed, inhaled or injected into the bloodstream.
There are numerous adverse medical and psychological consequences associated with drug addiction. Individuals have been known to suffer irreversible damage from the abuse of drugs. It can affect the central nervous system as well as cause memory loss, brain damage and depression.
Drug addicts may display psychotic behaviours, mood swings and may be predisposed to irascible decision making. They are also likely to suffer general health problems related to the lungs, heart and kidneys. In fact, the adverse behavioural and physical effects of drug addiction on the individual are enormous.
Apart from the problems for the individual, the families of drug addicts are not spared. Since addicts are usually incapable of functioning as ‘normal’ members of the society, they abuse their families. They are prone to abusing spouses and children. There have been reports of children harming their parents because the latter did not give them money to buy drugs. Drugs addicts may eventually require expensive treatment and rehabilitation. These have huge cost implications that put a lot of pressure on the family budget. In addition, their families face stigmatization in their communities.
The society at large also suffers. Drug addicts are more likely to be involved in criminal activities than people who are not. Many of the heinous crimes reported have been attributed to drug addiction. The abuse of alcohol is one of the reasons for the increasing number of road accidents. An increase in crime rate-forces the government to commit huge resources to fighting crime, resources that could have been used to provide more social amenities. Moreover, most criminal gangs are formed and thrive on money from drugs. Although the addicts have made the drug trade seemingly attractive and profitable, no one should promote it.
Regardless of the apparently insurmountable nature of the problems associated with drug addiction, some measures could be taken to curb this menace. People need to be more educated on the effects of addiction on themselves and their families. Children must be taught in schools and at home the need to stay away from drugs. The law-enforcement agencies should also be better empowered and resourced to apprehend dealers in order to curtail the availability of drugs in circulation. Another step is to ensure that drug addicts receive early treatment. Such treatment should be based on the specific drug the individual is addicted to. While it may appear impossible to eliminate the problems of addiction, relentless efforts in taking the steps above will help to weaken the grip of drug abuse on our society.
(a) In three sentences, one for each, state three categories of people that are affected by drug addiction and what they suffer.
(b) In three sentences, one for each, identify three ways to combat drug addiction in the society.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers English 2 ANSWERS
1.
Fatunwa Sec School,
P.O Box 226,
Ojodu
27th May, 2018.
Dear Kingsley,
I read your last letter with a great delight. It is indeed delightful to know that schools do share some similarities which may be positive ones or negative as it is in our case. In my own school too, there are some practices which have made my school to be notorious and which I would want to express my disapproval about. Just as you were disgusted about such practices in your school, I want to express dissatisfaction with some similar practices in my school.
The first nauseating practice is incessant fighting bordering on thuggery among students. It is a common practice even within my school compound to see two students fighting each other and other students would gather around them hailing and thus causing mayhem. in most cases, the fighters are inseparable and they would fight until one draws blood on the other. This intolerable habit at times is taken too far when the students in my school engage some unscrupulous ones from a nearby sister school. The in-house fighting practice is thereby exhibited outside in what has become thuggery for which my school has now become known. My school does not organise inter-house sport competitions because similar ones ended in violent thuggery.
Bullying as a practice common among students in my school has also become so prevalent that it has become a source of worry for peace-loving students like me. There is no day passing without one or two cases of bullying being reported to the school authorities. Junior students and those who have diminutive stature are at the great risk of being bullied and harassed within the school premises. They are extorted and forced to part with their money and belongings. In some cases, such extortion border on robbing the younger ones. Within the school premises, the junior students have become an endangered species as they are picked up for bullying by the senior students who are supposed to protect them. Similar to this, gambling, as a practice, is common among the students. This cuts across all the classes in the school as there are gamblers in junior classes as well as in the senior classes.
Another worrisome practice in my school is the lackadaisical attitude of teachers to their duties. All the practices I told you about earlier on are the results of the poor attitude of our teachers. They are negligent of their duties as many of them turn their faces from students’ misbehaviours instead of correcting them. Their attitude to their main job of coming to teach in the class is not different. They sit down in their staff rooms during their lesson periods waiting for students to come and call them.
There is an urgent need for improvement because the school cannot make progress until there is a change. Kingsley, I am not happy that my school is notorious for all these objectionable practices of fighting, thuggery, gambling and unproductive attitude of teachers. I seriously desire an improvement with which the school can move forward.
How are you and your studies? I hope you are trying to cope with all the challenges that are coming your way. I trust you. Don’t ever try join in those practices you discussed in your last letter but be one of the agents of change and improvement as I am trying to be here. I know that we are going to succeed in the end.
Yours sincerely, Christopher.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
2. HIGH COST OF LIVING IN MY COUNTRY
Undoubtedly, there is every need to improve the standard of living of citizens of this country. The cost of living is too high in Nigeria and many Nigerians are groaning under the heavy yoke of high cost of living. The bad economy which has engineered exorbitant cost of living has affected Nigerians, particularly the poor. There is high cost of feeding, accommodation, transportation, education and so on to the extent that every facet of life is affected. This pitiable condition is made worse by the crippling effects of unemployment in the country. This has multiplying effects on the standard of living of Nigerians which makes it imperative for the government to rise to the occasion and tackle the problem. The first way of tackling the problem of high cost of living is government having interest in promoting
agriculture in the country. The first priority need of people is survival by feeding well. The cost of food items is too high and this is as a result of low production of food in the country. The farm has been abandoned to th people by the youths who are not interested in farming. Therefore, the government should make farming attractive to the youths, thereby increasing food production which will bring about a drastic reduction in the \ prices of food items. This can be achieved if the government establishes farm settlements across the country and provides modern farming equipment like tractors plough and harvesters which will allow for high production of food in the country. When foodstuffs are cheap and affordable, Nigerians will be able to feed themselves and remain healthy.
Another way of improving the standard of living of Nigerians and reducing the high cost of living is empowering the youths to become self-reliant, productive and entrepreneurial. This will prevent them from becoming job seekers but job creators. If the government establishes skill acquisition centres where the youths can acquire skills that can make them go into the production of essential goods and manufacturing of items like shoes, bags, machines and so on, the high cost of these items will come down and become affordable to Nigerians. By encouraging manufacturing, government can create wealth in the country and reduce the high cost of living.
The high cost of living in the country is an indication of the poor economy. In order to improve the economy of the country, the government has to do the needful by diversifying the economy. The government should invest in agriculture and manufacturing so that the country will become a great exporting one and not dependent on imported goods. This will definitely improve the foreign earnings of the country and it will have positive effects on the standard of living of Nigerians.
Moreover, the locally-made goods either in the agro-called sector or manufacturing sector should be protected by government by banning imported goods. This will encourage local production and manufacturing and Nigerians should be sensitised towards patronising foods and goods made in Nigeria. If our locally-produced food and goods are patronised by Nigerians, it will bring about a large production and their prices will be cheap and affordable. This will thereby reduce the high cost of living in the country.
lgwe Progress.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
3.
Babs Fafunwa Senior Secondary School
P.O. Box 226, Ojodu, Lagos
27th May, 2018.
The Chairman,
Environmental Protection Agency,
Abuja.
Dear Sir,
EFFECTS OF ILLEGAL FELLING OF TREES
As the agency charged with the responsibility of promoting environmental protection in Nigeria, I would like to draw your attention to the depletion of our forests through illegal felling of trees and the devastating effects it has on our environment, otherwise we will continue to live in very unsafe surroundings which cannot continue to support our lives.
Illegal felling of trees has many effects on our environment with its dire consequences. First and foremost, illegal felling of trees is responsible for the sudden and erratic changes in our weather which in some cases has led to serious drought. Nowadays, there has been change in the rainfall pattern which has made it difficult for our farmers to plan their farming schedules. This has made farming risky for farmers as they often plan their crops at the drop of rain only to get stuck midway when the rain suddenly stops. Besides, trees have a great influence on rainfall which illegal felling of these trees destroys.
Similarly, trees conserve soil and prevent soil erosion. The soil surface covered by the leaves and branches of trees is protected from heavy rain which could wash it away. Apart from this, the roots of trees have binding effects on soil particles and help in soil aeration and water absorption. With the rampant illegal felling of trees, the soil loses its fertility and ability to produce bountiful harvest. Soil erosion results in a rapid decline in the productivity of soil. Thus, illegal felling of trees often leads to low food production.
Moreover, illegal felling of trees denies us the productive uses of trees. Trees like ‘obeche’ and ‘iroko’ can be sawn into planks and used to produce furniture, canoes, particle boards, fuel-wood and paper. With the depletion of these trees illegally, we are denied of their productive uses. We are also denied of the medicinal substances obtainable from trees. The tree roots, barks and leaves are medicinal and with illegal felling of trees, humanity is denied the opportunity to enjoy the medicinal values of trees.
Undoubtedly, illegal felling of trees has done more harm than good to our environment with the depletion of oxygen, destruction of shades and even the depletion of the ozone and it should not be allowed to continue. Your agency has to do something urgent to remedy the situation. First, your agency should encourage afforestation. More trees need to be planted so as to replace those that have been illegally felled. Nigerians should be encouraged to plant trees, at least one in a day. A day should be popularised to be a tree-planting day when Nigerians would be sensitised to set aside as the day they have to plant trees.
Furthermore, Nigerians should be educated on the importance of trees to their environment. They should be told that trees could help to make the climate more comfortable for them and make the environment more habitable. Lastly, stiffer penalties should be meted out to anybody caught engaging in illegal felling of trees. If this is done, it will serve as deterrent to others.
Yours faithfully,
Signature
Eniafe Esther.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4. CHILDREN OF LITERATE PARENTS PERFORM BETTER IN SCHOOL THAN OF ILLITERATE PARENTS.
Chairman, Panel of Judges, Co-debaters, Ladies and Gentlemen, I am here to speak in support of the motion “Children of literate parents perform better in school than those of illiterate parents”. When we say that children of literate parents perform better in school, what this means is that they do well academically than those of illiterate parents. Of course, children from literate homes perform better in their school work than those from illiterate homes. Intelligence is innate and it is often inherited or passed down from parents to children. A literate parent passes down intelligent quotient to his or her child. Definitely, literate parents have the tendency of having children with high intelligent quotient. The reverse is the case with illiterate parents who are not likely to produce children with high intelligent quotient going by simple biological law of genes transfer.
Second, literate parents are more concerned and passionate about education. They are the ones that are always ready to send their children to school and back it up with all necessary academic equipment like books and educative software even with Internet facilities in their homes, all to make their children perform well in school. They often employ lesson teachers to give extra lesson to their children at home after school. Tell me why children from such homes won’t perform better than those from illiterate homes? Illiterate parents are mostly not passionate about education. All they know is that their children are attending schools and they stop at that. Their children are not supported at home with lesson teachers, and educative facilities like the Internet. Some of them don’t even bother about the progress of their children unlike literate parents who, apart from supporting their children, find time to sit down with their children to ascertain their progress in school. When their children have problem on their assignments or need some explanations, literate parents can offer assistance even when the lesson teacher is not around. An illiterate parent cannot offer such assistance because he or she is not educated.
Moreover, children from literate homes usually have examples of educated predecessors to follow and emulate. Their parents are educated and so they cannot afford not to do well in school so that they can equal or even surpass their parents’ academic achievements. Children from illiterate homes, on the other hand, have no such opportunity. They often think highly of themselves because they are presumed to have been better educated than their illiterate parents. This is further worsened by the fact that their illiterate parents always think highly of them and so tolerate their excesses. A child from an illiterate home can easily deceive his or her illiterate parents about his or her academic performance because the parents could not read and write. This is unthinkable in literate homes where the parents can analyse academic results and know whether their children are doing well in school or not.
Chairman, Panel of Judges, Ladies and Gentlemen, you will all agree with me that a child performs better in school when he or she can be appropriately monitored and supported with academic facilities both in school and at home and when such child comes from a literate home where he or she has somebody with a greater education qualifications to emulate and even surpass. I hope that I have been able to convince you with my well-articulated points that children of literate parents perform better in school those of illiterate parents.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
5. A BIRD IN HAND IS WORTH TWO IN THE BUSH.
The import of the saying: ‘a bird in hand is worth two in the bush” was lost on me until after my secondary school education. The reality of the saying dawned on me fully when I had this terrible experience of losing an admission into a university in Nigeria simply because I was trying to get a better one. I had my. secondary education with a relative ease. Throughout my secondary school days, I was rated the best. I always led other students in my class and at the end of every school year, I won awards and laurels. I remembered our last social event in the school, our valedictory service; I was announced the best in almost all the subjects. When our WASSCE results were released, I had nine distinctions and was then ready for university admission.
I wrote and passed the examination for admission into the university and I was offered admission to study medicine in one of the prestigious universities in the country. It was at this point in my life that I had an encounter with Mr Davies. Mr Davies happened to be an acquaintance of my father and known to own a travel agency-cum-tutorial school in our neighborhood. Before his plans for me were known to me, he had met and talked with my parents to persuade them to let him help me to study abroad. My father in particular gave in to his sugar-coated persuasive talk and the process began.
Few days after meeting with Mr Davies, my father called me to his sitting room where my mother had set down to await the beginning of the family meeting. “Koye, I want you to study abroad. It is good that you have been offered admission into a university here but I think you should travel abroad to study.” I shifted on my seat and sat very well probably to hear correctly what my father was saying. Before I could say anything, my mother interrupted: “There won’t be any problem about that. Your father had discussed the plans with Mr Davies who had assured the two of us that he would assist to make it work out. In fact, It was Mr Davies’ idea since he knows your brilliant performance in your examinations.” I sat well on the chair and was almost lost in my thought. Then I came around and asked: “Do you think this will be possible? Where will the money come from or Mr Davies will assist for free?” All I could get as answers to my questions was that they had considered everything and had come to the conclusion that studying abroad was the best for me.
