WASSCE 2015 Past Questions

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions: Government 1

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions: ECONOMICS 1

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

1 . Economics is regarded as a science because it
A. studies laws that govern human behaviour. B. uses scientific method to explain human behaviour. C. makes use of controlled experiments to explain human behaviour D. makes use of machines to study human behaviour.

2. Which of the following cannot be described as land?
A. Forest B. Diamond C. Roads D. Crude oil.

3. An outward shift of the production possibility curve shows that
A. production is shifting to the right B. resources are underutilized. C. economic growth has taken place. D. factors of production are moving outward.

4. The following constitute the criteria for identifying an economic system except
A. ownership of resources. B. scarcity of resources. C. method of decision making D. motivation for production. .

5. A disadvantage of the mean as a measure of central tendency is that. it
A. is affected by extreme values. B. can only be used for continuous data. C. cannot be used to measure the qualities of a population. D. cannot be determined in grouped data.. . . .

6. Which of the following is not an effect of middlemen in the chain of distribution?
A. Shortage of commodities B. Low retail prices C. Hoarding of goods D. High retail prices.

7. If the price of flour rises. Then bread’s
A. demand curve will shift to the left while supply curve will shift to the right. B. supply curve will shift to the left, C. supply curve will shift to the right. D. demand curve will shift to the right while supply curve remains unchanged.

8. Which of the following is not a reason for abnormal demand?
A. Price of the commodity B. Goods of ostentation C. Giften goods D. Rare commodity.

9. Increase in production subsidies wiII shift
A. the demand curve to the left. B. the supply curve to the right C. both the supply and demand curves to the left. D. the supply curve to the left and demand curve to the right

10. The market supply curve slopes upwards from left to right indicating that
A. producers pay high taxes. B. two commodities can be supplied at the same time C. at a lower price, less is supplied D. at a lower price, more is supplied and demanded.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

11. Government revenue will increase if taxes are levied on goods with
A. perfectly elastic demand. B. fairly elastic demand C. perfectly inelastic demand D. unitary elastic demand.

12. If a given change in price brings about a proportionately larger change in quantity demanded, then
A. demand is relatively price elastic. B. demand is relatively price inelastic. C. price elasticity of demand is unitary. D. price elasticity of demand is constant.

13. lithe price of a commodity Z falls and a consumer buys less of it, then commodity Z is
A. necessity B. good of ostentation C. Giffen good D. normal good.

14 In order to calculate total utility (TU) from given levels of marginal utility (MU). one has to
A. subtract MU from TU  B. add MU from the various levels C. multiply MU by the initial TU. D. divide current MU by previous MU.

15. Which of the following will not affect the market price of a commodity?
A. Increase in demand B. Change in tastes C. Intersection of demand and supply D. Increase in supply.

16. All the following are methods of determining prices except
A. maximum pricing. B. rationing. C. minimum pricing. D. auctioning.

17. The law of diminishing returns relates to
A. total utility. B. average utility. C. total product. D. marginal product.

18. By adding all the marginal products at each level of employment of the variable input, we obtain a value equal to
A. average product. B. total product. C. average variable cost. D. total cost.

19. Total cost is obtained by
A. adding tip the marginal cost at each level. B. dividing the total cost by output at each level. C. adding up the average variable cost at each level. D. adding up the average variable cost and total fixed cost.

20. Which of the following cost curves is not U-shaped? The
A. marginal cost curve B. average fixed cost curve C. average total cost curve D. average variable cost curve.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

21. Which of the following business organizations is likely to experience disagreements between management and Shareholders?
A. Co-operative society B. Sole trader C. Partnership . Joint-stock company.

22. Which of the following is not a method of controlling monopoly?
A. Preventing mergers B. Indigenization C. Privatization D. lmposing high profit tax.

23. Which of the following features distinguishes public limited company from a private limited company?
A. Perpetual existence B. Limited liability C. Legal entity D. Sale of shares to the public.

24. Inflation may occur it there is
A. excess supply over demand B. increase in productivity. C. excessive demand with limited supply D. increased government spending in a depressed economy.

25. Frictional unemployment occurs when
A. there is a change in the technique of production. B. job seekers lack information where jobs exist C. bad weather prevents work from progressing. D.job seekers have disabilities.

26. Which of the following will increase the demand for labour?
A. Increased wage rate B. Labour’s demand for output C. Low wage rate D. . Low marginal productivity of labour.

27. One reason for low agricultural productivity in most West African countries is that
A. farmers are not capable of cultivating cash crops B. it does not provide income to farmers with large families C. farmers find it difficult getting help from financial institutions. D. it is not the only source of raw materials for agro-based industries.

28. The movement of labour from one grade to an entirely different grade is an example of
A. industrial labour mobility B. horizontal occupational mobility C. vertical! occupational mobility D. geographical mobility.

29. Ten bags of wheat bought for $50 by a flour miller were sold for $65. What is the Value Added Tax payable by the miller if the tax rate is 5%?
A. $7.50 B. $3.25 C. $2.25 D. $075

30. Which of the following is not a strong basis for trade unions den land for limber wages? The
A. company is making higher profit B. productivity of the \workers has increased C. members of the union have high qualifications D. commodity produced by the workers is very essential.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

31. The difference between the gross domestic product (GDP) and gross national product (GNP) is
A. depreciation. B. transfer payment. C. net income from abroad. ft direct taxes.

32. Location of firms of an industry is not influenced by 
A. availability of raw materials. B existence of other firms C. nearness to the source of money supply ft government policy.

33. In national income accounting . the term net is used to indicate that a value
A. includes income of foreigners B. excludes income of citizens C. includes depreciation D. excludes depreciation.

34. Which of the following best describes token money?
A. Money in the vaults of commercial banks B. Currency and coins in circulation L Money with face value higher than its material content D. Coins and notes made of poor quality materials

35. An industry is best described as
A. firm that sells a set of closely related commodities. B a factory that produces different lines of products C. a group of firms that sell a closely related set-of products D. industrial concern that is into production and selling of goods

36. In developing countries, a larger percentage of the labour force is employed in the
A. trade sector B. tertiary sector C. primary sector D. secondary sector

37. The main item traded on a stock exchange market is
A. treasury bills. B. traveller’s cheques. C. foreign currencies D. new shares.

38. The proportion of commercial banks’ total assets kept in the form of highly liquid assets is known as
A. demand deposit B fixed deposit C cash ratio D moral suasion

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

Use the information contained in me table above to answer questions 39 and 40.

39. What is tile total revenue from indirect taxes?
A. $686.00 in . B. $400.20 in C. $135.80 in D. $1 00.00.m.

40. What is the total revenue from non-tax sources?
A. $400.20 in . B. $375.20 .in C. $135.80 in D. $75.00 in

41. Which of the following is not an objective of economic planning is?
A. Need to direct economic development of the country towards the desired direction B. Desire to ensure a sustained structural development of the country C. Desire to widen the gap between developing countries and the developed world D. Management of scarce resources in the S face of unlimited want of-the citizens.

42. In order to control inflation, the government should
A. reduce the cost of borrowing. B. buy securities in the open market C. adopt restrictive monetary policy. D. discourage savings

43. When the demand for foreign exchange exceeds its supply, the value of the domestic currency
A appreciates B depreciates C remains unchanged D expands

44. The exports of West African countries are mainly composed of
A. services. B raw materials. C. manufactured goods D. consumer goods.

45. A conscious effort of government to achieve a specific set of goals is
A. economic planning. B. economic development C. economic growth D. economic target. S

46. A country has favourable terms of trade when the prices of her
A. exports rise relative to the prices of imports. B. exports fall relative to the prices of imports. C. imports rise faster than the prices of exports. D. ‘imports and exports move in the same direction. S

47. The abolition of all forms of trade barriers on member countries while maintaining common external tariffs against non-members is a feature of a
A. free trad. B. customs union C. common market D. economic union.

48. In order to correct adverse balance of payments problem, government should
A. reduce ‘tariffs. B. increase subsidies on exports C. increase tax on local industries D. reduce personal income tax: ,

49. Which of the following is a benefit to a member country of the World Bank?
A. Easy access to long term loans B. Management of foreign exchange C. Mediating in labour disputes D. Financing balance of payments deficit.

50. Which of the following is an objective of OPEC?
A. prevent fluctuation in prices of all commodities B. protect the economic interest of all countries C control the level of output of oil D discover oil in all countries

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Economics 1 ANSWERS
IB  2C 3B 4B 5A 6B 7A 8A 9D 10C 11C 12A 13C 14B 15C 16B 17D 18B 19A 20B 21D 22C 23B 24C 25A 26D 27C 28C 29C 30C 31C 32C 33D 34D 35C 36C 37D 38A 39A 40C 41C 42C 43B 44B 45A .46A 47B ‘ 48B 49A 50C.

 

 

ECONOMICS 2

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

ESSAY-SECTION A
Answer one question only from tills section
The total fixed Cost (TFC) and total cost (IC) functions of a hypothetical firm are shown in the graph below. Study it and answer the questions that follow

1. (a) Determine the firm’s (i) variable cost at output levels 2, 4 and 6; (ii) average total cost at output levels 2 and 3; (iii) marginal cost at output levels 4 and 6. (b) If the price of the firm’s product is $40, calculate the firm’s profit or loss when the following units are sold (i) 2 units(ii) 4 units

2. The table below shows the incomes and rates of income tax levied on four professionals in an economy.

Use this data to answer the questions that follows (a) Calculate the disposable incomes of the four individuals (b) what ‘stern of taxation, was employed? (c) Give reasons for your answer in 2(b). (d) With the aid of a diagram, explain the system of taxation employed in 2(b).

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION B
Answer three questions only from this section

3. (a) What is a trade union? (b) Describe any four functions of trade unions. (c) Outline any two weapons used by trade unions to achieve their objectives. . . .
4(a) Outline any four objectives of price control policy. (b) Highlight any four effects of a maximum price control policy.
5(a) What are infant industries?(b) State any four reasons for protecting infant industries….(c)Outline any three, ways by which industries can be financed in West Africa. . . .
6(a) What is balance of payment disequilibrium? b) Explain the two types of balance of payment disequilibrium. (c) Highlight any four reasons most West African countries are experiencing balance of payment problem.
7(a) what is deflation (b) Outline any three positive effects of deflation. (c) Explain the way  by which inflation affects any three functions of-money.
8. (a) What is protective tariff?. (h) Outline any four reasons in favour of protective tariff. (c) State any two cons against protective tariff.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Economics 2 ANSWERS

1.(a) (i)
VC = TC – TFC == $40′
VC₂ = I00 – 40 = $60
VC₄ = 140 – 40 = $100
VC₆ = I80 – 40 == $140

(ii)
ATC = TC/Q
ATC₂ = 100/2 = $50
ATC₃ = 120/3 = $40

(iii)
MC = ~changes in TC/changes in Q
MC₄ (C₄ _TC₃)/(Q₄ – Q₃) = (140 -120)/1 = $20
MC₆ = (TC₆ – TC₂)/(Q₆-Q₅) = (180-160)/(6-5) = $20

(b) (i)
Profit = Total Revenue>- Total Cost
TR – TC .. ‘
TR = Price – Quantity
P x 0
When 2 units are sold
Profit = ($40 x 2) – $100 = $80 – $100 = -$20 (loss)

(ii)
When 4 units are sold
Profit = ($40x 4) – $140
= $160 – $140,= $20

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

2(a) Disposable Income Tax
(i) Doctor = $8000 – (10% of $8000) = $8000 – $800 = $7200.
(II) Engineer = $7000 – (12% of $7000) = $7000-$840 = $6160
(iii) Civil Servant = $5000 (18% of $5000) = $5000 – $900’= $4100
(IV) Nurse = $6000 – (15% of $6000) = $6000 – $900 = $5100.