At first, I was thrilled by this sudden change in fortune. “So I would have the opportunity to study abroad!”, I sometimes uttered to myself. For the time being, I disregarded the admission offered to study here in Nigeria and longed for when I would travel abroad. Mr Davies helped me to secure admission into a university in America though I knew that with my good result, that would not be a problem. The other processes should follow and my parents struggled so hard to get money to pay for each of the processes.
I became worried after eight months into the plans and nothing positive came from Mr Davies. When it was one year after admission had been given to me and our plan to travel abroad fell through, I went to the university that gave me admission to see ill could resume schooling there but I was turned down. If I still had interest in the university, I should write another examination the following year. Everything stood at a standstill. I was disappointed and furious at the same time. When I got home, I made my feelings known to my parents who only worsened my situation by telling me that about two million Naira had been collected by Mr Davies and he was at large. This news multiplied my woes and with bile in my mouth, I said to my parents: “You made me to forfeit my already obtained university admission. If I had insisted that I didn’t want your plan, you would have called me a disobedient son. You can see now that “a bird in hand is worth two in the bush.”
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS TO COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS
6(a). The fact is that it-took place in the open/under the big Iroko tree.
(b) The evidence is that apart from the magician, there were drummers and the magician’s three aides.
(c) This is because he knew that there were no bullets in the guns
(d) He set out to prove that the magician was not bullet-proof after all.
(e) The magician might have died
(f) It means that the man ran away.
(g) (i) Relative/adjectival clause (ii) It qualifies/modifies (the noun) “feats”.
(h) (i) feats – stunts, acts, tricks.
(ii) aides – assistants, helpers, supporters.
(iii) steadied – stabilised, positioned, braced, readied, balanced, prepared.
(iv) mystified – puzzled, baffled, perplexed, astonished, stupefied, bewildered, bemused.
(v) unscathed – unharmed, unhurt, uninjured, safe
(vi) hasty – quick, speedy, hurried, rushed.
ANSWERS TO SUMMARY QUESTIONS
7(a) (i) The individual suffers from medical and psychological problems
(ii) The families of drug addicts suffer abuse, financial loss and stigmatisation.
(iii) The society suffers increased crime rate and accidents; deprivation of more social amenities.
(b) (i) People should be (more) educated on the (negative) effects of drug addiction
(ii) Law enforcement agencies should be empowered and equipped to arrest drug dealers.
(iii) Early treatment should be provided for addicts.
English Language 3: Test of Orals
SECTION 1
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
1. coin. (a) toy (b) rod (C) lord (d) ride.
2. blow. (a) brown (b) blew (c) road (d) now.
3. lawyer. (a) lawless (b) lorry (c) adapt (d) flying.
4. decided. (a) bled (b) hid (C) skew (d) hide.
5. cup (a) oven (b) cot (c) crop (d) curl.
6. pure (a) sure (b) you (c) curse (d) more.
7. how (a) low (b) drought (c) bowl (d) bought.
8. short (a) but (b) shoot (c) spot (d) jaw.
9. stew (a) slow (b) blue (c) gnaw (d) good.
10.could (a) cold (b) cod (c) pull (d) cool.
11. league (a) lick (b) pleasure (c) people (d) learn.
12. high (a) yell (b) bye (C) quay (d) toil.
13. stay (a) height (b) rake (c) rise (d) rose.
14. burn (a) barn (b) owl (c) girl (d) pus.
15. parse (a) spice (b) irk (c) chart (d) eye.
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
16. kin (a) knife (b) scheme (c) scene (d) known
17. same (a)isle (b)dies (c)daze (d)loose.
18. parent (a) pious (b) physics (c) corps (d) pharmacy.
19. tax (a) ask (b) ached (c) lacks (d) kiss.
20. zero (a) days (b) cease (c) seizure (d) measure.
21. flame (a) dough (b) pillar (c) psyche (d) photo.
22. cheek (a) chemist (b) campaign (c) sharp (d) cheque.
23. apt (a) rapid (b) taped (c) packed (d) prefect.
24. sing (a) examine (b) sinner (c) miner (d) kingship.
25. shadow (a) treasure (b) century (c) chess(d) thrash.
26. wept (a) begged (b) bombed (c) caused (d) stopped.
27. strict (a) indict (b) incite (c) inflict (d) listen.
28. jump (a) digest (b) geese (c) dozen (d) gear.
29. scratch (a) secret (b) screen (c) street (d) school.
30. think (a) smart (b) tooth (c) tiny (d) worthy.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 3
From the words lettered A – D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.
31. leisure (a) razor (b) sure (c) measure (d) pressure.
32. ballet (a) palate (b) tablet (c) chalet (d) blanket.
33. imbue (a) undue (b) defuse (C) recruit (d) outdone.
34. waste (a) placed (b) caged (c) host (d) forged.
35. thrive (a) move (b) clime (c) shrine (d) arrive.
SECTION 4
In each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress.
36. installation (a) IN-stal-la-tion (b) in-STAL-la-tion (c) in-stal-LA-tion (d) in-stal-la-TION.
37. unwillingness (a) UN-wil-ling-ness (b) un-WIL-ling¬ness (c) un-wil-LING-ness (d) un-wil-ling-NESS.
38. circumstances (a) CIR-cum-stan-ces (b) cir-CUM¬stan-ces (c) cir-cum-STAN-ces (d) cir-cum-stan-CES.
39. manipulate (a) MA-ni-pu-late (b) ma-NI-pu-late (c) ma-ni-PU-late (d) ma-ni-pu-LATE.
40. apologize (a) A-pol-o-gize (b) a-POL-o-gize (c) a-pol-O-gize (d) a-pol-o-GIZE.
SECTION 5
In the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress pattern.
41. (a) attention (b) amplify (c) alluring (d) important.
42. (a) interest (b) revenge (c) profess (d) support.
43. (a) concept (b) control (c) confess (d) confuse.
44. (a) decision (b) incursion (c) mutation (d) motionless.
45. (a) cargo (b) cater (c) cover (d) cartoon.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 6
In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer..
46. AYO asked Mary to come today.
(a) Did Chike ask Mary to come? (b) Did Ayo order Mary to come today? (c) Did Ayo ask Dad to come today? (d) Did Ayo ask Mary to come today?
47. Wood is cheap in the South THIS year.
(a) Is cassava cheap in the south? (b) Is wood expensive in the south this year? (c) Is wood cheap in the north this year? (d) Is wood cheap in the south every year?
48. NEW students should pay tuition fees.
(a) Should new pupils pay tuition fees? (b) Should old students pay tuition fees? (c) Should new students pay hostel fees? (d) Can new students pay tuition fees?
49. Dad requested the DRIVER to open the door.
(a) Did mum request the driver to open the door? (b) Did dad order the driver to open the door? (c) Did dad request the gardener to open the door? (d) Did dad request the driver to shut the door?
50. Ade’s BICYCLE is made of steel.
(a) Is Bola’s bicycle made of steel? (b) Is Ade’s car made of steel? (c) Was Ade’s bicycle made of steel? (d) Is Ade’s bicycle made of plastic?
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 7
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.
51. / u / (a) choose (b) tool (c) book (d) scoop.
52. / c / (a) beer (b) says (c) isle (d) raid.
53./ / (a) coy (b) law (c) cot (d) plow.
54. / b / (a) bugle (b) doubt (c) subtle (d) lamb.
55. / ei / (a) alone (b) greet (c) height (d) neigh.
56. / / (a) dear (b) chair (c) night (d) reign.
57. / u / (a) choir (b) chair (c) pour (d) pure.
58./ Ô / (a) thyme (b) pith (c) smooth (d) thin.
59. / n / (a) ankle (b) knock (c) hymn (d) hung.
60. / j / (a) cue (b) quit (C) judge (d) cheer.
ANSWERS
1.A 6.A 11.C 16.B 21.D 26.D 31.C 36.C 41.B 46.A 51.C 56.A
2.C 7.B 12.B 17.D 22.D 27.C 32.C 37.B 42.A 47.D 52.B 57.B
3.C 8.D 13.B 18.A 23.B 28.A 33.A 38.A 43.A 48.B 53.B 58.C
4.B 9.B 14.C 19.C 24.D 29.B 34.A 39.B 44.D 49.C 54.A 59.B
5.A 10.C 15.C 20.A 25.D 30.B 35.D 40.B 45.D 50.B 55.D 60.A
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Literature 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
PART I: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OF LITERATURE
1. The main character in a play or novel is the
(a) protagonist. (b) narrator (c) villain (d)antagonist.
2. A dramatic performance with only bodily movements and no speech is a
(a) farce (b) mime (c) slapstick (d) burlesque.
3. Before a play is performed, it is
(a) auditioned (b) applauded (c) rehearsed (d) recited.
4. A play that moves the audience to pity and fear is a
(a) comedy (b) farce (c) pantomime (d) tragedy.
5. A sonnet has a final couplet when it has
(a) a sestet (b) an octave (c) two sestets (d) three quatrains.
6. He is my most beloved enemy illustrates
(a) synecdoche (b) oxymoron (c) metonymy (d) litotes.
7. The cast appears at the end of a play for the
(a) musical (b) curtain call (c) intermission (d) introduction.
8. Diction is a writer’s choice of
(a) style (b) syntax (c) rhythm (d) words.
9. A poem which celebrates simple country life is
(a) a pastoral (b) a dirge (c) an ode (d) an epic.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Read the lines and answer question 10.
Oh spite! Oh hell! I see you are all bent
To set against me for your merriment.
10. The lines illustrate
(a) epitaph (b) epigram (c) apostrophe (d) allusion.
11. Hamartia, in a literary work refers to a hero’s
(a) tragic flaw (b) inordinate ambition (c) strength of character (d) good works.
Read the lines and answer question 12.
Who lied in the chapel
Now lies in the Abbey
12. The dominant device used is
(a) paradox (b) pun (c) chiasmus (d) zeugma.
13. A short play performed during the pause between the acts of a longer play is
(a) an interlude (b) an epilogue (c) a prologue (d) an interval.
14. Weeping pillow illustrates
(a) dramatic monologue (b) pathetic fallacy (c) transferred epithet (d) dramatic irony.
Read the lines and answer questions 15 to 17.
But the towering earth was tired of sitting in one position. She moved suddenly and the houses crumbled, the mountains heaved horribly, and the work of a million years was lost.
15. The predominant figure of speech in the extract is
(a) oxymoron (b) personification (c) contrast (d) paradox.
16. The extract is about
(a) an earthquake (b) a flood (c) an explosion (d) a storm.
17. The effect of the extract is conveyed through the use of
(a) antithesis (b) parallelism (c) conceit (d) climax.
18. Beware her faintly failing health. And gentle garlands around her speed illustrates
(a) oxymoron (b) alliteration (c) synecdoche (d) repetition.
19. The eight-line part of a Petrarchan sonnet is the
(a) quatrain (b) octave (c) octameter (d) quartet.
20. The metrical beat in The splendor falls on castle walls is
(a) anapaestic (b) dactylic (c) trochaic (d) iambic.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
PART II: UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY
Read the passage and answer questions 21 to 25.
Jame’s heart beat madly as he and Alice approached the beeping metal detector at the entrance. The oblivious swinging door hugged the couple with inviting, outstretched arms and ushered them into the lobby in genial welcome. The receptionist asked James to surrender any valuable items he had; If they got lost, management would not be liable.
James looked at Alice, his wife returned his guilt-stricken, dubious look with an innocent, trusting smile. What would he do if jewels went missing? How would he explain it to himself? What would he have gained by his mischief? What had come over James so shamelessly to decide to rob his own wife? The swindled woman stood innocently beside her unrepentant husband as he took the key to their room with hands that shook slightly.
21. The expression door hugged the couple illustrates
(a) euphemism (b) personification (c) litotes (d) onomatopoeia.
22. The narrative technique is
(a) first person (b) stream of consciousness (c) third person (d) interior monologue.
23. How would he explain it to himself? exemplifies
(a) hyperbole (b) parallelism (c) rhetorical question (d) understatement.
24. The writer’s attitude towards James is one of
(a) sympathy (b) distrust (c) support (d) disapproval.
25. The setting is
(a) the couple’s home (b) a modern hotel (c) the airport (d) a school.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Read the Poem and answer questions 26 to 30.
Poison ivy came up like a rose in red and thorny garb
I look, liked and did dare touch. My pals my avid touch espied
with green and frosty eyes
I should’ve only looked, and not leapt,
For away and over my rising moon she flew
on clipped wings of my dream
now a song-filled air pocket of serenades. A love’s wretch, my dream is a hornbill
flightless and tottering. My dream remains a dream still
Now my dream is a locked-up serenade.
26. The mood of the persona is one of
(a) contempt (b) hilarity (c) despondency (d) hopefulness.
27. The theme of the poem is
(a) love in the garden (b) the acceptance (c) the rising moon (d) unrequited love.
28. The envy of the persona’s friends is expressed in the
(a) avid touch (b) clipped wings (c) green and frosty eyes (d) song-filled air pocket.
29. Line 2 is in iambic
(a) trimether (b) tetrameter (c) pentameter (d) hexameter.
30. The last line illustrates
(a) parallelism (b) contrast (c) hyperbole (d) metaphor.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B
Answer all the questions in this section.
WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE: Othello
Read the extract and answer questions 31 to 35.
Othello: Not I. I must be found.
My parts, my title, and my perfect soul Shall manifest me rightly. Is it they?
ago: By Janus, I think no.
Othello: The servants of the Duke? And my lieutenant?
The goodness of the night upon you, friends
What is the news?
(Act I, Scene Two, lines 29 – 34)
31. Just before this, lago advises Othello to
(a) stay there (b) go in (c) show concern (d) be fair.
32.. By Janus is
(a) flashback (b) foregrounding (c) an allusion (d) euphemism.
33. The news Othello receives is that he must
(a) set sail for Cyprus (b) reconcile the Brabantio (c) prepare a military strategy (d) appear before the council.
34. Duke is in council that night because of
(a) Brabantio’s complaint (b) lagos demotion (c) the Turkish threat (d)Cassio’s dismissal as lieutenant.
35. Later on, Brabantio accuses Othello of
(a) being unfair to lago (b) instigating a brawl (c) stealing his daughter (d) being a knave.
Read the extract and answer questions 36 to 40.
Speaker: Let me speak like yourself and lay a sentence
Which, as a grise or step, may help these lovers. When
remedies are past, the griefs are ended
By seeing the worst, which late on hopes depended.
(Act I, Scene Three, lines 198-201)
36. The speaker is
(a) Brabantio (b) Duke (c) Montano (d) Lodovico.
37. He is responding to
(a) Montano (b) lago (c) Roderigo (d) Brabantio.
38. The setting is
a) a council chamber (b) Venice. A street (c) another street outside the Sagittary (d) the citadel of Cyprus.
39. These lovers refers to
(a) lago and Emilia (b) Cassio and Bianca (c) Roderigo and Desdemona (d)Othello and Desdemona.
40. The expression lay a sentence means
(a) decide who is guilty (b) offer criticism (c) give advice (d) speak politely.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Read the extract and answer questions 41 to 45.
Othello: Why, how now, ho? From whence ariseth this?
Are we turned Turks, and to ourselves do that
Which heaven hath forbid the Ottomites?
For Christian shame put by this barbarous brawl!
He that stirs next to carve for his own rage
Holds his soul light: he dies upon his motion.
Silence that dreadful bell. It frights the isle
From her propriety. What is the matter, masters?
Honest lago, that looks dead with grieving,
Speak. Who began this? On thy love, I charge thee.
ago: I do not know.
(Act U, Scene Three, lines 155— 165)
41. Othello is brought to the scene because
(a) lago is drunk (b) a bell has been rung (c) people are fighting (d) Cassio has stabbed Montano.
42. The underlined expression refers to the
(a) intervention of the storm in the war (b) return of the victorious army to Cyprus (c) killing of Roderigo by lago (d) stabbing of Montano by Cassio.
43. In Who began this” this refers to the
(a) theft (b) war (c) bell (d) brawl.
44. To Othello, lago is
(a) sincere (b) a negligent guard (c) untrustworthy (d) a loyal senator.
45. The major consequence of the brawl is that
(a) Montano is killed (b) Roderigo demands his money back (c) Cassio is dismissed as Othello’s lieutenant (d) lago is given charge of the city.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Read the extract and answer questions 46 to 50.
Speaker: I durst, my lord, to wager she is honest,
Lay down my soul at stake. If you think other,
Remove your thought. It doth abuse your bosom.
If any wretch have put this in your head,
Let heaven requite it with the serpent’s curse,
For if she be not honest, chaste, and true,
There’s no man happy. The purest of their wives
Is foul as slander.
(Act IV, Scene Two, lines 12— 19)
46. The speaker is
(a) lago (b) Desdemona (c) Cassio (d) Emilia.
47. The speaker is addressing
(a) Othello (b) Montano (c) Duke (d) Roderigo.
48. The speech is in response to
(a) the allegation that the speaker has lied about Desdemona (b) lagos disdain for Othello (c) Othello’s suspicion that Cassio and Desdemona are lovers (d) Brabantio’s rejection of his daughter.
49. The line Remove your thought. it doth abuse your bosom is best paraphrased
(a) You are not wise. (b) Do not kill yourself. (c) You are ungrateful. (d) You demean yourself by thinking so.
50. The character being spoken of is described as
(a) unhappy (b)virtuous (c)generous (d)wretched.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Literature 1 ANSWERS
1A 11A 21B 31B 41D
2B 12B 22B 32A 42A
3C 13A 23C 33D 43D
4D 14B 24B 34C 44A
5C 15B 25B 35C 45C
6B 16A 26C 36B 46D
7B 17D 27D 37D 47A
8D 18B 28C 38A 48C
9A 19B 29A 39D 49D
10C 20C 30D 40C 50B
Literature 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A – AFRICAN PROSE
FACELESS – AMMA DARKO
Explain Kabira’s presence in the hairdressing salon at Agbogboshie.
Comment on the significance of Sodom and Gomorrah in the novel LONELY DAYS – BAYO ADEBOWALE
3. “No woman’s life is ever complete without a man.” How is this applicable to Yaremi in the novel.
4. Examine the author’s narrative technique in the novel.
SECTION B: NON-AFRICAN PROSE
NATIVE SON – RICHARD WRIGHT
5. Discuss the role of the black clergy in the novel.
6. What have you learned about black life from the conversation between Bigger and Gus at the entrance to the pool room?
THE CASTLE OF OTRANTO – HORACE WALPOLE
7. Comment on the significance of Conrad’s death in the novel.
8. Examine the relationship between Manfred and Hippolita.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers – Literature 2 ANSWERS
SECTION A
Question I
Agbogbloshie market is where Kabria shops for her vegetables. On the Monday following the discovery of Baby T’s body behind a hairdressing salon, she and Fofo get acquainted under curious circumstances; disguised as a boy, the girl has attempted to steal Kabria’s purse. She is moved to rescue the ‘boy’ as a matter of conscience when ‘he’ is about to be lynched by the crowd that apprehend ‘him’, and ‘he’ restores Kabria’s purse.
Earlier at the office of MUTE, the foursome officials – Dina,Vickle, Aggie and Kabria have discussed Fofo and Baby T and reached a consensus that Kabria ought to honour her appointment with Fofo at Agbogbloshie market to get to the bottom of the death of Baby T and Fofo’s predicament.
All the above scenarios trigger Kabria’s visit to the hairdressing salon. Kabria therefore goes to the salon at Ag bogbloshie not to have her hair done, but to primarily conduct investigation to unravel the mystery surrounding the death of Baby T. Therefore, Kabria’s presence in the hairdresser’s salon is purely in her private capacity as an ‘investigative reporter’.
Unfortunately for Kabria, her visit to the salon is initially a disappointment. She is unable to obtain information of any substance from the hairdresser. She is terse: ‘To tell you the truth, my sister, what at all am I supposed to know?’, and she shrugs. ‘Actually I didn’t come to meet the body.” Instead of information about the dead girl behind her salon, the hairdresser pours out her frustration about her broken marriage, which has saddled her with the responsibility to cater for the children of a runaway husband. Kabria wins her sympathy after telling her of a worse situation in her own marriage. She then directs her (Kabria) to see her senior apprentice for some details about the dead girl.
Kabria approaches the hairdresser’s senior apprentice who makes interesting revelations: It appears Baby T is killed somewhere else and the body is dumped near the kiosk. The head of the Kayoyoos says Baby T is not one of them. Three days after the corpse is dumped near the kiosk, pacification rites are performed at the spot by unknown persons. These, among others, leave more questions unanswered on Kabria’s mind. This, however, gingers Kabria and her colleagues into more actions. Eventually, Kabria’s presence at the hairdresser’s salon leads to a host of investigative activities that trace the murder of Baby T to the door step of Poison and Onko.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 2
Sodom and Gomorrah is the seat of the various forms of evil in the world of Faceless. It is that part of the city where people can be said to be faceless and without an identity. It is home for hardened thieves, prostitutes and children driven from home or ones without a home. It is an area that is covered in filth and squalor. A the name implies, the place breeds all sorts of evil in the children who live there. Fofo, Odarley and the others do not leave home already depraved. It is the life at Sodom and Gomorrah that makes them so.
The goings-on in Sodom and Gomorrah are debasing. The best word to describe the morality of Sodom and Gomorrah is “depraved”. The habits of the juvenile inhabitants who engage in acts of debauchery by “drinking bottles of Akpeteshie and watching adult films” are deplorable. Youngsters steal and engage in prostitution for a living in the evil environment. Bullies like poison and Macho terrorise the children, deprive them of their money and even attempt to, and do rape the young helpless girls. There is no way of protecting these vulnerable young people. The early mention of Sodom and Gomorrah in the novel establishes its significance. It is a phenomenon that has “catapulted from the pages of the Old testament to superimpose itself at Agbogbloshie”.
Sodom and Gomorrah is significant in a number of ways. When Kabria goes “to visit Agbogbloshie Market for some garden eggs and tomatoes”, she meets a petty thief from Sodom and Gomorrah, who picks her purse. She saves the life of the pick-pocket who would have been subjected to instant mob justice (lynching).
Another aspect of Sodom and Gomorrah which is significant is its sustenance by those who profit from it. The coming of children into the streets and their living in Sodom and Gomorrah appear unstoppable. This is because of the activities of the likes of Maami Broni and Poison. Sodom and Gomorrah depicts the hopelessness of the situation of children who are driven into the streets and have no prospects for the future. As the children are driven into the street, there are ready receivers who ensure that they stay, and they supervise their abuse. Sodom and Gomorrah is also significant in as far as no steps seem to be taken by the powers that be to intervene. Sodom and Gomorrah cries for cleansing but the state machinery does not hear or seem to care. The police are silent about, and invisible in, the affairs of the street children. No action is taken when crimes are reported to the police.
But for kabria’s encounter with Fofo, the NGO MUTE would not have come to the rescue of the girl. The support of Harvest FM gives impetus to the MUTE effort. The questions, as to whether this single intervention of the non-governmental organisation is all there can be and whether it suffices, require critical answers. The enquires about the murdered girl found in the gutter receive lukewarm attention from the police.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 3
Yaremi, a beautiful widow in her early fifties in Kufi, has recently lost her husband, Ajumobi. Their children, all grown up including Alani, the only son, have left home. Women I Kufi, by tradition, are only considered complete when they are part of a couple, even if they are the second or third wife. In the unfortunate event of the death of a husband, a woman is expected to re-marry.
Yaremi, being the strong-wilted woman she is, decides against re-marriage to any of the available suitors. Nine months after the death of her husband, Yaremi is still without another husband, to the chagrin of the men in Kufi, who she tells she is “neither a napkin nor a rag to clean up mess with”. Hence, she rejects all the caps of the three suitors who want to marry her.
With that firmly established, she then directs her energy towards filling the void left by Ajumobi’s death. She decides to work hard, doing manual jobs to fill in the long hours of her lonely days under the hot sun. She does the farm work, cleans the family compound, dries maize grains, uproots cassava tubers for the goats, cooks, fetches water and firewood and does other household chores alongside her main job of buying and selling taffeta cloth in the market. Even so, there are certain jobs for which she requests assistance from the village men like Uncle Deyo. She still needs her husband to eat the food she prepares. She also needs, she realises, a husband to eliminate the termites, red ants and rats around the house.
Yaremi also longs for her husband’s touch and his deep manly voice. In her loneliness, she dreams about him often and imagines he has come to visit her. She misses their quarrels and prays for him to return as it is impossible for her to forget certain events.
She tells Segi: ‘Your father was to me like the mighty Baobab, King of Savannah, towering above ten thousand lesser trees around, protecting me under its cool shade… But death was cruel. It came like the harmattan blaze, to strip me of my only dress, my Baobab, leaving me to stand alone in mournful nakedness. Thus, despite Yaremi’s determination to stand against tradition in her refusal to re-marry, she realises that desirability of being part of a couple, as long as her husband is Ajumobi.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 4
The author tells his story from the third person point of view. With this omniscient perspective, he demonstrates his skill in observing people and events very closely and passing appropriate comments on them.
One remarkable feature of the author’s technique is his drawing very deeply very deeply from the African oral tradition in his narrative. This is evident in Yaremi’s folk tales about such animals as the tortoise that often overreaches itself in its own wiles and cunning, the antelope that often falls on its own pride and gluttonous baboon that dies from its rapacious greed. There is also the use of incantation as shown by both Ajum obi and Yaremi to neutralise the evil machinations of their perceived enemies.
The author employs flashback as Yaremi, on a good number of occasions, recalls the halcyon days with her late husband and eulogises his sterling qualities as a husband and his prowess as a hunter. Another feature employed in the narration is dialogue. Instances are the exchanges between Yaremi and Woye, Yaremi and Ajumobi, Yaremi and her Suitors, the widows on their way from the river, etc. Indeed, the use of figurative language permeates the entire work. References can be made to the cap-picking ceremony where the suitors’ personalities, etc., are delineated. Also significant is the use of words or expressions drawn from the local language. Often, these put emphasis on tradition and folklore, thereby adding colour to the setting. There is also the use of traditional songs.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B
Question 5
Rev. Hammond is a black clergyman of Bigger’s mother’s church. Hence, he represents the black clergy and religion in the novel.
He visits Bigger in his cell. As soon as Bigger recognises him, he is on guard against him. Bigger fears the pastor will make him feel remorseful and wants to tell him to go but cannot speak.
Reverend Hammond kneels on the concrete floor to pray for the salvation of Bigger’s soul. He repeatedly refers to Bigger as ‘poor boy’, seeing Bigger as a sinner who needs salvation. As the words of the pastor’s prayer register themselves in Bigger’s consciousness, they make him remember his mother’s voice telling of suffering, hope and love beyond the world. This makes Bigger feel condemned and guilty.