(b) Regressive system of taxation
(c) Regressive because higher income earners pay lower rate of tax while low income earners pay higher rate of tax.

 

 

In the diagram above, the curve is negatively sloped indicating that higher income earners are levied at lower tax rate and vice versa.
(d) A regressive system of taxation is one in which the higher income earners pay a lower rate of tax while the lower income earners pay a higher rate of tax. There is an inverse relationship between the tax rate and the tax base.

 

SECTION B
3(a) A trade union is an organized body of employees set up to negotiate with their employers for-better. working conditions for its members

(b) Four functions of trade unions (i) They offer social services to their members (ii) They educate their members on civil and political opportunities. (iii) To negotiate for improvement in the conditions of service of their members. (iv) They organize workers into an effective functional group. (v) They engage in training and retraining of members through seminars and workshops to improve their skills. (vi) This encourage firms to increase workers participation business (vii) They organize workers to participate actively in issues/matters that affect them.

(c) Two weapons used by trade unions to achieve their objectives: (i) Strike: This is stoppage of work by employees to back their demands. (ii) Work to rule/Go-slow: Working slowly to reduce production as to force employers to listen to the demand of workers. (iii) Demonstrations/Protests: These involve workers carrying placards singing and shouting to get the attention of management to address their concerns. (iv) Collective bargaining: Negotiation of pay and conditions of service, etc. between workers’ representatives and employers. (v) Threat of strike: This is giving employers notice of intention to embark on a strike action. (vi) Picketing: In this case representatives of the union prevent other workers from gaining access to the work place.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

4(a) Four objectives of a price control policy: (i) To accumulate surplus for government. (ii) To help low income earners, e.g. minimum wage. (iii) To make planning for future output. (iv) To control the profits of companies (especially monopoly). (v) To avoid or control inflation. (vi) to prevent exploitation of consumers by middlemen and producers. (vii) to prevent fluctuation of prices of some products, e.g. agricultural produce. (viii) To stabilize the price of some products, e.g. agricultural produce.

(b) Four effects of a maximum price control policy: (I) It encourages hoarding of commodities by sellers so as to sell above the maximum price. (ii) It leads to rationing. Consumers are allocated a specific quantity irrespective of their needs. (iii) It stimulates excess demand which cannot be satisfied, i.e. shortages in the market. (iv) It leads to creation of parallel markets or under the counter sales. In this case the goods disappear from the open markets. (v) Shortages result in queues. People have to line up so as to obtain some of tile available goods. (vi) Preferential treatment is encouraged. Here, sellers prepare to sell to regular customers, friends and relatives. (viii) It encourages conditional sales. In this case, buyers are forced to purchase what they do not need in addition to what they need.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

5(a) infant industries are newly established. Industries that are at the developing stage and need protection so that their product can effectively compete with the products of long established international businesses.

(b) It is necessary to protect infant industries for the following reasons: (i) In order that the economy can become self-reliant. (ii) To encourage domestic production. (iii) To create employment for the citizens. (iv) To conserve scarce foreign exchange. (v) To develop the local market. (vi) To prevent dumping. (vii) To improve the balance of payments position. (viii) If infant industries are protected with time they will be a source of revenue to government through tax payments. (ix) To develop indigenous technology and expertise. (x) To encourage consumption of locally produced goods. (xi) Protection of infant industries encourages industrialization leading to diversification of the economy. (xii) To attract more foreign investments. (xiii) To increase the level of domestic income.

(c) Three ways by which industries can be financed in West Africa: (i) Sale of properties/Assets. (ii) Assistance from government. (iii) Borrowing from other sources. (iv) Personal savings. (v) Trade credit. (vi) Ploughed back profit. (vii) Sales of debentures. (viii) Issuing of shares. (ix) Bank loans.

6(a) Balance of payment disequilibrium refers to a situation where the total receipts of country’s exports are not equal to the total payments on imports usually for a year.

(b) Two types of balance of payment disequilibrium. Balance of Payment Surplus:- This is a situation where the total receipts from a country’s exports is greater than the total payments on imports of a country in a given year or vice versa. Balance of payment deficit: This is a situation where the total payments on imports is greater than the total receipts of a country’s export in a given year or vice versa.

(c) Four reasons most West African countries are experiencing balance of payment problem: (i) Over-reliance on imported goods. (ii) Over-reliance on primary products which prices fluctuate on the world markets. (iii) Political instability/crisis which disrupts production for exports. (iv) Inadequate technical know-how/low level of technology. (v) Poor infrastructural facilities which hinders production. (vi) Low level of agricultural production which reduces the volume of exports. (vii) Servicing of foreign debts. (viii) Fall in the value of the domestic currency devaluation which increases the prices of imports. (ix) Inflation which increases the cost of production and make exports uncompetitive. (x) Excessive government expenditure on unproductive activities. (xi) Existence of import dependent industries which expend foreign exchange on imports. (xii) Deterioration in the terms of trade as a result of rising imports prices. (xiii) Over-reliance on one export product whose prices are unpredictable.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

7(a) Deflation is a period of persistent fall in the general level of prices of goods and services.

(b) Three positive effects of deflation: (i) Standard of living will increase as a result of reduction in the cost of living. (ii) Money lenders/ creditors gain because money paid back has a higher value. (iii) Improvement in balance of payments due to increase in exports. (iv) Increase in the value of money as a result of falling prices. (v) Fixed income earners/creditors gain because money buys more baskets of goods. (vi) Savings are encouraged because cost of living is low.

(c) Three ways by which inflation affects functions of money: (i) Store of value:- The function of money is a store of wealth is undermined during periods of inflation because the money saved loses value. (ii) Unit of account/measure of value- during inflation, money is not a reliable unit of account because its own value is not stable.
(iii) Medium of exchange – during inflation, people are likely to lose confidence in money as a means of payment for goods and services because of a fall in its value. (iv) Standard of deferred payment – during inflation, money does not serve as an adequate standard of deferred payment because money loses values.

8(a) A protective tariff is an import duty imposed on certain commodities to protect domestic industries from foreign competition.

(b) Reasons in favour of protective tariff: (i) To protect jobs/prevent unemployment. (ii) To discourage dumping. (iii) To correct balance of payments problems. (iv) To generate revenue (v) As a political weapon. (vi) To protect domestic industries from foreign competition. (vii) To prevent the importation of dangerous goods.

(c) Reasons against protective tariff: (i) It limits the level of variety of goods available in the country. (ii) Other countries may also retaliate. (iii) It may lead to increase in the price of goods especially if the tariff is too high. (iv) Over protection of domestic industries may lead to inefficiency. (v) Fall in the standard of living due to high taxes on imports.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions:  BIOLOGY 1

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following organisms is not a protozoan?
A. Amoeba B. Ascaris C. Plasmodium D. Paramecium

2. The structure of the cell membrane is a
A. double layer and a double protein layer. B. middle bi-layer of protein with a lipid layer on either surface. C. middle bi-layer of lipid with a protein layer on either surface. D. protein layer with two inner lipid layers.

3. Which of the following cells is a specialized cell?
A. Amoeba B. Plasmodium C. Guard-cell D. Meristematic cell.
ru
4. The following organisms have structures for movement except
A. Amoeba. B. Spirogyra. C. Volvox. D. Paramecium.

5. Which of the following statements about protoplasm of a cell is not correct? It
A. is a gelatinous mass. B. consists of cytoplasm and nucleus. C. is the liquid part of the nucleus. D. contains cellular organelles.

6. When a spirogyra filament is placed in a concentrated salt solution for 30 minutes, the cell would become
A. plasmolysed. B. turgid. C. shortened. D. elongated.

The diagram below is an illustration of a crocodile. Use it to answer questions 7 and 8.

7. Which of the labelled parts enable the animal to stay underwater most of the time?
A. I, IV and V B. I, II and V. C. I, Ill and IV D. III, IV and V

8. Two characteristic features of the class to which the crocodile belongs are labelled
A. I and II. B. Ill and IV. C. II and IV. D. II and V.

9. Water and salts are both lost from the human body in
A. breath and sweat. B. breath and urine. C. breath, urine and sweat. D. sweat and urine.

10. Which of the following features could be used to determine the growth of a seedling?
A. Number of flowers B. Number of leaves C. Length of flowers D. Length of radicle

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

The following diagrams show the sequence of events in early cell division. Study the diagrams and answer question 11.

II. In which of the following cells is this division likely to take place?
A. Sperm cell B. Blood cell C. Muscle cell D. Uterine cell.

12. A plant that commonly undergoes vegetative propagation by means of leaves is
A. Hibiscus. B. Bryophylum. C. Crotalaria. D. Spirogyra.

The diagram below illustrates a part of the mammalian skeleton. Use it to answer questions 13 and 14.

13. The part of the mammalian skeleton illustrated in the diagram is the
A. atlas vertebrae. B. axis vertebrae. C. cervical vertebrae. D. thoracic vertebrae.

14. The function of the part labelled I is to
A. provide support to the spinal cord. B. provide surface for attachment of the muscle. C. carry the spinal cord. D. articulate with adjacent vertebrae.

15. Blood pressure is higher in the arteries as a result of
A. stress. B. contraction and relaxation. C. blockage in the arteries. D. presence of valves.

16. A farmer who wants to keep seeds for three years before planting and wants to prevent them from sprouting uses
A. auxin. B. gibberellins. C. abscisin. D. cytokinin.

17. A person had all accident that affected the skull but not the nose and later lost the sense of smell. The accident must have affected the
A. nose by extension B. olfactory lobes of the brain. C. passage from the nose to the brain. D. part of the skull near the nose.

18. Ability of the human eye to focus images accurately on the retina is called
A. astigmatism. B. myopia. C. adjustment. D. accommodation

19. Which of the following characteristic features is not associated with monocotyledonous plants?
A Well differentiated sepals and petals B. Presence of fibrous root system C. Presence of narrow leaves D. Floral part are in multiples of three.

20. The main difference between a seed and a fruit is that a fruit
A. is large while, seed is small. B. has two scars while a seed has one. C. is pigmented while a seed is not. D. can be dispersed by animals while a seed cannot.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

21. Which of the following processes removes carbon oxide from the atmosphere?
A. Burning fuels B. Putrefaction C. Photosynthesis D. Respiration in plants.

A student used the following steps in testing for a non-reducing sugar:
1. added Benedict’s solution to the sugar solution: II. added dilute hydrochloric acid to the sugar solution and boiled it; Ill. adcte4 sodium hydroxide solution to tile solution in II and boiled; IV. added Benedict’s solution to the cooled solution in Ill. Use this information to answer questions 22 to 24.

22. Why did the student add the dilute hydrochloric acid to the sugar solution in step 1? To
A. oxidize the sugar solution. B. hydrolyse the sugar solution. C. dry the sugar solution D. increase the volume of tile sugar solution.

23 What is the importance of step II in the testing process? To
A. neutralize the sugar solution. B. soften the sugar solution. C. change the colour of the sugar solution. D. increase the acid content of the sugar solution

24. The colour change to be observed in step IV is
A. blue-black. B. brick red. C. purple. D. violet.

25. Which of the following organs of the alimentary canal is not correctly matched with its function?
A. tall bladder – stores bile B. Liver – stores glycogen C. Appendix – releases enzymes D. Teeth grind food.

27. A community reaches a climax when
A. only pioneer organisms are present. B new habitats are constantly being formed. C. there is an introduction of nc’ plants and animal species within the community. D. the composition and size of a community remains constant over a long period.

28. Which of the following components make up all ecosystem?
A. Decomposers, animals and non-living factors B. Living and non-living factors C. Plants and non-living factors D. Plants, decomposers and non-living factors.

29. The major problem experienced by organisms living in small water bodies is
A. drying up. B. oxygen deficiency C. scarcity of food. D. wave action. .

30. The capillarity of a soil refers to
A the particle size of soil. B. how easily water passes through soil. C. how well water rises up in soil. D. proportion of water a soil holds.

31. An organism at the state of a food chain will provide the total input of energy into an ecosystem is the
A. sun B. producer C. consumer D. decomposer.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

Study the diagram below and use it to answer questions 32 to 34.

32. The mode of nutrition of the plant in the diagram is as
A. photosynthetic and chronosynthetic. B saprophytic and carnivorous. C. photosynthetic and carnivorous D. chemosynthetic and saprophytic.

33. The structure labelled I is
A. a pitcher. B. an onion. C. a flower. D. a tendril.

34. In which type of soil is the plant found? Soil that is
A. poorly aerated. B. water logged. C. exposed D. nitrogen deficient.

35. Which of the following organisms is an endo-parasite?
A. Tapeworm B. Flea C. Tick D. Anilid

36. Oil applied to the surface of water kills the larvae of mosquitoes through
A. dehydration. B. poisoning. C. starvation. ‘D suffocation.

37. Which of the following natural resources is most readily available to all organism
A. Oil B. Water C. All D. Food. .

38. Which of the following resources is non-renewable?
A. Forest reserve B. Mineral deposit C. Water D. Wild life

39. Soil erosion could be prevented by
A. flooding a farmland. B. cover cropping C. deforestation. D. leaving the soil ‘bare.

40 Which of the following statements about human blood groups is not true?
A. A is dominant over B B. 0 is recessive C B is dominant over D I and B are co-dominant

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

41 Which of the following traits is not inheritable Ability to
A taste PTC B roll the tongue C move the eat D. roll the eyeball.

42. A woman with blood group A gives birth to a child with blood group 0. Which of the following blood groups cannot belong to the father’?
A. A B. B C. All  D. 0.

43. How many chromosomes will be in a gamete if the normal cell has four chromosomes?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D

Use the diagram below to answer questions 44 and 45.

44. Which of the following statements about the cross is correct?
A. The gene for the spotted coat is recessive to the gene for the black coat B. Black coat and spotted coat are co-dominant C. The gene for the spotted coat is dominant over the gene for the black coat D. The genotype for the F1 are homozygous dominant

45. What are the genotypes of the parents if the gene for skin colour is H?

According to Mendel’s first law of inheritance, segregation of genes occur when A. tall plants are crossbred. B. short plants are crossbred. C. tall plants and short plants are crossbred. D. plants are crossbred.

47. Which of the following statements about sex-linked characters is not true?
A. They are usually borne on the X-chromosome B. They are more common in males C. Males are usually carriers D. They are not usually carried on the Y chromosomes.

In explaining the term camouflage, to a class, the diagram below showing four varieties, P, Q, R, and S of the same species of fish living amongst water plants in a river were used. Use the diagram to answer questions 48 to 50.

48. Which of the varieties is likely to decrease most in number if a predatory fish is introduced into the river?
A. P B.Q C.R D. S.

49. Which of the varieties is most likely to outlive the others?
A.P B.Q C.R D. S.

50. The variety selected in question 49 will outlive the others because the
A. variety is the most beautiful. B. variety does not have markings. C. markings of the variety are similar to those of the environment. D. predator does not like eating the variety

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Biology 1 ANSWERS
I B 2B 3C 4B 5C 6A 7B 8B 9C I0D 11 A 12B 13C 14C 15B 16C 17B 18D 19A 20B 21C 22B 23A 24B 25C 26C 27D 28B 29A 30B 31B 32C 33A 34D 35A 36D 37C 38B 39B 40D 41 D 42C 43A 44C 45A 46C 47D 48A 49B 50C.

 

BIOLOGY 2

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

1(a) Explain briefly sexual reproduction in Rhizopus. (b) A student suddenly stepped on a big snake, he cried for help and rail away. (I) Name the hormone produced in the body for tile reaction. (ii) In which part of the human body is the hormone named in 1(a)(i) produced? (iii) State five changes that must have taken place as a result of the hormone named in 1(a)(i). (c)(i) In a tabular form, state three differences between excretion in flowering plants and excretion in humans. (ii) List two organelles found in a plant cell that are responsible for the excretion of metabolic wastes.

2.(a) Explain how the leaf of a flowering plant is adapted for photosynthesis. (b) Describe briefly the mode of feeding in tapeworms. (c) Name one mineral element each needed for the proper functioning of (I) bones; (ii) red blood cells; (iii) thyroid gland. (d)(i) State three benefits of including roughage in the diet of humans. (ii) State three reasons why proteins are important to humans.

3.(a)(i) What is sewage? (ii) State five effects of releasing untreated sewage into a stagnant water body. (b) Explain surface terracing as a soil conservation method. (c) Explain the term adoption. (d) Explain two ways each by which the following organisms adapt to their habitats: (i) hydrophytes; (ii) xerophytes.

4.(a) Explain the following terms: (i) ICSI cross, (ii) monohybrid cross. (b) In a mango plant, the allele for bean-shaped seed is r and is recessive to round-shaped seed R. With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the genotypes of the offspring if: (i) a homozygous bean-shaped parent is crossed with a homozygous round shaped parent; (ii) a heterozygous bean-shaped parent is crossed with a heterozygous round shaped parent.

6(a) Copy and complete the table below.

(b) Make a labelled diagram of the carbon cycle. (c)(i) What is an Florine habitat? (ii) Construct a food chain typical of an Estuarine habitat. (d)(i)Name two pests and two diseases that can attack plant crops. (ii) State three ways of controlling plant diseases. (e) State four functions of a public health authority. (f)State four ways of maintaining food hygiene in the community.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Biology 2 ANSWERS

1(a) Sexual Reproduction in Rhizopus: By conjugation —It is usually between two strains of hyphae —Known as + and—/Plus and minus/opposite mating types —The hyphae come in contact —And produce small projections on their walls —Which develop into progarnetanoa with several nuclei —The two progametangoa enlarge —Each progamatangiurn develops a cross wall to divide into two parts; the garnetangium and suspensor —Subsequently the wall dissolves/breaks and their contents/nuclei fuse to form a zygote —The zygote develops a thick wall to form a resistant zygospore; —The zygospore germinates during favourable/damp/wet condition —Into hypae which bear sporangoa.

(b)(i) Name of hormone: Adrenalin/Adrenaline. (ii) Part where hormone is produced: Adrenal gland/Medulla. (iii) Changes that must have taken place as a result of the hormone: —Increase in heart beat —Increase in rate of respiration —Arterioles of skin and alimentary canal contract —Dilation of blood vessels that cause more blood to flow to the muscles/heart/lungs —Increase in muscular tone/voluntary muscles become tensed —Glycogen is converted to glucose/increase in blood sugar level —To produce more energy —Dilation of pupils of the eye —Momentary fright/fear/anxiety/heavy breathing —Spleen releases more red blood cells from the reserve —Increase in blood pressure

(c)(i) Differences between excretion in flowering plants and excretion in humans.
Flowering plants 
—No definite excretory organs.
—Waste products include tanins/resins alkaloids/ gums, etc.
—Excretory products produced in small quantities.
—Excretory products released at a slower rate.
—Most excretory products tannins/ranins/alkoloids gums are stored.
—Some excretory products/carbon dioxide/oxygen/ water vapour can be reused.
—Excretory products are derived from simple organic molecules.

Humans
– Definite excretory organs/presence of kidney/liver/ skin.
– Waste products include urine/urea/sweat/salts, etc.
– Excretory products produced in large quantities.
– Excretory products released at a faster rate.
– Most excretory products are completely removed.
– Some excretory products/urea/urine acid cannot be reused.
– Excretory products are derived from complex organic molecules.

(c)(ii) Organelles in plant cells responsible for excretion of metabolic wastes: Mitochondrium/ Mitochondria chloroplast/chloroplast.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

2.(a) Adaptation of leaf for photosynthesis: —Broad/flat leaf lamella; exposes large surface are for maximum absorption of light. —Palisade mesophyll / cells contain a lot of chloroplast/chlorophyll I; for maximum absorption of light. – Position of leaf to stem, for optimum reception of light rays/sunlight. —Thin lamella; allows light penetration into leaf tissue of mesophyll. —Palisade cells are at right angle/perpendicular to the upper epidermis/ chloroplasts for photosynthesis, —Large vacuoles of the palisade cells; store photosynthesis products. —Large intracellular air spaces in the spongy mesophyll; allow oxygen/carbon dioxide to diffuse in/out of the chlorophylls cells/gaseous exchange. —The epidermal cells have the cell walls; for easy penetration of sunlight to the mesophyll; —Guard cells have chloroplast, for the absorption of sunlight. —the bean-shaped structure of the guard cell; is to allow for gaseous exchange. —The stomata; open easily when it becomes turgid for diffusion of gases/carbon dioxide oxygen. —Xylem/conducts water into the leaves for photosynthesis. —Phloem transports manufactured food to other parts of the plant. (b) Mode of feeding of tapeworm: Parasitic node of feeding; lives in the guts of man/pigs; has hooks/suckers; which enable it attach itself to the linage of the intestine of the host; has a flattened tape-like/ribbon-like body; provides large surface area for absorption of digested food; no alimentary/digestive system.