Bigger hates the clergyman’s creed and wishes he will stop praying. He cannot repeat any of the preacher’s words, but they make him (Bigger) feel like leaping up to strike him. Before he leaves, Reverend Hammond gives Bigger a wooden cross, trying to make him believe that life is all suffering. This, Bigger rejects in his heart.
The visit and the prayer of the black clergyman expose the hypocritical attitude of the black church and its attitude of capitulating to the situation of its members. It is ironical that the church cannot even engage the services of a lawyer for Bigger, which is what he needs at this time. This, Reverend Hammond knows as he tells Jan that if anybody needs help, then Bigger does.
The clergy contrasts Jan, not only in race and occupation, but in his belief in what man needs in life. Jan forgives Bigger and engages a lawyer to defend him now. But Reverend Hammond thinks of the hereafter. Bigger’s case needs prompt and immediate attention, but the clergyman offers freedom of the soul, whilst Jan offers immediate and prompt attention.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 6
Bigger leaves home that fateful morning to avoid his mother’s incessant nagging about the family’s poor living condition and his not able to be of any help. She warns him against his continued involvement with the gang and prophesies doom for him if he disregards her warning. He heads for the pool room where he feels more at ease. He meets Gus, a member of the gang at the entrance and they drift into a conversation.
Their conversation reveals much about the living conditions of the black people. It exposes their forced segregated lives, their exclusion from participation in the political, military and commercial life of white America, as well as their bottled up frustration which stir up anger in some of them. We learn, for instance, that blacks live under very poor conditions. As Bigger and Gus observe and appreciate nature, i.e., the warm day, both reflect on the poor heating system in their homes. Though their landlords ‘don’t give much heat, they always demand rent.
They reflect also on their segregated lives, which bother them a lot. Bigger observes that whites live “over across the line, over there on Cottage Grove Avenue”. Explaining the source of their bitterness, he intones: “We live here, and they live there, we black and they white. They get things and we ain’t. They do things and we can’t.” Accounting for his feeling, he says. “I feel like I’m on the outside of the world peeping in through a knot-hole in the fence.”
Bigger and Gus refer also to the power structure in American society, from the presidency to the military, business and commerce. Their simulation of a telephone conversation between the president of the United States and his secretary of state on the one hand, and J.P. Morgan, a business mogul and someone else is also revealing. It is revealed that the president’s secretary of state is more ready to attend a cabinet meeting about ” the niggers raising sand all over the country” than one involving Germans. And J. P. Morgan is prepared to “sell twenty thousand shares of US steel, a mind-boggling figure. That kinds of business transaction is way beyond blacks to do.
These show the extent to which whites suppress to put blacks in their place. Blacks are also prevented from aspiring to do anything worthwhile, “They get the chance to do everything”, but “they don’t let us do anything.” Whereas the whites, like the pigeon, can go wherever they want, the blacks are restricted in their movements. The conversation reveals two contrasting attitude of the blacks towards their situation in the novel. Some blacks, like Gus, are resigned to their fate. Others, like Bigger, breed anger in themselves against the system.
Thus, the conversation gives a microscopic view of black life in the novel.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 7
Conrad’s death is significant both in its contribution to plot development and also to character delineation. Conrad, son and heir of Manfred, dies when he is mysteriously crushed by a gigantic stone helmet. He does not really appear as a character in the novel but is very important and his death has a direct influence on the major actions in the novel.
Conrad is supposed to marry Isabella, daughter of Frederic. Frederic is, in actual fact, the real heir to the Castle of Otranto. Manfred arranges the marriage between Conrad and Isabella in order to unite the two factions claiming rights to Otranto. Conrad’s death puts paid to Manfred’s attempt to consolidate his own position through his son. Thus, he turns his attention to other means to attain his goal. This sets into motion a chain of events which culminate in his downfall and the restoration of the Castle of Otranto to Theodore who is declared as the true heir of the castle. The prophecy that the castle will be restored to its rightful heir “whenever the owner should be grown too large to inhabit it” is thus fulfilled.
Isabella’s repugnance at the idea of her marrying Manfred, after his proposed divorce of his wife, Hippolita, leads her to run away from the castle to the church of St. Nicholas, to seek the protection of Friar Jerome. This action is in itself significant since it brings the holy father into direct conflict with Manfred. This advances the plot as it creates the occasion for the Manfred to sin further by challenging the spiritual powers.
Conrad’s death also introduces Theodore into the action of the novel. Theodore’s explanation on discovery of the dead Conrad generates a conflict between him and Manfred. Theodore’s alliance with Isabella complicates the novel’s plot further. Manfred mistakenly believes that the two are in love much to his annoyance as he regards it as an affront to his authority. The stage is therefore set for the final confrontation in the novel which results in Manfred’s downfall and the return of the Castle of Otranto to its rightful heir.
Conrad’s death also contributes to the delineation of Manfred’s character. It exposes Manfred’s depravity and his capacity for evil machinations. Conrad’s death leaves him with only one option as he sees it to consolidate his hold on the castle. When his attempt to obtain Isabella’s consent to marry him by manipulation and subterfuge fails, he resorts to violence. His lechery and unscrupulousness are accentuated by Conrad’s removal from the scene, and he is exposed for what he really is. With the introduction of Theodore immediately after Conrad’s death, a formidable opponent to Manfred’s evil plans emerges.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 8
Manfred, the Prince of Otranto, is married to Hippolita, a lady he later points out to be a distant relation of his. They have two children, Matilda, their eighteen-year old daughter and Conrad, their fifteen-year-old son. Hippolita is described as “an amiable lady” and is presented in the novel as a subservient wife who treats her husband with utmost respect. Her love for and dedication to her husband is not reciprocated. This is so because Manfred’s attitude towards her is one of utter disdain, though he himself says of her, “true, I honour Hippolita’s virtue, I think her a saint…”.
In the first place, he does not take her suggestions into consideration. When Manfred hatches the plot for the marriage between Conrad and Isabella, Hippolita calls his attention to the fact that Conrad, their ailing son, is too young to marry. Manfred responds by blaming her inability to give him more than one heir. The marriage plan ends disastrously with the mysterious death of Conrad on the wedding day.
Manfred’s inhumane treatment of his wife only intensifies after Conrad’s death. Hippolita, on recovering from the initial shock at the news, demands regular updates on her “lord” – the way she refers to Manfred. Manfred, on the other hand, does not even mention his wife or daughter, as the first words he utters to the ladies in the chapel after the incident are: “Take care of the Lady Isabella”. Hippolita sends Matilda, their daughter to see how Manfred is coping with his loss. When Matilda attempts to do so, she cannot find words to explain to her mother the ‘bitter’ reception she has received from her father, on her return to Hippolita.
Hippolita, on her part, registers her disappointment that Manfred has not requested to see her when she says mournfully: “But will he not let me see him? Will he not permit me to blend my tears with his, and shed a mother’s sorrow in the bossom of her lord?” She is also worried that Conrad’s tragic death must have affected Manfred very badly and demands that she be taken to see him, when she says to her maids: “Raise me, my maidens; I will see my lord. Bear me to him instantly: He is dearer to me than my children.” It is heart-rending that Manfred does not care or ask to see his wife but sends to summon Isabella instead. Hippolita, in her innocence, thinks that Manfred is apprehensive of meeting herself and Matilda and that, that is why he chooses to send for Isabella instead. She tells Isabelia, “Console him, dear Isabella and tell him I will smother my own anguish rather than add to his”.
This is contrary to an ideal marriage relationship situation where, at least, both the husband and wife show concern for each other. Little does Hippolita know that Manfred is desirous to propose to Isabella. She trusts her husband very much. When Isabella, on hearing the proposal, flees the castle, Manfred is in hot pursuit of her. Recognising Manfred’s footsteps on the stairs, Hippolita hastily goes out anxious to meet him for the first time after son’s death. He pushes her “rudely off’ demanding to know Isabella’s whereabouts and even mentions Hippolita is jealous of Isabella. Hippolita, though surprised at this utterance, being the obedient wife she is, carries out Manfred’s orders to send her chaplain to him. Hippolita later tells Manfred that the ‘gigantic leg’ is just a figment of the imagination. Manfred is relieved but his attitude towards his wife does not improve; in fact, it gets worse.
Relying on Hippolita s submissiveness, Manfred plots to divorce her and marry Isabella. When Friar Jerome comes with information on Isabella, Manfred sees the opportunity to get him to dissolve his marriage to Hippolita so he could marry Isabella, his once proposed daughter-in-law. When he insists that Hippolita should not be part of the discussion, she quickly obeys. Manfred, as villainous as he is, pleads with the Friar to dissolve their marriage on the grounds that it was ill-contracted as Hippolita is his relative, but the Friar refuses to do. Hippolita comes up with a proposal to end the deadlock that fails to materialise. When
Isabella protests about such a proposal, she says to her,
“Hold, you must not in my presence, young lady, mention Manfred with disrespect: he is my lord and my husband.’ Hippolita is there till the very end to support Manfred when he is expelled from Otranto. It is evident that the relationship between Manfred and his wife is strange and appears to be an unhappy one for Hippolita.
Literature 3: Drama and Poetry
SECTION A: AFRICAN DRAMA
THE BLOOD OF A STRANGER – DELE CHARLEY
1. How does the love for wealth and power influence the actions of the characters in the play?
2. Assess Santigi’s reign as King of Mando land.
HARVEST OF CORRUPTION – FRANK OGODO OGBECHE
3. Comment on the proceedings of the Wasa High Court of Justice.
4. Consider Aloho as a foil to Ogeyi.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B: NON-AFRICAN DRAMA
A RAISIN IN THE SUN – LORRAINE HANSBERRY
5. What is the significance of Karl Lindner’s visits to the Youngers?
6. Trace the transformation of Walter “into his manhood” in the play?
SHE STOOPS TO CONQUER – OLIVER GOLDSMITH
7. Examine the importance of the jewels in the play.
8. Assess the role of Tony Lumpkin in the play.
SECTION C: AFRICAN POETRY
9. Examine the use of contrast in Okara’s “Piano and Drums”.
10. Comment on the mood of the poet in “Ambush.”
SECTION D: NON-AFRICAN POETRY
11. How does the poet present death as a voyage in “Crossing the Bar”?
12. Examine Blake’s use of diction in The School Boy.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Literature 3 ANSWERS
Question 1
Some of the characters demonstrate love for money, i.e. greed and ambition, throughout the play. Whitehead, the whiteman and stranger, Maligu, the king’s adviser, and Soko, the village shrine priest, are three of the characters that demonstrate this vice. Their sole objective is to get rich. Whitehead comes to Mando land intending to plunder the wealth of the people and carry away their diamonds, under the pretext of tobacco farming.
Greed sets in when Maligu and Soko begin to lose trust in one another and plan to get rid of each other for the greater advantage of the diamond wealth. The three want Kondo, the son of the king of Mando land and head of the warriors, out of the way for them to succeed in their plan. Kindo recognises it when he tells Maligu to “pray for greed and ambition not to destroy” him. Whitehead also wants Parker, an African who acts as his secretary and as assistant interpreter, and Soko killed as they do not exactly fit into his plan beyond using them to achieve his aim. When Maligu stands the chance to save Whitehead from death on his hands, he betrays him and simply thanks him for the diamond wealth that now apparently belongs to him alone. It is clear that some of the major characters of the play do not show concern for the good of all in Mando land but for themselves alone.
Question 2
Santigi reigns in a time of peace, the people of Mando land having come out of previous wars with neighbouring tribes. Assisted by Maligu his ‘wise counsellor’ and Soko, the priest, and his son who is Chief of the Warriors, he appears to be heading towards a quiet and peaceful death in his dotage (old age). However, Santigi’s kingdom is suddenly ruffled by the news of Soko’s contrived divination of a white stranger appeared in the land. Aided and abetted by Maligu and Soko, the whiteman, symbolically, called Mr. Whitehead, who has sent his messenger/secretary (interpreter…,), Mr. Parker (for short) before him, appears, much against the custom of the people and does not pay his respects to the king upon arrival, which is also against custom. Kindo the king’s son, points this out, but his appeal is ignored by the king who rigidly insists on things being done according to custom.
Whitehead’s arrival in Mando land bodes no good for the people of Mando land under Santigi’s reign. In complicity with Maligu and Soko, he deceives the King (urged on by Soko and Maligu) that he brings prosperity to Mando land through the introduction of tobacco farming, when his real interest is the land’s diamond. Kindo, who suspects his real motive, which is exploiting the diamond resource of the land, is never listened to by his father, the king. Thus, Santigi’s reign is characterised by the violation of custom after custom; for instance, the custom which forbids the people to smoke tobacco (Maligu, Soko and the king indulge in this pastime). Later, the people become addicted to tobacco, alcohol and hard drugs and, as reported by Kindo, the men and women engage in sexual orgies, as societal norms and restrictions are abandoned “in the name of happiness under the very eyes of Santigi”. A normally self-sustaining farming people lose the will to work hard and embrace laziness, rather.
Things do not improve, even at this stage, as Whitehead and his accomplices, Maligu and Soko, single out Kindo, the King’s son, as the main obstacle to pursuing their greed for money and wealth. They hatch a plot which receives the king’s support. To atone for the arrival of the stranger within, there should be a sacrifice involving “the blood of a stranger born in another place”. Soko interprets this as being the blood of a virgin. Wara, Kindo’s woman, is chosen. However, such is the distrust between the accomplices that Soko spares Wara’s life and on the day of the sacrifice, Kindo kills Parker, Whitehead’s secretary, who then becomes the sacrificial lamb. Santigi sits on his throne unaware of the demands of his own custom and acquiesces to Wara being sacrificed instead. It takes Kindo to expose the grand deception and the killing of Whitehead to stop the descent into the depravity that has engulfed the people. Ironically, Kindo’s banishment is sanctioned by his own father, King Santigi, according to custom.
Here, therefore, is a kind who, though old and insistent on tradition, has no high moral integrity to show in his violation of custom for money. Instead of protecting his people from outside negative influence, he superintends a corrupt and effete society which is unlikely to improve under an equally corrupt Maligu, if he should die and Klndo is unable to return from banishment. When it emerges that it is Parker who has been sacrificed instead, Whitehead calls for the enforcement of the tradition which prescribes death for anybody who kills in peace time. Whitehead in turn dies on Kindo’s sword, accidentally.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 3
Investigations into the activities of Chief Haladu Ade¬Amaka are already in progress when Ogeyl goes to the police on account of her friend Aloha. Her story helps the police to wrap up their investigations and prefer charges against Chief and five others, including Ochuole, at Wasa High Court of Justice presided over by Judge. It appears that only a fraction of the Minister’s sins against the state and some people is known. According to Judge, “For all the atrocities you must have perpetrated in this country under the cover of Minister, which have not been detected, I say nothing.” Chief then faces four counts of embezzlement, involving 1.2 billion naira and 5.8 million naira (two counts); dealing in cocaine and corrupting a public officer.
Prosecution Counsel clearly outlines the role of the pOlice in their investigation and what makes each accused person culpable. Inspector Inaku’s evidence is clear and concise. What triggers police investigation is set down as “Miss Ogeyi Ogar and the Jacassan Flash of 21st June, 1997”. Following the newspaper report, the inspector goes to the Ministry and bribes Mr. Ayo to get access to official documents. By the inspector’s own admission, Mr. Ayo does not ask for a bribe; rather, the Clerical Officer “promised to cooperate after I enticed him with the sum of two thousand naira”. This show of zeal is wrong. The law seems to be that both the giver and the receiver of a bribe are criminals. One would expect; then, that the court reprimand or even sentence Inspector lnaku once Mr. Ayo goes in for five years.
In her evidence, Ogeyi clearly tells Aloho’s story and firmly incriminates Chief. Her reason for going to the police is consistent with her love for her late friend; failing to persuade Aloho not to abort the pregnancy, she “was moved to go to the police to relate the story”. However, Chief lies on oath, alleging that the “cocaine had been put there to incriminated” him. In the end, the court does not believe him and his breaking down avails him nothing. Of the two, Ogeyi is found credible by the court. Both counsels do their work to the best of their abilities. Prosecution Counsel notes and draws attention to Defence Counsel’s “cleverly weaving the evidence of the prosecution to confuse this honourable court”. He draws the court’s attention to the relevant flaws in the case of the defence and leaves the rest to the judge and the jury. The judge sums up succinctly and his guiding of the jury is balanced.
On the whole, the proceedings go well and the verdict arising from the evidence appears to be satisfactory.
WASSCE 2018 LITERATURE PAST QUESTIONS
Question 4
Aloho and ogeyi are friends from their university days. They are both pretty, slim and of average height. While Aloho is dark-skinned, Ogeyi is fair. They are both born-again Christians. Years after their graduation, Ogeyi secures a job with the ABC Company as a receptionist, while Aloho is still searching for employment. Ogeyi, though not that well off, is very benevolent. She does not only accommodate and feed Aloho, she encourages her to be patient and not lose faith in God.
When Aloho comes homes with the promise of a ‘bogus’ job by a ‘notorious friend’, Ogeyi counsels caution, but in Aloho’s frustration and desperation, she flouts Ogeyi’s advice and accepts the job of a protocol officer in the Ministry of External Relations.
Ogeyi does not give up in her preachings; she tries to dissuade Aloho, but her words fall on a deaf ear as the glitter of the good life eggs Aloho on. Aloho soon finds herself in police custody for trafficking drugs. As soon as she is cleverly acquitted and discharged through the corrupt string-pulling of Chief Ade-Amaka, Aloho discovers that she is pregnant. She attempts to abort the pregnancy but fails due to her nightmarish dreams, Dr. Chukwuma the gynaecologist’s evasive delay tactics and Ogeyi’s fervent dissuasion.
In her cornered and remorseful situation, she finally returns to her family, but later dies in childbirth, though the baby survives.
Ogeyi launches into action to seek justice for her friend’s death. She testifies boldly in court against Chief Ade-Amaka, helping to bring him to his deserved “harvest”. Thus, one can conclude that Aloho is a foil to Ogeyi, as her actions accentuate the wonderful qualities that Ogeyi is endowed with.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 5
Karl Lindner is a whiteman. He visits the Younger home twice on the same day. The purpose of his visits is to persuade the Youngers not to move into the house that Mama has bought in Clybourne Park for the family: These visits are significant for understanding some aspects of the world of the play. The day Lindner goes to see the Youngers they are preparing to move. “The Man” meets Beneatha, Ruth and Walter. Mama is out. Lindner’s mission is simple: The Clybourne Park Improvement Association has sent him to let ” you people” know that they do not want the Younger family in the neighbourhood, for the whitemen there come from “a common background” to which the Youngers are unwanted aliens. He assures Walter that the” overwhelming majority of our people out there feel that people get along better, take more of a common interest in the life of the community when they share a common background.” For that reason, the whitemen want “to buy the house from you at a financial gain to your family.” The mission fails as Walter orders Lindner out of the house. As he goes out perplexed, Lindner leaves his card.
Lindner’s second visit is at the invitation of Walter. Ostensibly, Walter wants to seal the deal of the sale of the house. But this does not happen. Walter has been inspired by his mother’s fighting spirit to reject the offer of Lindner with finality. Lindner, of course, does not understand fully as he departs. These visits are significant for understanding the Negro experience and the black-white relationship in America. Bobo’s intervening report of the loss of the family money that Walter has handed over to Willy Harris for the liquor business gives the family a philosophical outlook. Walter learns from here and takes the bold decision. It will be incompatible with the family’s pride to agree to sell the house since “ain’t nobody in my family never let anybody pay ’em no money that was a way of telling us we wasn’t fit to walk the earth.” This is how succinctly Mama explains what Lindner seeks to do. Because “we ain’t never that poor “, the family must stick to its purpose and move into the new house. Mama is larger than life, as they say, and her stand establishes her as such.
The speed with which waiter picks the import of the philosophy is astonishing. This is a proud, family and must hang on hope with tenacity. It is this that makes Walter decline Lindner’s offer with finality and for which Mama commends Walter as having ‘finally come into his manhood’. Though Lindner protests that his visit and the Clybourne Park residents’ resistance to the Younger family’s occupation of the property has no racial implications or racist undertones, that is not what the visit shows. The whiteman wishes to have little to do with the Negro as a neighbour. It is Lindner’s conviction and that of the white community in CLybourne Park that “our Negro families are happier when they live in their own communities”. Lindner’s visits, therefore, reveal the reality of white rejection of Negroes as neighbours and the determination of the Negroes to improve the circumstances of their life at all cost.
WASSCE 2018 LITERATURE PAST QUESTIONS
Question 6
Walter, as a man, should have been head of the Younger family. Yet, it is Mama who has been at the helm of affairs from the outset. Not satisfied with his station in life, Walter is preoccupied with his dream of making it big through the investment of money that is not his own. He dreams constantly of becoming a self-made man with the backing of his wife, while complaining that no one understands him. Several times he has proved a disappointment to Mama. Uncaring about what goes on around him, Walter gets a good opportunity of showing himself as the worthy man his mother expects his mother expects him to be when his wife decides to have an abortion. Typically, he is not even aware of his wife’s condition until Mama tells him. Mama urges him to take the bull by the horns and speak firmly to his wife and talk her out of her decision. He falters in this and, bitterly disappointed, Mama calls him a “a disgrace to your father’s memory”.
When George Murchison calls to take Beneatha out, Walter is inexplicably rude to the young man. He will not leave them alone despite Ruth’s many attempts to have him behave civilly. George aptly describes him as “all whacked up with bitterness”. On his part, Walter goes on and on about his vision and his being little understood.
Unable to see the wisdom in Mama’s buying the house with the insurance money, Walter becomes bitter. He is rude at home and even absents himself from work. Hurt because his mother will not approve his liquor business intentions, he gets another chance to prove worthy as head of family “like you supposed to be”, when Mama entrusts the remainder of the insurance money to him with specific instructions. Walter speedily goes and hands all of it over to Willy Harris who takes off with the money.
The final opportunity to become the man he should be comes when he rejects Lindner’s offer to buy Mama’s new home. Bobo’s report that Willy has bolted with the money shows that the family has no more of the precious insurance money left. This makes the prospects of moving into 406 Clybourne Street in the white neighbourhood of Clybourne Park particularly bleak and precarious.
The man in Walter emerges, however, and he invites Lindner over. Under a show of accepting the whiteman’s offer to buy out the family, and contrary to the family’s fears, he rejects the offer. He tells Lindner. “We have decided to move into our house don’t want your money”. All this while, Mama has been showing her approval, “as though she were in church with her head nodding the amen yes”. Thus, from a spineless dreamer and loafer, Walter transforms into a responsible head of the sixth generation Younger family. Henceforth, things look secure in his hands.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 7
The jewels in the play refers to the box of jewels that is Constance Neville’s inheritance left in the care of Mrs. Hardcastle, her aunt. Mrs. Hardcastle does not want to release the jewels to the rightful owner, Constance. She intends to keep such inheritance in her family. Therefore, she covers up this intention by forcing Constance to marry Tony, her mischievous son.
Constance is wise enough to play along with Mrs. Hardcastle by letting her “suppose that I am in love with her son and she never once dreams that my affections are fixed upon another”. Hastings is the one Constance loves and not Tony. Tony, on his part, prefers Bet Bouncer to Constance. Because he is aware of his mother’s plan to rob Constance of her inheritance, he agrees to be in love with his cousin, Constance, in the presence of his materialistic mother.
Constance Neville is in no way ready to part with her inheritance as she confides in Hastings, her lover. So she pleads with Hastings to bear with her until the moment the jewels are put into her hands; then, their marriage can take place. The more Constance persuades her aunt to allow her access to the jewels, even if for a day, the more Mrs. Hardcastle insists on her marrying Tony. Meanwhile, Hastings discovers that truly Tony prefers Bet Bouncer to Constance. He, therefore, persuades Tony to help steal the jewels from his mother.
Mrs. Hardcastle tells Tony to bear false witness before Constance, that the jewels are missing. Ironically, the jewels are indeed missing because Tony has given them to Hastings to enable him elope with Constance. Hastings immediately gives the jewels to Young Marlow for safe-keeping who, in turn, gives them to Mrs. Hardcastle for safe¬keeping too. Tony inform his mother that jewels are stolen. The mother then goes to check and discovers that the jewels are really missing. She raises an alarm that she’s robbed but Marlow tells her that the jewels are with him and gives her the jewels. The jewels help to accentuate the irony, comedy and indeed the mistakes of the night in advancing the plot. Through the jewels, Hasting and Constance’s plan of elopement is exposed. The jewels bring out the selfish and materialistic character of Mrs. Hardcastle.
Question 8
Tony Lumpkin is the older child in the Hardcastle family. He is Mrs. Hardcastle’s child by her first marriage. He is a spoilt child, thanks to his mother’s permissive ways towards him. Obviously, Mr. Hardcastle would have been of help in bringing up Tony Lumpkin properly, but his wife will not allow it. He enjoys making practical jokes.
In the first place, Tony loves to spend his time among the commoners in the village tavern. He is there when Young Marlow and Hastings come looking for their way to the Hardcastles. Tony takes this opportunity to pay his stepfather back for calling him names all the time. He misdirects the visitors, describing the Hardcastle home as an inn. This deception brings about exciting incidents in the plot. Young Marlow and Hastings go to the Hardcastles’ house thinking it is an inn and the many mistakes of that night unfold, including the first meeting between Kate and Young Marlow.
Secondly, when Tony learns that Hastings means to elope with his cousin, Miss Neville, whom his mother has been busily courting for him, he is more than willing to steal her jewels for her to enable her elope with Hastings. Tony succeeds in this, and gives the jewels to Hastings who in turn gives them to Marlow for safekeeping. Mistakenly, Marlow hands over the jewels to Mrs. Hardcastle. As a result of this, Mrs. Hardcastle decides Miss Neville must go and live with Aunt Pedigree at Crackskul Common.
Again, it is Tony Lumpkin who comes to the rescue of the lovers. He drives the carriage carrying his mother round and round pretending they are on the way to Aunt Pedigree. They end up close to where they set out from and later Hastings has to make a formal proposal to Miss Neville to settle matters.
To conclude, Tony Lumpkin seems to be the pivot around which the plot of the comedy develops. Any time he appears, a new event begins or a situation is saved.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 9
Contrast is a device used to juxtapose opposing ideas or structures for effect. The poem makes extensive use of contrast to elucidate the theme of cultural difference between the African and the Western culture. The very title of the poem presents two contrasting musical instruments, a piano and drums. The former represents European culture while the latter, the African culture. The poet uses these contrasting musical instruments to comment on their effects on him. The drums are simple and easy to play. On the other hand, the piano requires more effort to master. Auditorily, the drums are “pulsing” while the piano “wails”. The drums invoke memories of a past gone by – a past of “hunters crouched with spears”, a simple life filled with dances. The piano, on the other hand, speaks of “complex ways”, “faraway lands” and the poet being “lost in the labyrinth of its complexities”.