(c) Mineral elements necessary for the proper functioning of Bones: Calcium; phosphorus; fluorine. (ii) Red blood cells: Iron, copper. (iii) Thyroid gland: Iodine. (d)(i) Benefits of including roughages in the diet of humans: —Stimulates bowel movement/peristalsis. —Reduces blood cholesterol/bowel cancer/gall stones/appendicitis/obesity/diabetics mellitus. —They do not contribute to weight gain/high blood sugar. —It releases glucose slowly —it prevents constipation. (d)(ii) Importance of proteins to humans: —For the repair of damaged tissues. —Replacement of worn-out tissues. —For body building. —For growth. —For the supply of the necessary amino, acids. —For formation of hormones/enzymes/antibodies/forming fibrinogen necessary for blood clotting.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

3(a)(i) Sewage: Waste matter/faeces, urine, waste water from animals/industrial/domestic sources. that is dissolved/ suspended in water. (ii) Effects of releasing untreated sewage into stagnant. water body: —Spread of water-borne diseases/correctly named diseases/microbes/pathogens. —May be toxic/poisonous to aquatic life/ organisms. —Makes water unfit for consumption/use. —Increased decomposition. —increased concentration of nutrients. —Rapid growth of algae/aquatic plants/algae bloom/eutrophication. —Depiction of oxygen. —Suffocation/death of aquatic animals. —Generates offensive odour/air pollution. —Nutrient/ phosphate enrichment! accumulation in a water body as a result of breakdown by bacteria. (b) Surface terracing as a soil conservation method: —A method of controlling erosion on a gentle/slope of hill. Flat horizontal areas are constructed on which crops are cultivated. —Following the contour. —Steps/ at Is are built along the contours. —Ploughing is also done along the contours. Reduces the speed of water running dos’. n the slopes.

(c) Adaptation: Is the possession of the characteristic/trait/behaviour/structure feature. that evolved over a period of time. Enable an organism to survive and reproduce in response to changes in the environment/habitat. (d)(i) Adaptation of hydrophytes: —Some hydrophytes lack/have reduced root/root /root caps.—Do not need farm anchorage in water/wet land. —Presence of large air space/parenchyma in roots/leaves, provide support for buoyancy. —Presence of hairs on the leaves, to prevent blockage of the stomata. —Stomata pores; occur only at the upper epidermis of the leaves to aid transpiration/loss of water. —Numerous adventitious roots and root hairs; aid the absorption of water/mineral salts. —Small size of the plant for buoyancy/floating in water. —Waxy upper surface of the leaf, to prevent clogging of the leaf by water. -tong petiole/leaf stalk to support/expose the broad/lamina for photosynthesis. —Long flower stalk/pedicel, to expose flower for pollination/pollinating agents. —Presence of breaking roots for breathing/gaseous exchange. (ii) Xerophytes: —Possession of thick succulent leave/stein; for, storing water.. —Reduction of leaves to spines to reduce water loss/rate of transpiration. —Thickly waxy cuticle of epidermis, to reduce water loss/transpiration. —Possession of long tap root system, to obtain water from great depth of soil. —Presence of sunken stomata, to reduce water loss. —Reduced number of stomata, layers for water conservation/ to reduce water loss.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

4(a) Following terms of: (I) Test cross: This is the crossing/mating of an organism of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive double recessive organism, to determine the genotype of an organism. (ii) Monohybrid cross: It is a genetic cross between parents, that differ in the alleles they possess, for one particular gene. (b) Crosses: (i) R = Round seed, r = bean-shaped seed. Parental genotype chomozygous

6(a) Kidney Diseases
(b) The carbon cycle

(c)(i) Estuarian habitat: Is the place/point where a river enters the ocean/sea, into which the tides flow, fresh water mixes with water, to form bracket water. (ii) Food chain typical of an estuarine: Phytoplankton ~ barnacles ~ fish ~ bird. Detritus ~ worm ~ mollusc ~ bird. Detritus ~ shrimp ~ fish ~ bird.

(d)(i) Pests that can attack plant crops: Stem borer, army worm, weevil Is. black tea-trips, aphids, root mealybugs. variegated grasshopper, beetle, rodents squirrel.
Disease that can attack crops: Leaf spots, cankers, rosette, rice blast, root knots, swollen shoot of cocoa, sigatoka, black pod of cocoa freckle, root/stem rots, bacteria blight, snut, downy mildew, powdery, mildew.

(ii) Ways of controlling plant diseases: —chemical control/use of fungicides/nematicides/bactericides/pesticides. —Biological control/use of predators and parasites of insects/pests to keep them in check. —Breeding resistant varieties of crop. —Planting genetically modified crops that can resist viruses/bacteria transmitted by pests. – Destruction of infested crops by burning/deep burial/pruning of affected parts. —Destruction of alternate host. – Adopt good management/crop rotation. (e) Functions of a public health authority: —Ensures cleanliness of public places/markets/schools/playground. —Concerned with the proper disposal of refuse. —Provides maternity clinic/health centres/nursery homes/family planning. —Provides medical inspection of schools. —Provides child welfare services. —Registers births/deaths. —Prevents/controls/infectious diseases/administers vaccination/immunization. —Informs World Health Organization of the outbreak of infectious diseases. —Ensures adequate provision of clean water to the public. —Provides quarantine services for plants/animals/ humans. —Gives health certificates to travellers. —Provides public health education/awareness of diseases. —Inspects and certifies health of animals and cleanliness of slaughter houses/abattoirs. (f) Ways of maintaining food hygiene: —Proper harvesting/storage methods must be ensured to prevent damage to food items. —Food items must be properly washed/cleaned to prevent contamination. —Food items must be properly cooked at appropriate temperatures. —Kitchens/cooking areas must be kept clean always/free from germs. —Perishable food items must be properly preserved/refrigerated. —Proper personal hygiene must be observed by those handling food. —Cooking utensils must be properly washed/cleaned before and after use. —Cooked/prepared food must be covered at all times. —Proper disposal of unused/left over food.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions: GEOGRAPHY 1

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers, Study the Map of BUTO DISTRICT and use it to answer questions I to 10.

 

I. What is the scale of the map in statement form?
A. One centimetre on the map represents half a kilometre on the ground B. One centimetre on the map represents one and half kilometers on the ground C. One centimetre on the map represents two kilometres on the ground D. One centimetre on the map represents four kilometres on the ground

2. What is the approximate distance as the crow flies from Marni to Esho?
A. 12.0 km B. 9.0 km C. 3.0km D. 1.5 km.

3. Which of the following settlements performs administrative function?
A. Jaba B. Ede C. BUTO D. ltiti.

4. In which part of the mapped area is lumbering
a likely economic activity?
A. Northeast B. Southeast C. Southwest  D. Northwest.

5. What is the direction of flow of River Afikpo?
A. Southwest B. Northeast C. Northwest D. Southeast.

6. What is the settlement pattern of Ede?
A. Isolated B. Dispersed C. Annular D. Linear.

7. What is the contour interval of the map?
A. 25 metres B. 50 metres C. 100 meters D. 150 meters.

8. Which economic activity could be practiced in the south-eastern part of the mapped area?
A. Animal rearing B. Lumbering C. Trading D. Mining.

9. Which of the following modes of transport is commonly used in the mapped area?
A. River B. Road C. Rail D. Air.

10. The distance by road from Mami to BUTO is approximately
A.9.0km. B. 14.0 km. C. 23.0km. D. 25.0 km.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

II. The hottest planet is
A. venus B. pluto. C. mercury. D. Jupiter.

12. When does eclipse of the moon occur?
A. When the earth comes between the sun and the moon B. Whenever the earth rotates through 360° C. When the sun comes between the moon and the earth D. When the earth completes a revolution.

13. The upfolded portion of a fold mountain is called
A. Sial. B. Anticline. C. Syncline. D. Sill.

14. The part of the earth’s crust which is made up of silica and alumina is the
A. sima. B. mantle. C. barysphere. D. sial.

15. During equinox,
A. the Tropic of Cancer experiences longer day than the Tropic of Capricorn. B. all places across the globe experience equal lengths of day and night. C. the length of day at the Equator is shorter than at the Tropic of Cancer. D. the moon is star-shaped all through the night all over the world.

16. Whenever volcanic eruption occurs.
A. a new flat surface emerges. B. residual mountains are formed. C. over-thrust fold is formed. D. gases and molten magma are ejected.

17. The extent of coastal erosion depends on the
A. amount of fresh water supplied by tributaries. B. depth of ocean water. C. salinity of the ocean. D. nature of the waves.

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of igneous rock?
A. Loose in composition B. Arranged in layers C. Crystalline in nature D. Porous in granular structure.

19. The temperature at the foot of a mountain is 20°e. If the mountain is 6000 meters above sea level, what will be the temperature at the top of the mountain?
A. -190°C B. -16.0°C C. 14.0°C D. 19.0°C.

20. Wind erosion is common in arid areas because
A. rains are widespread and long lasting. B. wind speed is high and there are few wind breaks. C. pressure falls below normal in desert areas. D. the rocks are resistant to heat.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

21. Which of the following features could be found in the upper course of rivers?
A. Ox-bow lakes B. Waterfall C. Deltas D. Levees

22. Ash and cinder cones are associated with
A. ozone depletion. B. hurricane’s activities. C. earthquakes. D. volcanic eruption.

23. Deposition of fine grained sand carried over long distance by wind is known as
A. chernozem. B. laterite. C. loess. D. podzols.

24. The core of the earth is also called
A. mesosphere. B. lithosphere. C. hydrosphere. D. barysphere.

25. Which of the following environmental resources is non-renewable?
A. Rain B. Minerals C. Water D. Oxygen.

26. Relief rainfall is common around the
A. lowland areas. B. peneplains. C. highland areas. D. Sahara Desert.

27. Which of the following features is of volcanic origin?
A. Sill B. Zeugen C. Loess D. Gorge.

28. The instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure is
A. hygrometer. B. barometer. C. thermometer. D. anemometer.

29. The gradual breakdown of rocks in situ by either physical or chemical process is called
A. erosion. B. denudation. C. weathering. D. deposition.

30. The fourth planet from the sun in the solar system is
A. Mercury. B. Uranus. C. Neptune. D. Mars

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

31. Which rock type involves stratification?
A. Metamorphic B. Sedimentary C. Volcanic D. Igneous.

32. Which type of rainfall occurs when two air masses of different temperatures and other physical properties meet?
A. Orographic rainfall B. Relief rainfall C. Cyclonic rainfall D. Convectional rainfall.

33. In which regions can stalactites, swallow holes and caverns be found?
A. Plateau regions B. Coastal regions C. Mountainous regions D. Limestone regions

34. The remains of eroded highlands in desert and semi-desert environments are commonly called
A. seif dunes. B. barchans. C. inselbergs. D. volcanic plug. .

35. The time in town X on Longitude 15 °E is 4.00. p.m. What will be the time in town Y on longitude 15 °W?
A. 2.00 am. B. 2.00 p.m. C. 6.00 p.m. D. 6.00 a.m.

36. Which of the following is an advantage of solar ,energy over other sources of energy?
A. It is easily renewable B. It requires physical gradient difference C. The demand for it comes from specialized agencies D. Its waste is difficult to manage.

37. One relative advantage of water transport over road transport is its
A. great speed over long distances. B. capacity .for carrying bulky goods. C. ability’ to link all parts of a country. D. ability to withstand bad weather.

38. The number of people living in a unit area of land is termed its
A. birth rate. B. death rate. C. dependency ratio .D. population density.

39. An effect of rural-urban migration on the source region is
A. rural depopulation. , B. urban depopulation. C. rural employment. D. rural unemployment.

40. Which of the following best explains the high rate of population growth in West Africa?
A. Birth control policies B. High birth rate and low death rate C. Low birth rate and high death rate D. High rate of immigration.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

41. Which of the following features distinguishes heavy industries from light industries?
A. Complexities of processing techniques B. Amount of waste products generated C. Ownership structure of the firm D. Source of raw materials.

42. The cheapest mode of transport for the conveyance of bulky goods across countries is
A. air. B. land. C. pipeline. D. water.

43. The major trading partners of the Anglophone West African countries are
A. Britain. U.S.A. Germany and Japan. B. Germany, China, South Africa and Norway C. Belgium, India. Columbia and Chile. D. Chile, Pakistan. Japan and Britain.

44. Which of the following is true of inter community relationship?
A. Females migrate to rural areas to give birth B. Youth migrate to urban areas in search of jobs C. Immigrants settle in the city’s Central Business District D, City dwellers seek schools for their children in rural areas.

45. If a country has a population of 20,000,000 and its size is 1,000.000 km’, then its population density is
A. 5 persons/Km²  B. 15 persons/Km². C. 20 persons/Km²: D. 30 persons/Km²

46. Which of the following criteria is not important in distinguishing between a village and a town?
A. Geographical situation B. Population size C. Range of functions D. Variety of activities

47, One of the usefulness of import tariff on imported goods is the
A. encouragement of importation from abroad. B. multiplication of foreign goods in local markets. C. protection of infant industries. D. saving of money in foreign accounts.

48. One of the problems limiting the achievement of the objectives of the Economic Community of West Africa States is
A. use of common currency. B. strong colonial ties. C. climatic differences. D. similarity in languages.

49. Cattle ranching is not common in the forest regions of West Africa because of the
A. scarcity of grass for fodder. B. presence of tsetse flies. C. absence of Fulani herdsmen. D. presence of wild life.

50. The location of market gardening near large cities is best explained by
A. availability of power. B. fertile soil. C. perishability of products D. efficient transportation.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Geography 1 ANSWERS
I.A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C 8.A 9.B 10.A II.C 12.A 13. B 14.D 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. C 19.A 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. C 27.A 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. D 34.C 35. B 36.A 37. B 38. D 39.A 40. B 41.A 42. D 43.A 44.B 45. C 46.A 47.C 48.A 49.B 50.C

 

GEOGRAPHY 2

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

 

Study the map extract provided on a scale of 1:50,000 and answer the questions that follow. In your answer booklet, reduce the mapped area to a third of its original size and state the scale of the new outline. In your new outline, insert and name: (i) River Pra and indicate its direction of flow with an arrow; (ii) The class 3 road running from PRASO settlement to AKIM OFOASE settlement; (iii) KOTOKUOM settlement. (c) Describe three drainage characteristics of River Pra. (d) Using evidence from the map, state three functions of AKIM OFOASE settlement.

2. The data below shows the number of farmers who cultivated the underlisted crops in Ajok Region from 2005 to 2007.

(a) Draw a divided bar graph to represent the data. (b) Calculate the number of farmers who cultivated rice from 2005 to 2007. (c) What is the major difference between simple bar graph and the component/divided bar graph?

3(a) Explain the following terms: (i) rotation of the earth; (ii) revolution of the earth; (iii) equinox.(b) Outline three effects of the revolution of the earth.

4(a) List three landforms found in the upper course of a river valley.(b) With the aid of diagrams, describe the characteristics and mode of formation of an ox-bow lake.

5(a) List any three types of mountains. (b) In what four ways are mountains important to man?(c) Outline two problems caused by mountains.

6(a) Define climate. (b)Describe the three climatic belts recognized by the Greek system of classification.(c) Outline three reasons why koppen’s system of climatic classification is the most widely accepted.

7(a) What are environmental hazards? (b) List three examples of environmental hazards. (c) Explain five ways of preventing desert encroachment.

8(a) List three features of coastal erosion. (b) With the aid of diagrams, describe the characteristics and mode of formation of a beach.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Geography 2 ANSWERS

I.(a)

Old length = 37.5 cm
Old breadth = 36.9 cm
Old scale = I : 50,000
New outline (Third it’s Original size).
Length = 37.5 cm 7 3 = 12.5 cm
Breadth = 36.9 cm 7 3 = I2.3 cm
Scale = I :50,000 x 3 = I : 150,000.
NB. When reducing a map, the scale will increase.

(b) Insertions and naming are shown on the outline.

(c) Drainage characteristics of River Pra:
(i) River Pra has many confluences. (ii) It flows through a narrow valley. (iii) Flows through an undulating plain. (iv) Has many tributaries such as Asuakoko, Mamarn Abusabekum, Adukumasua. (v) River pra flows from the north to the south. (vi) River pra is about 10ft. – 100ft wide. (vii) It is the major river in the area. (viii)
Meanders through its courses. (ix) River Anum is
the tributary. (x) Exhibits dendritic pattern of drainage.

(d) Functions of Akirn Ofoase:
(i) Educational function because of the presence of school. (i i) Commercial function because of the presence of a market. (i ii) Religious function because of the presence of a church. (iv) Transportation function because it is a nodal town. (v) Hospitality function because of the presence of a Rest House. (vi) Communication function because of the presence of a post office. (vii) Health centre because of the presence of clinic. (viii) Security function because of the presence of a police station. (ix) Administrative function because of the presence of court, police station, post office, etc. (x) Judicial function because of the presence of court house.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

2. (a)

(b) Total number of farmers who cultivated rice from 2005 – 2007: 45 + 55 + 70 = 170

(c) Major difference between simple bar chart and the component / divided bar chart or graph: Simple bar chart shows only one component in a bar while component or divided bar graph shows many components in a bar.

3.(a)
(i) Rotation of the Earth:
– The movement of the earth on its axis.
– The earth rotates from west to east.
– The earth rotates in an anti-clockwise direction.
– Earth completes its rotation in 24 hours.
– The speed of rotation is approximately 4.7 km per second at the equator.
– 2.3km per second at latitude 60°.
(ii) Revolution of the Earth:
– Movement of the earth around the sun.
– The orbit is elliptical or oval shape.
– Earth takes 365 y,; days to complete a revolution.
– The path along which the earth revolves is called orbit.
– Revolving earth is inclined at angle 66Yz°to the plane of the ecliptic.
– Average distance between the earth and the sum is 148,800,000km.
(iii) Equinox:
– Equal day and night all over the world.
– Occurs twice a year.
– March 21st and September 23rd.
– Mid-day sun is directed overhead at the equator.
– May be in the spring or Autumn.
– In Northern hemisphere, spring equinox occurs on march 21st.
– In southern hemisphere, spring equinox is on September 23rd.

(b) Effects of the revolution of the earth:
(i) Marking of a year. (i i) Causes changes in seasons. (iii) Changes in the altitude of the mid-day sun. (iv) Varying lengths of day and night.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

4. (a) Landforms found in the upper course of a river:
(i) Gorge. (ii) V-shaped valley. (iii) Water fall. (iv) Rapids / Cataracts. (v) Interlocking spurs. (vi) Pot holes. (vii) Wind gap. (viii) Misfit. (ix) Elbow of capture. (x) Plunge pool.

4. (b) Characteristics of an Oxbow lake:
(i) Landform of deposition by river. (ii) Feature of lower course of a river. (iii) Erosion on the concave bank. (iv) Deposition on the convex bank. (v) Neck becomes very narrow. (vi) River breaks through the narrow neck during floods. (vii) Leads to deposition of sediment at the entrance of the loop. (viii) Results in a cut off lake called oxbow lake.
Formation of an oxbow lake: (i) Formed in the lower course of a river. (ii) Formed due to pronounced meanders. (iii) Erosion on the concave bank. (iv) Deposition on the convex bank. (v) Neck becomes very narrow. (vi) River breaks through the narrow neck during floods. (vii) Leads to deposition of sediments at the entrance of the loop.(viii) Results in a cut off lake called oxbow lake.

5. (a) Types of mountains:
(I) Block mountains. (ii) Fold mountains. (iii) Volcanic mountains. (iv) Residual mountains.

b. Ways by which mountains are important to man:
(i) Source of mineral. e.g. Gold. Coal. etc. (ii) Formation of rainfall, e.g. relief rainfall. (iii) For transhumance e.g. The Alps, in Switzerland and Austria. (iv) Climatic barrier, e.g. The Andes. (v) For defence, e.g. Olumo Rock (Nigeria). (vi) Tourism, e.g. Afedjato. (vii) Source of Rivers, e.g. Futa – Djallon. (viii) Construction of H.E.P, e.g. Niagara falls. (ix) As winds breakers, e.g. The rookies. (x) Rocks for construction. (xi) Habitats for wildlife. (xii) Sites for water reservoir. (xiii) Sites for communication masts. (xiv) Cultivation of some crops, e.g. Tea and Coffee. (xvi) Lumbering on mountain slopes, e.g. Scandinavia.

Problems caused by mountains:
(i) Barriers to communication. (ii) Hinders human settlement. (iii) Promote soil erosion. (iv) Barrier to transportation. (v) Some mountain soil are infertile. (vi) Encourage landslide. (vii) Volcanic eruption. (viii) Impedes mechanized farming.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

6. (a) Definition of Climate:
Climate is defined as the average condition of a place over a long period of time usually between 30 and 35 years.
Description of the climatic belts recognized by the Greek system of classification: (I) Torrid zone: This zone is found within the tropics. The zone is very hot. It has high temperature throughout the year. (ii) Temperature zone: This zone is found between the torrid and frigid zones. It has mild or moderate temperatures. It has seasonal contrasts in  temperature. (iii) Frigid zone: This zone is found between the polar regions (Artic and Antarctic regions). The zone is generally cold. Low temperature through out the year. It has lots of icecaps in the greater part of the year.
Reasons why the koppen’s system of climate classification is the most widely accepted: (i) It is very simple to understand. (ii) It is objective. (iii) It is quantitative because numerical values are used for defining boundaries of climatic groups. (iv) It is commonly used in teaching various levels of educating institutions. (v) It uses more than one parameter for classification.

7. (a) Meaning of environmental hazards:
Environmental hazards are disasters caused by nature or man which pose serious danger or risk to lives and properties of people in their environment.

(b) Examples of environmental hazards:
(i) Soil erosion. (ii) Desert encroachment. (iii) Drought. (iv)Air pollution. (v) Noise pollution. (vi) Land pollution. (vii) Flooding. (viii) Oil spillage. (ix) Earthquake. (x) Tsunami. (xi) Nuclear disasters. (xii) Volcanic eruption. (xiii) Landslide. (xiv) Windstorm. (xv) Hurricane /Tornados /Typhoon. (xvi) Collapse of mines. (xvii) Bush fires. (xviii) Disease epidermis. (xviv) Water pollution.

(c) Ways of preventing desert encroachment:
(i) Afforestation. (ii) Irrigation. (iii) Creation of shelter belts. (iv) Cover cropping. (v) Rotational / controlled grazing. (vi) Environmental education. (vii) Controlled lumbering. (viii) Legislation against indiscriminate bush burning.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

8. (a) Features of coastal erosion:
(i) Cave. (ii) Wave cut platform. (iii) Blow hole. (iv) Geo. (v) Stack. (vi) Headland (vii) Bay. (viii) Stump. (ix) Arch. (x) Cliff.