At the symbolic level, contrast is used as a device to sharpen the differences between the cultures, and to convey the poet’s attitude towards both. Interestingly, the poet devotes the first two stanzas to drums while only one stanza is assigned to the piano. This contrast in structure suggests his bias. It shows his sincere interest in the ways of his people. In each stanza, the poet examines the sound of the instrument and its effects on him. The piano is “wailing” and speaks of “faraway lands” and complex ways, none of which the poet deciphers, leaving him confused. The last stanza portrays the poet as one caught between the influence of two cultures. However, the force of the drums seems overwhelming and it tilts him towards the African culture.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 10
“Ambush” portrays a society under siege. The isolation of the people pre-empts peace or prosperity. The powers-that-be appear to hold their subjects in a vice-like grip. By the use of powerful imagery and symbols, the poet unveils his mood despondency in his deprived and gloomy circumstances. This is also the mood of the citizens of the land, who, individually and collectively, are denied any means or opportunities of improving their lot. By whatever means imaginable (by sea, land or air), various agents, allies of “the land”.(the autocracy) reinforce the deprivation of the people. The people’s means of livelihood is obliterated; they are frightened and intimidated; their very existence is threatened. Above all, they dare not seek relief outside the land. Through the metaphor of the “giant whale”, the poet conveys the miserable picture of the people’s chance of earning any livelihood being put paid to.
The image of angling conveys this vividly, for the land swallows the angler’s hook, line and sinker, thus “aborting dreams of a good catch”. Thus, the people are bereft of hope and expectation as their desires dwindle. The metaphor of the sea serves to convey the harsh restriction imposed on the people. The people are also held in terror unleashed by another agent of “the land” by land. The frightful tiger keeps the whole population in fear. None is exempted: both the old and the young dare not exhibit any bravado, nor venture out at night. This is how the “land” denies the people any escape by land.
The function of the agent that hovers overhead is to heighten the people’s fear and invite chaos on them. The hawk continuously ‘courts’ ruin for the land with its “hoots in space”. The impossibility of attempting to escape without being picked up is made certain by the hawk’s presence. Matters are sealed for the poor masses as -local forces are harnessed and the “land lies patiently ahead/awaiting in ambush” for its own kith and kin. The purpose of the ambush is not to protect the people from invaders. Rather, it is to frustrate any attempt to escape for relief elsewhere. In the homeland, “where nothing happens”, the signs of want are apparent and the people need to migrate “toward the shore of possibilities”. But they dare not. The hopeless and frustrating circumstances of the poet make him utterly exasperated and depressed. Thus, the mood of hopelessness and frustration permeates the poem.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 11
In the poem, death is presented as the end of life on earth and the start of man’s return to his maker. The metaphor of a voyage appropriately describes this transition. The symbols marking the end of life are “sunset and evening star”. These constitute “one clear call for me”. Thus, the persona knows when his life has come to an end and he needs only to embark gladly on the voyage home. Death, therefore, is not to be feared. The barrier between the mortal world and the world of eternity is the human body. This is represented by the sand bar. At death, one’s spirit leaves the mortal body and is free to go “home”. Without death, the spirit is not freed to set off. This makes death inevitable.
Death is described as the final extinguishing of the light of life. It is when the light is gone that one sets out to board the eternity-bound vessel. This is captured succinctly as:
“Twilight and evening bell And after that the dark!”
The symbols appropriately echo the earlier symbols, marking the end of life:
“Sunset and evening start And one clear call for me!”
The certainty of death and the obvious final signposts are clearly put down in the poem. After death, the spirit is transported across the waves as it “turns again home”. On crossing the bar, the spirit passenger boards the ship and must be introduced to the Captain, that is, “see my Pilot face to face”.
The prospect of death and actually dying are not frightful, sorrowful or regrettable. They are all in the scheme of our mortality. As for the persona, he can take these in his stride. However, his experience has been that survivors do mourn for the dead. This is not necessary. He urges survivors of the dead thus:
“And may there be no sadness of farewell
When I embark.”
His hope, which is almost a certainty, is that, when he has “crossed the bar” (died), he will be quite safe meeting his “Pilot” who will take him to his destination, however far it is and however long the voyage lasts. Through effective metaphors and imagery, death is presented as the inevitable close of the chapter of living on earth and the opening of the way “again home”.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 12
‘Diction’ refers to the poet’s choice of words and expressions and how he uses them to impact the theme. Regarding theme, the poem deals with the restrictions imposed by the adults upon children’s natural freedom, as these stifle their natural growth and development. Blake uses the natural rhythm of speech to convey this theme, particularly as he allows the boy to express himself in his own language, as much as possible. Apart from the rhymed stanzas, most of the lines read like colloquial speech. The following examples illustrate the point. In stanza one, the boy expresses his love of summer in the words: “I love to rise in a summer morn”. Then in stanza two, he expresses his unhappiness about going to school in the line,” Oh it drives all joy away”. Many more lines are couched in such monosyllabic words.
In addition to the above expressions, it can be said that the very words used in the poem are simple. Indeed, the longest word used in the entire poem is “mellowing” which is made up of three syllables. Words associated with spring and summer are used to describe the seasons positively. They include “sing”, ‘joy” “sweet company”, “blossom” and soon. The focus of the poem being summer, such words express the boy’s delight in being associated with its activities. Similarly, in referring to spring time, he refers to “bud” and “blossom”. However, words associated with school do not have positive associations. In school, the boy talks about “sighing” and “dismay” and “dropping”. The teachers are “a cruel eye outworn” and school, which should be “learning’s bower” has become a “dreary shower”, The boy associates his misery with that of a “bird caged” and unable to “sing” or with that of a tender plant that has been “stripped” of its leaves, or with that of “buds that have been nipped before they blossom”.
Indeed, there are many more negative words and expressions in the poem. These illustrate the boy’s melancholic mood as he laments his inability to enjoy summer because of the insensitivity of his parents to his feelings and natural inclinations by sending him to school. However, beyond this meaning is one larger, which is the need to give children the opportunity to be self-expressive, so they can psychologically withstand the crisis of adulthood. It is to the poet’s credit that such profound wisdom is conveyed in the simplicity of the vocabulary or diction.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Commerce 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1. Activities which facilitate commerce include
(a) engaging youths in environmental sanitation (b) funding political campaigns. (c) Providing recreational facilities in communities. (d) Improving road networks.
2. A document through which invitation is extended to the public to subscribe to shares is
(a) articles of association (b) prospectus (c) memorandum of association (d) quotation.
3. One example of a product of the construction industry is a
(a) chair (b) bag of cement (c) piece of cloth (d) television.
4. A person authorized to sell the property of a company in a winding up is
(a) an auctioneer (b) an agent (c) a liquidator (d) a bailee
Use the diagram below to answer questions 5 to 7.
5. The space marked A represents
(a) trading (b) industry (c) occupation (d) advertising
6. The space marked X represents
(a) industry (b) foreign trade (c) home trade (d) production
7. What does the space marked M represent?
(a) Quarrying (b) Manufacturing (c)Agriculture (d)trade
8. The purchase and sale of goods over electronic system is
(a) E-payment (b) E-commerce (c) E-mail (d) E-transfer
9. One disadvantage of a sole proprietorship is
(a) quick decision making (b) unlimited liability. (c) pride of ownership. (d) unlimited source of capital
10. Which of the following is a source of short-term finance to a business?
(a) Hire purchase (b) Overdraft (c) Lease (d) Debenture
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
11. The portion of share capital which the company has asked shareholders to pay is
(a) called-up capital (b) authorized capital (c) paid-up capital (d) unpaid capital
12. Multilateral trade is carried out
(a) between two countries only (b) within many countries (c) among many countries (d) between neighbouring countries only.
13. An association of businesses engaged In both trade and industry is a
(a) co-operative society (b) trade union (c) trust fund (d)chamber of commerce
14. Which of the following statements is true of a debenture?
(a) Its holders receive interest (b) It forms part of company’s authorized capital (c) Its holders are co-owners of the company (d) Its holders control the company.
15.The path through which a product moves from the manufacturer to the consumer is a
(a) channel of communication (b) line of production (c) means of transportation (d) channel of distribution
16. If the opening stock of Ali Ltd is N40,000, cost of goods sold is N48,000 and closing stock is N24,000, its rate of turnover will be
(a) 1.2 times (b) 1.5 times (c)2.0 times (d) 7.5 times
17. A business which requires a certificate of trading in order to commence operation is a
(a) co-operative society (b) private company (c) sole proprietorship (d) public company
18. Exchange of goods in international market which does not involve the use of money is
(a) barter trade (b) entrepot trade (c) counter trade (d) bilateral trade
19. Which of the following features is not associated with a chamber of commerce? It is
(a) Democratically administered (b) an independent association (c) open only to entrepreneurs (d) a voluntary association
20. The reason for sending a proforma invoice to a potential customer is that it is
(a) an indication of the seller’s willingness to grant credit. (b) a polite way of telling the customer to return the goods (c) an invitation to the buyer to buy on hire purchase. (d) a polite way of refusing to sell on credit.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
21. The insurance policy taken to cover dishonesty of accounts personnel of an organisation is
(a) employer’s liability (b) fidelity guarantee (c) life endowment (d) marine insurance
22. which of the following documents is used when goods are being sent by a common carrier?
(a) Delivery note (b) Consignment note (c)Advice note (d) Credit note
23. A put option in the stock exchange is an option
(a) to sell (b) not to sell (c) to buy (d) not to buy
24. The functions of money do not include
(a) store of value (b) medium of exchange (c) double coincidence of wants (d) means of deferred payment
25. A document of title to goods written by the ship owner, specifying that certain goods are being conveyed in the ship is a
(a)bill of sale (b) bill of sight (c) bill of entry (d) bill of lading
26. Informative advertising is aimed at
(a) giving advice on the use of a product (b) influencing customers to buy a product. (c) giving gifts to attract customers (d) encouraging specific customers to buy a product.
27. A cheap means of carrying bulky goods over long distance is by
(a) rail (b) road (c) air (d) pipeline
28. A contract terminated by the occurrence of an event which makes performance impossible is discharge by
(a) breach (b) agreement (c) frustration (d) performance
29. An individual employed to act on behalf of another within a specified guideline is
(a) a jobber (b) an agent (c) a broker (d) a distributor.
30. Which of the following is not a component of the marketing mix?
(a) Price (b) place (c) population (d) Product
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
31. A method of buying in anticipation of price fluctuation in the commodity market is
(a) Speculation (b) arbitrage (c) contango (d) hedging
32. A shipping document detailing the charges for carrying a particular cargo for a specified voyage is
(a) dock warrant (b) freight note (c) bill of lading (d) mate’s receipt
33. Commercial agents who are authorized to keep goods until they are sold are
(a) Factors (b) distributors (c) brokers (d) auctioneers
34. An advertisement method whose objective is to convince customers to buy a product is
(a) informative advertisement (b) persuasive advertisement (c) competitive advertisement (d) mass advertisement
35. A government legislation which ensures that quality goods and services are available to customers is
(a) Hire Purchase Act (b) Copyright Act (c) Price control Act (d) Standard Organisation Act.
36. A bank draft is a cheque draw by a bank on
(a) another bank (b) itself (c) creditors. (d) Customers’ deposits
37. A company is quoted on the stock exchange when its shared are
(a) Put under private placement (b) not for sale to the public. (c) Listed for sale on the exchange. (d) Owned by the government
38. Which of the following functions is not performed by the export promotion council?
(a) Prevention of importation of harmful goods (b) Provision of credit facilities to exporters (c) Provision of technical advice to exporters (d) Creation of export free Zones
39. Activities undertaken to create awareness of a product by giving out samples or gifts is
(a) Marketing mix (b) marketing concepts (c) window display (d) sales promotion
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
40. An advantage of privatizing a firm is that it
(a) becomes more efficient (b) sells good at low prices. (c) Employs more workers. (d)Attracts more customers.
41. The transfer of authority by a superior officer to his subordinate in an organisation is
(a) Controlling (b) decentralization (c) delegation (d) directing
42. The provision of scholarships by a firm to needy students is part of its
(a) Political responsibility (b) economic responsibility (c) social responsibility (d) legal responsibility
43. How many countries form ECOWAS?
(a) 17 (b) 16 (c)15 (d)14
44. Which of the following is a modern means of communication?
(a) Grape vine (b) E-mail (c) whistles (d) Town crier
45. A system of issuing new shared to selected investors instead of the general public is
(a) Public offer (b) Issue by tender (c) offer for sale (d) private placement
46. One of the aims of the European Union is to
(a) ease trade among member countries. (b) Enhance better trade with Africa. (c) enhance free trade with America. (d) offer financial assistance to poor countries
47. The purpose of commercialization is to
(a) Encourage the participation of the private sector. (b) make state-owned firms more efficient. (c) Encourage the flow of foreign capital (d) enables state-owned firms pay tax.
48. The time allowed for loading and unloading a ship at the harbour is
(a) Demurrage (b) tenure (c) lay days (d) dead freight.
49. Interbank indebtedness is settled at the
(a) clearing house (b) money market (c) discount house (d) stock exchange
50. The concern of a marketing manager whose company has adopted the marketing concept is to
(a) Recruit more salesmen (b) make maximum profit. (c) Identify and satisfy customers needs (d) maintain the company’s share of the market.