(b) Characteristics of a Beach:
(i) It is a coastal landform. (ii)Accumulation of sand, gravel or shingles. (iii) Mostly found where the coast is low lying. (iv) Could be long, covering many kilometres. (v) Have a concave profile, e.g. Busua beach, La beach, Bar beach, Lekki beach, etc.
Formation of a beach: (i) Formed at coastal areas. (ii) Formed by river deposition. (iii) Formed by swash and backwash. (iv) Active where there are low tides. (v) Sand and gravel loosened from land are carried away by waves. (vi) May be deposited in the shore as beach. (vii) Coarse materials are deposited at Iandward side. (viii) While small and fine materials are deposited at the seaward end. (ix) Grows seawards.

 

GEOGRAPHY 3

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

1. (a) List four commodities exported from your country to anyone European country. (b) Outline four reasons for the low volume of trade among West African countries. (c) Suggest four ways of improving trade among West African-countries.

2. (a) Define the following terms: (i) death rate: (ii) population explosion. (b) Explain five factors that influence death rate in Tropical Africa. (c) Outline three effects of a growing population in Tropical Africa.

3. (a) Outline five factors that should be considered in the location of an industry (b) State five benefits of industrialization to a country

4. (a) Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, show and name: (i) the position of Tropical Maritime air mass (S.W. Winds) in July; (ii) the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (I. T. C. Z) in July; (iii) the relative position of Tropical Continental air mass (N.E. Winds) in July; (iv) three towns located in 4(a,)(i} above. (b) State four characteristics of the wet season in Nigeria. (c) List two cash crops grown during the wet season in Nigeria.

5. (a) Outline five problems of agricultural development in Nigeria. (b) Suggest solutions to the problems outlined in 5(a) above.

6. (a) Draw a sketch map of Nigeria. On the map, show and name one area with: (i) Mangrove swamp vegetation;
(ii) Rain forest vegetation; (iii) Guinea savanna vegetation; (iv) Sudan savanna vegetation. (b) Name three types of trees found in the forest zone of Nigeria. (c) Explain four contributions of forest vegetation to the economic development of Nigeria.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers Geography 3 ANSWERS

I (a) Commodities exported from Nigeria my Country:
(i) Groundnut. (ii) Rubber. (iii) Cocoa: (iv) Cotton. (v) Timber. (vi) Palm produce. (vii) Crude oil. (viii) Hide and Skin. (ix) Tin and Columbite. (x) Fruits. (xi) Gum Arabic.

(b) Reasons for the low volume of trade among West African countries:
(i) Inadequate capital. (ii) Low level of technology. (iii) Political instability. (iv) Low level of savings. (v) Different currencies used in West African countries. (vi) Poor transportation and communication links. (vii) Taste for foreign goods.(viii) Colonial ties. (ix) High tariffs I Trade restrictions. ex) Production of similar goods. (xi) ‘Existence of regional Trade Unions. (xii) Poor qualities of goods. (xiii) Government policy. (xiv) Similarity of climate,

(c) Ways of improving trade among West African Countries:
(i) Removal of regional trade unions.(ii) Improvement in technology. (iii) Improvement of transportation and communication links. (iv) Regulation of barriers such as tariffs. (v) Good governance. (vi) Encouraging cross-border investment. (vii) Introduction of common currency. (viii) Manufacturing of goods usually imported from outside. (ix) encouragement of specialization in production. (x) Protection from foreign competition. (xi) Increase in wages and salaries. (xii) Education on self reliance to reduce dependence on colonial masters. (xiii) Implementing ECOWAS protocol to enlarge market. (xiv) Sensitization of the populace to patronize locally manufactured products. (xv) West African countries should work towards political stability.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

2(a) (i) Definition of Death rate: Death rate simply refers to the number of deaths ill a year per 1000 of a given population in a country. (ii) Definition of population explosion: This refers to the rapid increase in the population of a place over a short period of time.

(b) Factors that influence death rate in Tropical Africa:
(i) Poverty and insufficient food. (ii) Education and illiteracy. (iii) Natural disaster. (iv) Family planning. (v) Frequent accidents. (vi) Improvement in health care. (vii) Wars and conflicts. (viii) Diseases and epidemics. (ix) Improved sanitation and hygiene. (x) Improved standard of living. (xi) Improvement in food production. (xii) Level of economic development.

(c) Effects of a growing population in Tropical Africa:
(i) Social unrest. (ii) Food shortage. (iii) Large supply of labour. (iv) High demand for goods. (v) High cost of living. (vi) Increase in crime rate. (vii) Traffic congestion. (viii) Inadequate housing. (ix) Large market. (x) Pressure on social amenities. (xi) High rate of savings. (xii) Easy spread of diseases. (xiii) Increase in productivity. (xiv) Increase in tax revenue. (xv) Unemployment and underemployment. (xvi) Environmental pollution. (xvii) Increase in government expenditure. (xviii) Increase in social vices. (xix) Development of slums and ghetto. (xx) Poor waste management.
(xxi) Pressure on natural resources. 3(a) Factors that should be considered in the location of an industry: (i) Government policies. (ii) Raw materials resources. (iii)Availability of capital. (iv)Availability of labour. (v)Availability of market. (vi) Presence of transport network. (vi i) Power or fuel supplies. (vi ii) Availability of large area of land for expansion. (ix) Personal preference of the entrepreneur. (x) Political stability. (xi) Port facilities. (xii) The existence of an industrial estate. (xiii) Pull to existing industrial clusters.

3(b) Benefits of industrialization to a country:
(i) Employment generation. (ii) Promotes international trade. (iii) Transfer of technology. (iv) Control of inflation. (v) Provision of goods. (vi) Revenue to government. (vii) Foreign exchange earning. (viii) Curbing rural-urban migration. (ix) Improvement in standard of living. (x) Improvement in the balance of trade. (xi) Diversification of economy. (xii) Conservation of foreign exchange. (xiii) Funding of education and research. (xiv) Development of infrastructure and social amenities. (xv) Contribute to the Gross National Product. (GNP). (xvi) Skill acquisition and manpower development. (xvii) Growth of ancillary industries. (xviii) Stimulation of other sectors. (xix) Income to operators. (xxi) Prestige in the comity of nations.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

(4a)

(b) Characteristics of the wet season in Nigeria:
(I) The prevailing wind is the Tropical Maritime Airmass.(ii) Temperature is high. 27°C to 33°C. (iii) There is high pressure in the south due to low temperature. (iv) There is low pressure in the North due to high temperature. (v) Heavy rainfall occurs in Nigeria during the wet season (over 1500mm). (vi) The North experiences single maximum of rainfall. (vii) The South experiences double maxima of rainfall. (viii) Rainfall duration decreases from the South towards the North. (ix) Rainfall amount decreases from the South towards the North. (x) Rainy season starts in April and ends in October. (xi) Relative humidity of 809//0 to 100% decreases Northwards. (xii) Short dry season in August in the South – (August Break) (xiii) Heavy rainfall in July and September in the South. (xiv) Heavy rainfall in the North in July. (xv) Rain accompanied by thunderstorm and line squalls. (xvi) Diurnal range of temperature increases Northwards (2°C’— 11°C).

(c) Cash crops grown during the wet season in Nigeria:
(i) Maize. (ii) Rice. (iii) Oil palm. (iv) Coffee. (v) Kola nuts. (vi) Cocoa. (vii) Cashew nuts Ginger. (ix) Cotton. (x) Groundnuts.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

5(a)Problems pf agricultural development:
(i) Inadequate capital/credit. (ii) Land tenure system. (iii) Use of simple farm implements. (iv) Poor farming practices. (v) Inadequate storage facilities. (vi) Inadequate transport facilities. (vii) High taste for foreign agricultural products. (viii) Problem of pests such as rodents, locusts grasshoppers. etc.Problem of diseases such as black pod diseases, capsid bug, blight, aphids, etc. (x) Weather hazards/climatic conditions. (xi) High cost of agricultural inputs. (xii) Annual bush burning in some areas. (xiii) inadequate basic facilities such as electricity, pipe borne water, etc. (xiv) Inadequate processing facilities. (xv) Rural-urban migration. (xvi) inadequate pasture. (xvii) Negative attitude towards agriculture. (xviii) Inadequate extension services. (xix) Price fluctuation. (xxi) Poor leached soils in some areas. (xxii) Reluctance of farmers to accept innovations. (xxiii) Management problems. (xxiv) Inconsistent government -policies. (xxv) Smuggling of agricultural products. (b) Solutions to the problems: (i) Land reform policy. (ii) Training and re-training of extension workers. (iii) Price control measures. (iv) Use of disease control measures. (v) Provision of loan facilities. (vi) Provision of adequate storage facilities. (vii) Use of pesticides. (viii) Training of farmers. (ix) Mechanization of agriculture. (x) Use of manures and fertilizers. (xi) Social orientation. (xii) Controlled grazing/Ranching. (xiii) Restriction on importation of agricultural products. (xiv) Development of rural areas. (xv) Improvement in transportation network. (xvi) Practice of irrigation agriculture. (xvii) Conflicts resolution between farmers and nomadic cattle rearers. (xviii) Establishment of processing plants. (xix) Subsidy for agricultural inputs. (xx) Consistent government policy on agriculture. (xxi) Effective management of agricultural resources. (xxii) Improved border patrols. (xxiii) Legislation against burning

(6a)

Trees found in the forest zone of Nigeria:
(i) Mahogany. (ii) African Walnut. (iii) Iroko. (iv) Opepe. (v) Obeche. (vi) Sapele wood. (vii) Silk cotton.

(6c). Contributions of forest vegetation to the economic development of Nigeria:
(i) Provides raw materials for industries. (ii) Provides raw materials for arts and crafts. (iii) Provides food. (iv) Provides jobs for hunters, lumbermen, etc. (v) Attracts tourism. (vi) Provides wood for construction. (vii) Provides habitats for wildlife.. (viii) Timber for export or foreign exchange. (ix) Provides wood for construction purposes. (x) Provides herbs for medicine

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions: ENGLISH LANGUAGE 1

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words lettered 1 to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.

1. The officer was expecting to be…………..by his boss, but he was censured.
A. questioned. B. praised. C. decorated. D. guided.

2. The honour that was conferred on the general has been……………..
A. withdrawn. B. confirmed. C, rejected . d. destroyed.

3. The modest young man was rewarded while his………..brother was punished.
A. intelligent B. handsome C. conceited D. wicked

4. Young people are known for their……………which contrasts with the composure of adults.
A. ability B. instability C. activity D. credibility

5. It is a fact that pride is a less admirable quality than …………..
A. humility. B. honesty. C. affection, D. tenderness.

6. It is obvious that many people prefer affluence to…………….
A. scarcity. B. thrift, C. waste. D. poverty.

7. While some workers felt that the terms were amicable; others thought that they were…….
A. strange. B. disagreeable. C. bad. D. hostile.

8. Now that the people of this community are living in comfort, I don’t think they will want to go back to their days of…………………..
A. disappointment B. hardship. C. strife. D. starvation.

9. False witnesses castigate rather than…………….the accused.
A. expose B. appease C. punish D. exonerate

10. Some teachers dissuade students from studying Mathematics, but others…………..them.
A. motivate B. lure C. instruct D. reward

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the ward that best completes each of the lb/lowing sentences,

11. After assuring the authorities that he would not escape, the prisoner was released on ………
A. suspension. B. record. C. parole. D. probation.