WASSCE 2018 COMMERCE – ANSWERS
1D 6D 11B 16A 21B 26A 31A 36B 41C 46A
2B 7D 12B 17D 22A 27A 32C 37C 42C 47B
3A 8B 13D 18D 23A 28A 33D 38A 43C 48C
4C 9B 14A 19C 24C 29B 34B 39D 44B 49A
5B l0B 15D 20A 25D 30B 35D 40A 45D 50C
Commerce 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1: (a) List and explain two factors that limit the application of division of labour.
(b) Enumerate two disadvantages of division of labour.
(c) Discuss five advantages of division of labour.
2. (a) Discuss any five factors to be considered by Mr. Touray in locating his shop.
(b) Explain five ways a wholesaler can aid Mr. Touray’s business.
3. In a tabular form, state the differences between public enterprise and public company.
4. (a) Draw up an organisational chart of Adama’s Pure Water Production Ltd.
(b) Briefly state two functions each of the following departments of the company: (i) Accounts (ii) Administration (iii) Marketing (iv) Production
5. (a) Briefly state and explain four ways in which marketing is important to a business.
(b) List and explain four promotional tools Jones Ltd could use.
6. (a) What is second-tier security market?
(b) Discuss four advantages of the second-tier security market.
(c) State five requirements for trading in a second-tier security market.
7. (a) Define a contract.
(b) State and explain four reasons for consumer protection.
8. Use the following information to answer the following questions:
Calculate
(a) The liquid capital for the business
(b) The fixed assets
(c) Teesan Enterprise’s capital or statement of affairs as at 31/10/2010.
(d) The working capital for Teesan Enterprises Ltd.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Commerce 2 ANSWERS
1 a. Factors that limit the application of division of labour
(i) Size of market: The similar the market for the goods to be produced, the smaller the scope for division of labour
(ii) Production method/Technology: If the method of production cannot be subdivided into various parts, the scope of division of labour would be limited.
(iii) Nature of commodities: Production of customized goods and direct services does not lead itself to intensive division of labour
(iv) Non-availability of capital: Non-availability of sufficient capital to purchase materials and to pay salaries and wages will limit or discourage division of labour.
(v) Non availability of required skilled labour: This will make division of labour impossible
1b. Disadvantages of division of labour
(i) It takes away the division discretion of workers thus making the mere tenders of machines/loss of craftsmanship.
(ii) It leads to monotony as a result of repetitive performance of a job.
(iii) It expresses workers to the risk of being immobile among different jobs/risk of unemployment.
(iv) It may lead to non-accomplishment of some tasks because of the absence of certain workers/interdependence of workers.
1c. Advantages of division of labour
(i) Each worker is able to specialize in a productive activity that is his area of expertise.
(ii) The worker acquires more skills through repetitive practice on the job.
(iii) It saves time as workers are not moved from one job to another.
(iv) It facilities the use of machinery in production.
(v) It helps in creating employment opportunities as different parts of a job.
(vi) It promotes friendly relationship as workers depend on one another.
(vii) It leads to mass production of goods and services.
(viii) It can promote new discoveries and inventions/development of technology.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
2 a. Factors to be considered by Mr. Touray in locating his shop
(i) Availability of capital: He must consider the amount of money at his disposal for payment of rent, fixtures and stocking of the products.
(ii) Nearness to customers: He must locate his shop where there is demand for his goods.
(iii) Sources of supply of products – The location his shop should be very close to where he can obtain goods with ease.
(iv) Nature of goods: The nature of goods is equally important whether it will be for example, Children’s items or foodstuff.
(v) Level of competition: He should consider the number of other traders in the same line of business in the location.
(vi) Accessibility: He should consider the availability of accessible roads to his business premises. (vii)Government policy: He should consider government policy if any, with regards to location of such business. (viii) Availability of infrastructure: He should consider the availability of infrastructure such as water and electricity to support the business.
2 b. Ways a wholesaler can aid Mr. Touray business
(i)All information and advice about the goods and services are gathered from the producers by the wholesalers and then forwarded to Mr. Touray.
(ii) The wholesaler could create awareness of the goods by advertising them and engaging in sales promotion on behalf of Mr. Touray.
(iii) The wholesaler could help Mr. Touray by stocking varieties of goods produced or bought from different manufactures.
(iv) The wholesaler will buy in large quantity and sell in small units to Mr. Touray.
(v) The wholesaler could grant credit facilities to Mr. Touray in order to enable him stock assorted goods at a time.
(vi) The sorting, grading and packaging of goods could be done by the wholesaler to facilitate Mr. Touray’s purchases.
(vii) The wholesaler could convey goods to Mr. Touray’s shop at no extra cost.
(viii) By storing the goods in the warehouses for some time, this helps to stabilize prices to the advantage of Mr. Touray.
(ix) The wholesaler could sell at a discount to encourage him to buy more and make profit.
Differences between public enterprises and public companies
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4. Organisational chart of Adama’s Pure water Production Company Ltd.
4b. Two functions each of the departments of the company
i. Accounts
– It calculates and pays staff emoluments and salaries.
– It handles transactions relating to cash receipts and payments on behalf of the company.
– It prepares and keeps books of accounts.
– It prepares end of year accounts for both internal and external use.
– It advises the general manager on all financial matters.
– It prepares budgets for the organization.
ii. Administration
– It recruits, interviews and selects qualified candidates for employment into the organization.
– It handles all cases or matters of staff training and development, staff welfare, staff discipline and retirement.
– It is responsible for trade union matters, public relations and conflict resolution.
– It coordinates staff appraisal, promotion and retirement.
– It is responsible for the company’s correspondence and records.
iii. Marketing
– It is responsible for all the sales of the company’s products.
– It conducts market research and all sales promotional activities.
– It provides information for preparation of sales budgets.
– It assist in the distribution of the company’s good.
– It handles customers complain.
– It advertises the company’s products.
iv. Production
– It is in charge of actual production of goods.
– It is in charge of product innovation, product development and product design.
– It raises requisitions for raw materials to be procured by the purchasing department.
– It maintains quality control standards for the company’s product.
– It ensures the repairs and maintenance of faulty production equipment.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
5a. Ways in which marketing is important to a business
i. Profit – Marketing makes it possible for business to achieve their objective of profitability.
ii. It serves as a link between production and consumption. This is done by making it possible for goods produced to be moved from the producer to where they are needed through various channels of distribution.
iii. Creates awareness – it makes it possible for consumers to be aware of the existence of products. This leads to increased sales.
iv. Enhances consumers’ satisfaction – This is done by providing the right product, at the right place, at the right time and at the right time and at the right price following market research results.
v. Survival – Marketing strategies help a business to survive especially during the time of stiff competition and
economic meltdown.
vi. Marketing activities helps to increase sales of a company’s product.
5b. Promotion tools Jones Ltd. Could use
i. Trade fairs and exhibition – This is done at specific locations to encourage patronage. It will be used to introduce the products to buyers.
ii. Free samples – This is done using products as samples to prospective consumers.
iii. Discounts – This involves reducing the price of the products to encourage quantity bought.
iv. Buy one get one free – this is used to encourage patronage of the same product.
V Coupons – This is the ticket offered to buyers to be used as discount against next purchase.
vi. Gift – These are promotional items offered free to buyers of products
vii. Raffle draws – This is a way of encouraging patronage by promising gift that could be won through draws.
viii. After sales services – This is rendered to customers to encourage continuous patronage
ix. Premium offer – This involves increasing the quantity of product for sale at the old package price.
x. Party selling – The Company could finance parties with a view to using the opportunity to sell its products.
xi. Contest – Customers can be invited to participate in a contest using the products as ticket to encourage sales of its products.
xii. Advertising – This is done to create awareness and persuade customers to buy the company’s products through the print and electronic media.
xiii. Personal selling – This is a way of meeting the customer on one-on-one basis by the company in order to encourage them to buy.
xiv. Public relation– This measure could be used by the business to maintain good relationship with its customers.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
6a. A second-tier security market is a market where securities of companies that cannot be traded in the first-tier
security market are quoted.
6b. Advantages of the second-tier market
i. It is an avenue for companies to raise more capital.
ii. It assists and compliments the efforts of the stock exchange market by buying/ selling the shares of companies which cannot be traded on the stock exchange market.
iii. It ensures the survival and development of companies without fear of liquidation in the short run.
iv. It provides financial advices to companies in areas of profitable investments.
V It helps companies to save advertising cost when shares are floated.
6c. Requirement for trading in a second-tier security market
i. The company must be incorporated as a public limited company.
ii. The shareholders must not be less than 100.
iii. The company must sign a general undertaking with the stock exchange market.
iv. It must make available at least 10% of its equity share to the investing public.
V The financial statement of the company for three years must be submitted to the stock exchange.
vi. A shareholder will not be allowed to either directly or indirectly acquire more than 75% of the issued capital.
7a. A contract is a agreement between two or more persons which is enforceable in law and intended to have legal relationship.
7b. Reasons for consumer protection
i. Exploitation: the consumers are prompted from exploitation by manufacturers through indiscriminate price increase.
This is done through the price control Act.
ii. Substandard goods: Manufactures may produce goods without taking into consideration the quality desired. The standards Organisation Act checks such practice.
iii. Deceptive weights and measures: Sellers may use incorrect weights and measurements in selling goods to customers. The weights and measures Act helps prevent such practices.
iv. Sale of harmful food and Drugs Act protects the consumers against the sale of such goods.
v.. Credit purchase agreement: Consumers are often not well informed about the details of credit sales agreements.
They may inadvertently sign false credit facilities. The Hire Purchase Act is aimed at protecting the rights of such customers.
vi. Misleading advertisement: May claims made by advertisers about the performance of their product are not correct. The Trade Description Act was enacted to check such practices.
vii. Description of goods: Consumers are protected against unscrupulous sellers who would sell goods that are not fit for the purpose or differ from the samples or description. The Sales of goods Act is enacted to curb this practice.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Accounts 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1. Investors in a business are mainly interested in the firm’s
(a) liquidity (b) debt (c) management (d) profitability.
2. One of the characteristics of useful accounting information is
(a) profitability (b) comparability (c) efficiency (d) liquidity.
3. Which of the following items is found on the debit side of a trial balance?
(a) provision for doubtful debts (b) discount allowed (c) discount received (d) returns outwards.
4. Which of the following transactions is revenue expenditure?
(a) purchase of plant (b) purchase of a new engine. (c) construction of office wall (d) purchase of fuel for vehicle.
5. Credit notes received are source documents for
(a) Returns Inwards Journal (b) Return Outwards Journal (c) Purchase Journal (d) Sales Journal.
6. A document forwarded to a supplier showing amount due for unsatisfactory goods is
(a) Debit Note (b) Credit Note (c) Invoice (d) Waybill.
7. The claim of a proprietor of a business entity on its assets is
(a) liabilities (b) capital (C) drawings (d) funds.
8. The apportionment of cost of a fixed asset to the profit and loss account is termed as
(a) expense (b) depreciation (c) loss (d) appreciation.
9. Entries in the purchases journal are transferred to the
(a) receivable ledger (b) payable ledger (c) general ledger (d) private ledger.
10. A reduction in price to encourage prompt payment is
(a) trade discount (b) quantity discount (c) cash discount (d) seasonal discount.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Use the following information to answer questions 11 and 12.
Tei Ltd offered 1,560 units of a magazine at N60.00, each. Trade discount is 10% and cash discount is 10% within 30 days and 5% within 60 days.
11. The amount payable if payment is made on the 40th day is
(a) N 88,920 (b) N84,240 (c) N80,028 (d) N72,025.
12. The cash discount allowed on the 50th day is
(a) N9,360 (b) Y8,424 (c) N4,680 (d)N4,212.
13. An amount of Le 2000 received from a customer, Kofi has been credited to another customer, Kofigo’s account. This is an error of
(a) principle (b) commission (c) original entry (d) complete reversal.
14. Current assets less current liabilities is
(a) working capital (b) capital employed (c) fluctuating capital (d) fixed capital.
15. A debit balance of GHC 420 on the Purchases Ledger Control Account means that as at that date
(a) trade creditors have been overpaid by GHC 420. (b) trade creditors are owned GHC420. (c) goods returned to trade creditors amounted to GHC 420. (d) total supplies from trade creditors amounted to GHC 420.
16. Sales and Purchases ledgers are used in a business to keep records of
(a) the owner’s capital and cash transactions. (b) accounts of individual customers and suppliers. (c) current assets and fixed assets. (d) current liabilities and long-term liabilities.
17. Which of the following activities will increase profits?
(a) depreciation charges (b) reduction in provision for doubtful debts (c) undervalued closing stock (d) returns inwards.
18. The concept that implies that a business will operate for an indefinitely long period of time is
(a) accrual concept (b) going concern concept (c) business entity concept (d) periodicity concept.
19. The consistency concept aims at
(a) ensuring that all expenses are matched against revenue (b) reducing cost (c) comparability of accounting records (d) suppressing profits to be declared.
20. The concept which states that revenue is recognised when goods are sold is
(a) realisation concept. (b) matching concept. (c) periodicity concept. (d) going concern concept
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
21. Cost of goods sold is calculated as
(a) opening stock + purchases- closing stock. (b) opening stock + sales – closing stock. (c) opening stock + purchases + closing stock. (d) opening stock + sales + closing stock.
22. The wages of an office cleaner is classified as
(a) direct labour cost. (b) direct expenses. (c) factory overheads. (d) administrative overhead.
Use the following information to answer questions 23 and 24.
Le
Sales 120,000
Purchases 100,000
Opening stock 10,000
Closing stock 20,000
23. The cost of goods sold is
(a) Le 120,000. (b) Le 110,000. (c) Le 90,000. (d)Le 30,000.