12. A judge is required to ………………..justice fairly.
A. defer. B. dispense. C. define. D. dispel.

13. The disease was ………….. . ….. by the doctors as pneumonia.
A. diagnosed B. prescribed C. construed D. decided

14. The court granted an………………………against the eviction of the tenant.
A. adjournment B. injunction C. indictment D. adjudication

15. He was given a certificate of. …………….. in English.
A. efficacy B. efficiency C. proficiency D. sufficiency

16. The ………………..years of child’s life mould his character.
A. restrained B. constructive C. conflicting D. formative

17. Ile bore his troubles with……………………..
A. leniency. B. preference. C. discretion. D. patience.

18. Public money should be used only for…………………purposes.
A. legitimate B. discreet C. legal D. executive

19. The truth of the evidence is…………………
A. irreversible. B. irrefutable. C. irreparable. D. irretrievable.

20. As a millionaire, he lives in…………………
A. prudence. B. affluence. C. frugality. D. abundance.

 

SECTION 3
After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate/or each-sentence.

21. On hearing the news, he flew off the handle. This means that he
A. changed his decision. B. ran away. C. felt very disappointed D. became very angry.

22. John’s money was barely enough to keep the wolf from the door. This means that
A. John had killed a wolf. B. the money was just sufficient. C. the situation was desperate. D. John spent money lavishly.

23. He was given the boot by the chairman This means that he was
A. offered a pair of boots. B. promoted. C. sacked. D. sent to buy boots.

24. Since he left home, he has been trying to find his feet. This means that he
A. has been suffering a lot. B. lost his pair of shoes. C. has forgotten about his relatives. D. has been trying to get used to his new situation.

25. He finds it difficult to put up with her behaviour. This means that he finds it difficult to
A. tolerate her behaviour. B. understand her behaviour. C. determine her behaviour. D. consider her behaviour,

26. The government troops extended the olive branch to the rebels. This means that the government troops
A. had reached a critical stage. B. killed a lot of rebels. C. were ready for peace. D. defended their territory bravely.

27. At the last minute, he had cold feet. This means that he
A. suddenly fell ill. B. became nervous. C. lost his imagination. D. rejected the offer.

28. He was advised to pull himself together. This means that he was advised to
A. keep his plans secret. B. change his mind. C. control himself. D. keep the matter to himself.

29. He was sad to learn that his friend had gone round the bend. This means that his friend had
A. gone overseas. B. gone mad. C. lost his job. D. been very ill.

30. The young man quickly paid his debt to save his face. This means that the young man
A wanted to avoid disgrace. B. did not want to be slapped. C. wanted to preserve his looks. D. did not want to be a debtor.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 4
From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.

31. Modou is endowed with great potential.
A. enlightened B. provided C. gifted D. inspired

32. Collaboration is essential to the success of the team.
A. desired B. indispensable C. effective D. appropriate

33. I really wish to assure you that we now have a reliable leader.
A. dependable B. realistic C. sensible D. resolute

34. This is a chance of a life time.
A. an advantage B. a privilege C. an opportunity D. a possibility

35. Children often behave badly out of ignorance.
A. illiteracy B. inexperience C. unfamiliarity D. simplicity

36. She lived a virtuous life.
A. modest B. brave C. normal D. righteous

37. Olu insisted on his freedom to choose his career.
A. wish B. independence C. ability D. right

38. Hindering justice may earn you a fine.
A. impeding B. Retarding C. Stopping D. Delaying

39. The professor’s explanation of the point was very lucid
A. long B. clear C. prompt D. complicated

40. The luminous hands of the clock attracted the baby.
A. bright B. colourful C. glaring D. beautiful

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 5
From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.’

41. That utterance is quite unlike you, please, come………………..it!
A. through B. of C. off D. against

42. If I ………………….. enough money, I would buy a car.
A. had B. have had C. had had D. have

43. He should take…………………..the appointment next week.
A. in B. up C. on D to

44. In trying to escape, the thief ran……………..the police.
A. upon B. by C. into D. through

45. I have always counted …………………..his friendship.
A. in B. to C. with D. on

46. The caller was told to…………………the line.
A. hold off B. hold up C. hold on D. hold

47. The coach …………..him to have scored a goal.
A. was expecting B. expected C. had expected D. has expected

48. After eating all the mangoes, he shouldn’t complain of stomach ache……?
A. isn’t it B. would he C. should he D. should it

49. Mary did her best………..failed to reach the pass mark.
A. but B. however C. so D. and

50. The authorities have shown no signs of giving…………..to their demands.
A. off B. away C. over D. in

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

51. We must hurry now for there is not ………..time left.
A. some B. much C. plenty D. any

52. Those properties are……………………sale.
A. up for B. up on C. out for D. down on

53. I have always preferred unripe plantain ……………….am.
A. to B than C. from D. for

54. Give it to Aminata, it is………..
A. her B. their C. yours D. hers

55. Please, don’t speak evil…………………the dead.
A. to B. of C. on D. for

56. My brother was about………..his house when I arrived.
A. to leaving B. to have left C. to leave I). to be leaving

57. Neither Jack nor Jill………………….there yesterday.
A. are B. were C. is D. was

58. I have……………..completed the task.
A more and less B. more or less C. more than less D. more but less

59. After two hours of continuous work, the group broke……………..lunch.
A. with B. from C. for D. to

60. He finally hit………………the idea of travelling abroad.
A. out B. at C. on D. up

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

61. The standard of education has gone………..
A. out B. down C. off. D. by

62. The council appointed a………..committee to look into the matter.
A. five-men B five-men’s C. live-man D. five-man’s

63. After the quarrel, he made it………………..to his friend.
A. in B. out C. on D. up

64. The task is……..for us to undertake
A. much too difficult B. too much difficult C. more too difficult D. quite too difficult

65. I will always stand…………….him.
A. by B. with C. to D. for

66. We arrived just……………..time for the grand opening.
A. by B. about C. before D. in

67. Bakary can lift this heavy log……………..
A. isn’t it B. can’t he C. does he D. doesn’t he

68. The President’s speech…………yesterday at 8.00 p.m
A. is broadcast B. is being broadcast C. has been broadcast D. was broadcast

69. It is such a bad place…………..I will never dream of going there again.
A. thus B. therefore C. that D. then

70. We will leave…………….you are ready.
A. as when B. whenever C. as ever D. soon as

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 6
In the following passage, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below the passage, four options are given in columns lettered A to D. Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the passage.

The life of a professional sportsman is always hectic. Consider his typical day. As soon as he wakes up in the morning, he jumps out of bed hurriedly and wears his -71 –. Promptly, he goes out to -72- for an hour or, so, covering a few miles. However, on some other days, he might choose to practice with the skipping – 73- at home. Having completed whichever one it is. he goes in for a shower and dresses for the day’s training -74-. This phase varies according to his specialty. If he is a boxer, he goes into the -75 – to deal with the punching bag and later with a sparring partner, usually under the watchful -76- of his coach. If he is a sprinter, he engages in continuous practice, -77- his performance with a stopwatch. If he is in football, net ball, volley balls or lawn tennis, he can best practice with .others while the coach watches, calling attention to specific skills and -78- not well mastered. In most cases, training lasts virtually the better part of a day, and often ends in discussions where certain technicalities are ironed out.
Now, when medals are -79-. most people who just watch actions on the television hardly realize what it takes to become a star. When all the -80- are considered and the high risks taken into account, one would realize that a star is worth the millions he earns.

A. jump suit  B. tracksuit  C. swimsuit  D. shell suit
A. trot  B. skip  C. jog  D. jump
A. cord  B. rope  C. string  D. twine
A. practice  B. sessions  C. regime  D. rehearsal
A. stadium  B. sports club  C. sports centre  D. gymnasium
A. supervision  B. custody  C. command  D. charge
A. calculating  B. gauging  C. timing  D. assessing
A. techniques  B. systems  C. methods  D. procedures.
A. achieved  B. secured  C. won  D. lifted
A. struggles  B. pains  C. hurts  D. rigours

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers English 1 ANSWERS
1,B 2,A 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.D 7. B 8.B 9.D 10. .A 11.D 12.B 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.C l8.A 19.B 20.B 21.D 22.C 23 C 24.D 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.C 29B 30.A 31.C 32.B 33.A 34.C 35.B 36.D 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.A 41.C 42.B 43.B 44.C 45.D 46.D 47. B 48,C 49.A 50.D 51.B 52.A 53.A 54.D 55.,B 56.C 57.D 58.B 59.C 60.C 61.B 62.C 63.D 64.A 65.A 66.D 67.B 68.C 69.C 70.B 71.B 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.D 76.A 77.C 78.A 79.C 80.D

 

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

(SECTION A) Essay

1. Write a letter to your friend in another school giving him/her three reasons why your school has been excelling in academic work.
2. Write an article suitable for publication in a national newspaper on the topic: The importance of national sports festivals.
3. The School Hero is an award meant for the student considered to have exhibited exemplary leadership qualities. As the Senior Prefect, write a letter to the Head of your school, giving three reasons why your nominee should be given the award.
4. You are the main speaker in a debate on the topic: Students in rural schools have more advantages than those in the urban centres. Write your arguments/for or against the motion.
5. Write a story ending with the statement: We apologized to each other and reconciled.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION B – COMPREHENSION

6. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
The mansion by the roadside in my village reminds me of similar sight in the state capital, three decades ago. Standing conspicuously by the highway in the heart of the city, the mansion posed a bold challenge to road users. It belonged to Chief Koko who was regarded as untouchable in his community. Nobody dared step on his toes. Motorists had learnt to steer clear of it. It was generally assumed that moving close to it could cost one one’s life.

Then came a governor who decided to widen all the major roads in the capital city. He stressed that this would involve the demolition of buildings that fell within twenty metres from the centre of the road. However. although the governor also stressed that compensations would be paid. Chief Koko was not impressed. He made it clear that nothing should tamper with his mansion, warning that whoever defied him risked dire consequences.

Not long after the governor’s official proclamation, newspaper reporters had a field day speculating on the unprecedented confrontation with Chief. With time, news filtered out that he asserted that whoever dared him would certainly end up where others like them had gone. The message was clear-defiance meant death! So, reporters were pleading for a new route to circumvent the mansion. However, the governor made it clear that there would be no retreat.

Before long, work started on the project. One of the first casualties was a post office that was just some metres within the specified distance. It was cut into two. Soon, the frontage of school nearby also followed. But, it was assumed that things would be different with the mansion whose owner tolerated no effrontery. Day by day, the project moved closer to the mansion, with the heavy machine levelling one structure after another. Then, when it was clear that the mansion was next in line, the driver of the bulldozer requested to go on leave. This got to the governor who ordered the driver to first do his duty. He sent emissaries to the governor to spare his life since his children were still very young.