24. The gross profits or loss is (a) Le 30,000 gross profit.
(b) Le 20,000 gross profit. (c) Le 10,000 gross loss. (d) Le 30,000 gross loss.
25. The amount set aside out of profits to strengthen the financial position of the business is
(a) provision. (b) reserve. (c) depreciation. (d) surplus.
26. A fall in value of a fixed asset due to technological changes is described as
(a) superfluity. (b) wear and tear. (c) obsolescence. (d) depletion.
27. A credit entry is made in the Plant and Machinery Account for the
(a) purchase of an additional plant and machinery. (b) sale of plant and machinery. (c) maintenance of plant and machinery. (d) appreciation of the plant and machinery.
28. In a manufacturing account, royalties paid is
(a) debited to the trading account (b) credited to the profit and loss account (c) credited to the manufacturing account
(d) debited to the manufacturing account.
29. One of the components of factory overheads is
(a) raw materials consumed (b) manufacturing wages (c) carriage inwards (d) depreciation of plant and machinery.
Use the following information to answer questions 30 and 31.
GFC
Direct materials used …………….64,000
Direct labour 30,000
Production overheads 22,000
Work in progress at beginning 9,000
Work in progress at close 14,000
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
30.Total cost of production is
(a) GH 94,000 (b) GH 106,000 (c) GH 111,000 (d)GH 116,000.
31. Prime cost of production is
(a) GH 64,000 (b) GH. 94,000 (c) GH 111,000 (d) GH 116,000.
32.The balance on the sales ledger control account at the end of the accounting year represents total
(a) trade debtors at the end of the year. (b) cash sales for the year. (c) credit sales for the year. (d) amount transferred from the sales journal.
Use the following information to answer questions 33 and 34.
33.Credit sales for 2016 is
(a) D 530,000 (b) D 370,000 (c) D 350,000 (d) D 330,000.
34. Credit purchases for 2016 is
(a) D 290,000 (b) D 230,000(c) D 220,000 (d) D 210,000.
35. The excess of assets over liabilities of a not-for-profit making organisation is
(a) surplus (b) deficit (c) working capital (d) accumulated fund.
Use the following information to answer questions 36 and 37
Receipt and Payments: 31st December, 2016
36. The surplus for the year is
(a) #1,970 (b)\#2,640 (c) #1,690 (d) #1,390.
37. The total income received for the years is
(a) (b) #2,180 (c) #1,890 (d) #1,690.
38. The parties who are paid last in the event of winding-up are
(a) preference shareholders (b) debenture holders (c) ordinary shareholders (d) trade creditors.
39. An event that will not require a change in the profit-sharing ratio of partners in a firm is when
(a) a partner dies (b) a partner retires (c) a new partner is admitted (d) partners assets value appreciates.
Use the following information to answer questions 40 and 41.
40. Taiwo’s share of profit is
(a) N 8,960 (b)N 7,404 (c) N4,936 (d) #3,296.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
41. Obi’s share of profit is
(a) N 8,960 (b) N 7,404 (c) #4,936 (d) #3,296.
42. The accounting entries for cash realised from the sale of assets on dissolution of partnership is debit
(a) Cash Account; credit Partners Capital Account (b) Asset Account; credit Cash Account (c) Cash Account; credit Realisation Account (d) Realisation Account; credit Cash Account.
43. The process of distributing shares to successful applicants is
(a) allocation (b) apportionment (c) allotment (d) application.
44. Interim dividend paid in the year is
(a) debited to the Profit and Loss Account (b) debited to the Income Surplus Account (c) credited to the Profit and Loss Account (d) credited to the Income Surplus Account.
45. The basis of apportionment of insurance on building in departmental accounts is
(a) floor space occupied by the department (b) purchase cost of the building (c) value of the building (d) number of offices in the building.
46. Under the cost method in Branch Accounts, branch gross profit is disclosed in the
(a) Goods Sent to Branch Account (b) Branch Debtors Account (c) Branch Stock Account (d) Branch Stock Adjustment Account.
Use the following information to answer questions 47 and 48.
Ordinary share capital 70,000
Retained earnings 31,142
Motor vehicle at cost 21,136
Accumulated depreciation
motor vehicle 7,109
Furniture and fittings at cost 1,334
Accumulated depreciation
Furniture and fittings at cost 1,007
Stock 32,200
Debtors 49,380
Bank 15,953
Creditors 11,329
47. Equity holders fund is
(a) Le 112,471 (b) Le 111,834 (c)Le 101,142 (d)Le 70,000.
48. Net book value of fixed assets is
(a) Le 22,480 (b) Le 21,136 (c) Le 14,354 (d) Le 14,027.
49. The authority to incur expenditure in the public sector is
(a) warrant (b) vote (c) budget (d) voucher.
50. Below-the-line item in public sector accounting means such an items is
(a) not budgeted for in the current fiscal year (b) budgeted for in the current fiscal year (c) to be carried forward to the next fiscal year (d) less than what is budgeted for.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Accounts 1 ANSWERS
1.D 11.C 21.A 31.B 41.C
2.B 12.D 22.D 32.A 42.C
3.B 13.A 23.C 33.B 43.C
4.D 14.A 24.A 34.B 44.A
5.A 15.A 25.B 35.D 45.A
6.A 16.B 26.C 36.D 46.C
7.C 17.B 27.B 37.A 47.C
8.B 18.B 28.D 38.C 48.C
9.B 19.C 29.D 39.D 49.A
10C 20.A 30.C 40.B 50.C
Accounts 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
1(a) Mention three disadvantage to a business that does not keep proper accounting records.
(b) Explain the following characteristics of accounting information:
i. Relevance;
ii. Comparability;
iii. Consistency;
iv. Reliability;
(c) State two limitations in the use of accounting information for business decision making.
2(a) Explain with examples, the following components of cost in a Manufacturing Account:
i. Direct material cost;
ii. Direct labour cost;
iii. Factory overhead;
(b) Describe the three types of stocks in a manufacturing concern,
3(a) Which business organisations have the need to prepare departmental accounts?
(b) State two reasons for preparing departmental accounts.
(c) State how the following incomes and expenses are apportioned in departmental accounts:
i. discount allowed;
ii. discount received;
iii. rent and rates;
iv. staff related costs;
v. depreciation;
vi. canteen expenses;
vii. electricity;
viii. advertising;
ix. bad debts;
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
4(a) List six users of accounting information,
(b) State the formula and the use of each of the following accounting ratios:
i. Quick ratio;
ii. Net profit margin;
iii. Total assets turnover;
iv. Creditors payment period (in days)
SECTION B
5. Baako Ltd purchased motor vehicle as follows:
The company adopts a straight line method of depreciation at the rate of 10% per annum from the date of purchase. A separate account is prepared for provision for depreciation. On 30th June, 2014, the motor vehicle which was purchased on 01 July, 2013 was sold for GH 240,000.
You are required to prepare:
(a) Motor Vehicle Account for the year, 2013, 2014 and 2015.
(b) Provision for Depreciation on Motor Vehicle Account for the year 2013, 2014 and 2015.
(c) Motor Vehicle Disposal Account.
6. On 31st December, 2016, the bank column of the cash book of Aminata Enterprise showed a debit balance of D48,500. However, the bank statement showed a credit balance of D54,900 as on the same date. A detailed comparison of entries revealed the following:
i. Customer’s cheques amounting to D8,450 had not been credited by the bank as at 3111212016.
ii. Cheques amounting to D8,850 had not been presented for payment as at 3111212016.
iii. Bank charges of D1,000 and interest on investments of D2,500 collected by the banker appeared only in the bank statement.
iv. On the 30/12/2016, there was a wrong credit of D3,000 in the bank statement.
v. Kesse Enterprise, a customer, had paid into the bank directly a sum of D3,000 on 2911 December, 2016. This had not been recorded in the cash book.
vi. A cheque for D2,000 received from Jallo Enterprises, a customer, which was deposited had been returned unpaid. This had not been entered in the cash book. You are required to:
(a) Write up the adjusted cash book.
(b) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 31/12/ 2016.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
7. Olu, a sole trader has the following financial details for the year ended 31st December, 2016.
You are required to prepare:
(a) Statement of affairs as at 1st January, 2016.
(b)Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31St December, 2016.
(c) Balance sheet as at 31st December, 2016.
8. Boyson Social Club presented the following statements
for the year ended 31st December, 2016.
Five new members had not paid membership dues of Le300 each for the year. You are required to prepare for Boyson Social Club for the year ended 31/12/16.
(a) Subscriptions Account
(b) Bar Trading Account
(c) Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st December, 2016.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
9.The trial balance of Obinah for year ended 31St
December, 2016 was provided as follows:
Additional information:
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers Accounts 2 ANSWERS
SECTION A
Question I
(a) Disadvantages of not keeping proper accounting records:
(I) Inability to ascertain accurate profit or loss.
(ii) It could lead to wrong assessment of taxes.
(iii) There is the possibility of arbitrary spending leading to business collapse.
(iv) Fraud and dishonesty will not easily be detected/checked.
(v) It could lead to loss of vital business records.
(vi) It makes it difficult to prepare financial statements.
(vii) It could lead to difficulty in planning business activities.
(viii) It could lead to inaccurate decisions.
(ix) It makes it difficult for business to obtain credit facilities.
(x) It makes it difficult to detect errors.
(b) Characteristics of accounting information
(I) Relevance -Accounting information is relevant if it is useful for the intended purpose.
(ii) Comparability – This means that accounting information should be capable of being compared with those of similar entities and from one period to another.
(iii) Consistency -This characteristic requires accounting information to be prepared following similar procedures and methods.
(iv) Reliability – This characteristic requires accounting information to be verifiable and factual.
(c) Limitations in the use of accounting information
(i) The use of historical cost reduces relevance of accounting information in making current decisions.
(ii) Information that cannot be measured in monetary terms is not recorded in accounting and this makes accounting information incomplete.
(iii) Possibility of errors in accounting can reduce the usefulness of account information.
(iv) Where precise information is not available, accountants rely on estimates which may be inaccurate for decisions.
(v) Some business window-dress their financial statements, thereby misleading users.
(vi) Businesses use different accounting policies which makes comparison misleading.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Question 2
(a) Cost Components of a Manufacturing Account
(i) Direct materials cost: This is the cost of physical inputs/raw materials that can easily be traced to the units produced, e.g. cost of raw materials – (cost of wood for producing furniture, cost of fabric for sewing dresses; cost of leather for producing shoes; orange for producing juice, etc.)
(ii) Direct labour cost: This is the cost of human effort that is used in the processing of materials that can be traced to the finished product, e.g. wages of factory workers, etc.
(iii) Factory overhead: This refers to indirect production costs that are incurred in the processing of goods, e.g. factory rent’ of plant and machinery; cost of lubricant, etc.
(b) Types of stock in a manufacturing concern
(i) Raw materials: These are unprocessed materials that constitute the initial input in the manufacturing process.
(ii) Work in progress: These are partially processed materials in the production process that require further processing.
(iii) Finished goods: These are fully completed/processed goods that are transferred to the store and held for sale.
Question 3
(a) Business organisations that have need to prepare departmental accounts
(I) Large general stores having separate departments such as frozen foods, household appliances, books/stationery.
(ii) Firm of chartered accountants which have audit, tax, and business consultancy departments.
(iii) Insurance companies – life, marine, motor, burglary departments.
(b) Reasons for preparing departmental accounts
(i) To ascertain the profit or loss for each department;
(ii) To compare the performance of the departments over the years;
(iii) To assist management in taking decision on which department to support or drop;
(iv) To assist management in its effort to control cost in the various departments;
(v) To provide a basis for rewarding staff;
(vi) To stimulate competition among the departments;
(vii) To enable management to apportion expenses to various departments.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
(c) Apportionment of Item in departmental accounts
(i) Discount allowed
(ii) Discount received
(iii) Rent & rates
(iv) Staff related costs
(v) Depreciation
(vi) Canteen
(vii) Electricity
(viii) Advertisement
(xi) Bad debt Incomes and Expenses
Basis
Sales of each department
Purchases of each department
Floor space occupied
Number of employees in each Department
Book value/cost of the fixed asset in each department
Number of employees
Area Occupied
Value of sales
Credit sales of each department.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
QUESTION 4
(a) Users of accounting information
(i) Management
(ii) Employees
(iii) Government agencies
(iv) Investors
(v) Bankers/lenders/debenture holders
(vi) Customers/debtors
(vii) Suppliers/creditors
(viii) Trade Unions
(ix) Trade Associations
(x) General Public
(xi) Shareholders/owners/employers
(xii) Financial analysts
(xiii) Auditors
(b) Formula and use of ratios
(I) Quick Ratio: Current assets – Inventory ÷ Current liabilities
The ratio is used to measure the ability of a business to pay its short term debts from current assets, after eliminating
inventories.
(ii) Net Profit margin: Net Profit x 100 ÷ Sales
This ratio is used to determine the net profit earned on each cedi/naira/dollar/dolasi/leone of sales made by the business.
(iii) Total assets turnover Sales x 100 ÷ Total assets
This ratio is used to measure how efficiently a business can use its assets to generate sales.
(iv) Creditors payment period (in days)
= Trade creditors x 365 days ÷ Credit purchases
The ratio measures, on the average, the number of days that the business takes to pay its trade creditors.
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Maths 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
A
General Maths 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Further Maths 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
FURTHER MATHS 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Physics 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
PHYSICS 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions: Chemistry 1
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
Chemistry 2
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
ANSWERS
WASSCE 2018 Past Questions and Answers
A