The following morning, people got shocker! The governor himself showed up at the site and asked for the key to the bulldozer, ready to assume the role of the driver. The driver, surveying the possible consequence, tearfully climbed up and pleaded that the governor should please care for his children after his demise. The governor announced that if anything was to happen he, not the driver would be the target. So the driver got to work, and the mansion collapsed like a pack of cards. Press photographers went to town with their cameras, hoping to capture Chief Koko in action. But nothing unusual happened, and soon the whole structure became a rubble. The aftermath? Everybody thought either or both men would soon belong to the great beyond. But this much I know: that governor is still around; and so is the driver.

(a) What opinion did people have of’ Chief Koko? (b) What does the expression. unprecedented confrontation tell us about the governor? (c) Why was it necessary to demolish buildings? (d) When the driver said that his children were still very young, what did he imply? (e) … people got a shocker. Why was the governor’s action a shocker? (f) What did people expect Chief Koko to do after the demolition of his mansion? (g) Not long after the governors official proclamation… (i) What grammatical name is given to this expression as it is used in the, passage? (ii) What is its function? (h) Quote a simile used in the sixth paragraph of the passage. (i) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replace it as it is used in the passage: (i) assumed; (ii) retreat; (iii) specified; (iv) showed Lip; (v) collapsed.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION C – SUMMARY

7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
Every normal human being would want to put his or her feet up once in a while and relax, but, obviously, one cannot relax all the time. A little work does not kill. Rather, it keeps one active and mentally alert.

Some people think that the invention of robots is the best thing that ever happened to man. They are convinced that the invention has saved the day because robots are ideal workers who work without complaining or getting tired. Robots never reveal company secrets for any reason-corruption, fame or blackmail.
The admirers of robots think that once a robot is programmed, it can do any piece of work with precision over a long period without slowing down, getting bored or even going on break or vacation. Robots can be made to perform any task. They do not grumble, protest or ask for ‘inducement allowance’, overtime, bonus or any of the motivations that human beings usually demand. They also work under conditions which human beings would not accept due to either incapability or attitude.

One good thing about the robot is that any of its damaged parts can be replaced for work to go on effectively. On the other hand, if human being loses a vital part of the body, that part may not be replaced for work to go on as effectively as before. There is no doubt at all that the robot is useful but I strongly believe that the human being is more efficient than the robot in many ways. Human beings are sensitive, thinking beings who are flexible and can therefore control their actions. Thus, they can perform more functions than robots since human beings can think, discriminate and make value judgments. they can solve problems on the spur of the moment. The robot, on the other hand, cannot do this because what it has been programmed for is all that it is capable of doing. If a robot is wrongly programmed. it will continue to produce the wrong result until its programme is corrected.

The human being can take the initiative in many things. lie can communicate or even call for assistance when need be, which the robot cannot do. The human being can be appealed to, make some crucial changes; lie can also learn from observing what goes on and modify what he is doing. It is clear that even though robots are useful, they are deficient in many ways and therefore cannot have an advantage over human beings. In crisis, the robot cannot face the challenge. It neither reacts nor reflects. The robot is designed and programmed by human beings. How then can the created be superior to the creator? Robots are created to assist human beings and relieve them of some of their burdens, not to take over completely from them.

(a) In three sentences, one for each, state why the admirers of robots think that robots are more efficient than human beings. (b) In three sentences, one for each, state three advantages which the human being has over the robot.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers English 2 ANSWERS

 

 

SECTION A

Plot 30. Bola Shola’s Bay,
Off Adelabu Junction.
Itire- Road, Surulere. Lagos.
31st May, 2015.

1.

Dear Fred,

It’s been a long time since we heard or written to each other. I low are you doing? I hope you are finding things easy with your studies. Flow is everyone in Nnewi? They are fine I supposed. Well. I’m fine here too, except that I was seriously planning how l will come to Nnewi when I am done with my final examination. Well, the purpose of writing this letter is to tell you why our school has been excelling. During the previous years we had only few teachers to impart knowledge on we the students but now we have new teachers and varieties of subjects such as: Further Mathematics, Technical Drawing, Geography, Yoruba and lgbo languages, including Computer studies.

Secondly, the Lagos State Government through the Ministry of Education has provided our school with infrastructural facilities, such as school library, laboratory rooms, food and nutritional rooms and technology workshop which help to facilitate learning. Fred, guess what? We now do more of practical than theory. Moreover, our school which was dilapidated has been demolished and renovated again. This has helped in improving conducive learning amongst the students in the school.

Thirdly, the school authority has set up an afternoon lesson for SSS 3 students who are about to write their WASSCE. Subsequently, the authorities also provided “Morning Clinic” for all the schools in the same zone. We also have external classes every Saturday and also private lessons after school hours.
Fourthly, series of awards arc now given to best students in each department at the end of each session. This has helped in motivating other students in enjoining themselves into the rail way of the ‘Branies’.

Lastly. the new government/administration led by President Muhammad Buhari has provided us with a meal daily. Every early corner gets this free goodies and also every student that gets distinction in English language, Mathematics, Biology and any two important subjects in his/her department, gets extra reward for the whole of next session. So Fred, what more can we say!!! We have every facility and so we must use them judiciously to keep the banner of our school flying.
Well Fred. extend my warmest greetings to the grannies and your little sister Jane. Also help me inform your mother in South Africa that I am still expecting my Easter packs. Bye for now. Write soon.

Yours sincerely,
Godwin.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

2. THE IMPORTANCE OF NATIONAL SPORTS FESTIVALS

Sport is any activity that you do for pleasure and that needs physical effort or skill usually done in a special area and according to fixed rules. There are different types of sports, some of these sports are namely; track events, relay, hurdles, long jump, high jump, pole vaults, javelin, discus, hammer, short put, etc. The importance of national sports festivals are many. National sports festivals can make the people of a country come together. As we have constantly witnessed in national, continental and global competitions, the power of sports to unite people from different backgrounds and cultures is awesome. So far, we have had eighteen experiences of sports festivals and to tap into its potential as a facilitator of social economic development.

The 19th edition of the National Sports festival which may be held in Calabar this year (2015), should enable us to discover new and budding talents with obvious potential to represent Nigeria in future. Once again, we will have the opportunity of initiating the process of using the power of sports to achieve national developmental targets. With careful planning, sports can help to focus the attention of a country on its goals. No other part of the world is in such dire need of a facilitator, as black Africa, which has continued to be an extreme case of ethnicity, poverty and underdevelopment. The UN, the EU and FIFA have long recognized that sports can be used to reduce poverty, boost development and achieve the millennium development goals Set out in 2000.

Sports go beyond recreation fitness and the pursuit of medals and trophies in a geographical expression like Nigeria, an amalgam of numerous communities with powerful ethnic sentiments, it can be invaluable in the socio-political realm as the fulcrum to leverage our national aspirations. Unfortunately, we have not appreciated its worth, resulting in the pedestrian and short-sighted manner that we currently run it. After National Sports Festivals, can we truly say that we are at independence? Nearly a decade after the tool kit for sports development was produced, have we even bothered to study it? have we not been too blinded by the short-sighted craze to win by hook or by crook to see the lasting benefit of the pursuit of excellence or even the broader picture of sport as a tool for national development?

Regrettably, many state officials will not see it as a forum to proudly showcase their contributions, to the development of sports because they have not done much in that direction. It is such a shame that we have chosen not to distinguish between right and wrong, preferring not to he bothered by such niceties and as a result we cannot see that sports is more than winning and losing but that in our circumstances, it can be used as a catalyst for national integration and development

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

Flora Chisom
7, Ire Akari Street,
Isheri-Osun, Lagos.
10th July, 2015.

The Principal,
Ajayi Comprehensive High School,
Surulere, Lagos.

Dear Sir/Ma,

3. REASONS WHY MY NOMINEE SHOULD BE AWARDED FOR EXEMPLARY LEADERSHIP QUALITIES

My name is Chukwu Peter and lam a student of SS3, a science student of the above school. I am writing to express my views on why my nominee should be awarded for exemplary leadership qualities. My nominee is Adewale Ajayi, a commercial student of the school, as the senior prefect, I have been opportuned to socialize with my fellow students of various home backgrounds and academic disciplines but he stands out to be of good moral up bringing. He has respect for elders and fellow students. He is quiet and unassuming when it comes to issues or discussions. With this kind of behaviour, he mentors others as to how their goals and ambitions in life can be achieved hence popularly called the ‘counsellor”,

Adewale, as we all know in the school, is an intelligent student with mark distinctions in all subjects. This, he has exhibited through his series of laurels won in both local and internationally organized competitions. In SS2 days, he won for the school the best accounting student in Laos State organized competition. lie also won in January 2015, The prestigious “Crown” of best secondary school commercial Essay Competition organized by West African Trade Union. This achievement earned not only prize for him, but paved way for other students to travel out of the country for a warm reception at the National Park, Accra, Ghana.
In the area of football, Adewale can not be left out. He has captained the school cricket team, to victory in the recently concluded Lagos State Games. The school came out with gold medals and he too won the “man of the match” as well as the “best behave player awards”.

The organizers of the competition – Ajayi Investment Company, also gave the school twenty (20 sets of computers for students use. All these through his leadership qualities. From the above points of mine, I hereby recommend that Ajayi Adewale should be considered for the award. Thanking everyone of you, for giving me the opportunity to nominate.

Yours faithfully,
Chukwu.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

4. STUDENTS IN RURAL SCHOOLS HAVE MORE ADVANTAGES THAN THOSE IN THE URBAN CENTRES

My name is Uwadia Rapheal. I am writing against the motion which says students in the rural schools have more advantages, that those in the urban centres,
Before I proceed, I would like to give honour and respect to whom is due by saying, good day Mr. Chairman, sir, panel of judges, accurate time keeper and my fellow students. Nowadays, education is the most important aspect in societal development school plays a major role in development. As for students, they need to have good skills, and be proactive with an appropriate futuristic set of mind. Besides that, students also need to be active in co-curricular activities along with high academic achievements. Urban areas relate to the areas that are surrounded by cities and are well populated areas compared to rural areas which are sparely populated and are usually farmlands or country areas.

A recent educational research has examined rural and urban differences and their achievements. Many educators, researchers, legislators and members of the general public believe that students from rural schools mostly receive an education that is inferior compared to the students that live in urban areas. Student’s backgrounds also impact on their performances; many of the students that live in the rural areas have higher academic achievements when compared with the students in urban areas. The National Education Association said that the low performing youths are in public rural schools (Brown & Swanson 2001).
The excellent performances of urban students are because of better quality in their educational information that they get from various sources like mass media and electronic media, their educated families and peer groups help them for better performance. They have many advantages and facilities compared to the students in the rural areas who are less exposed to the outside world and also lack knowledge about current issues. Here are some facts and reasons why the students in the urban areas are better in achievements than the students in the rural areas. They are geographic location, resources, availability of technology and also quality of teachers.

Point one (family factors) in the rural areas, family is one of the factors that determine their children’s performances. In this study, students in rural areas have low performances compared to students in urban areas because it relates to the education of their parents. Majority of parents in rural areas are less educated compared to parents in urban areas. The family background is the most important factor determining the academic performance of learners (Adell, 2002: 91) Survey found Out that, rural students felt no pressure to attain good performance since their parents expectations are low towards education.

Point two (low socio-economic factor) the students backgrounds relate to the low socio-economic factor of their families, also one of the factors that affect their performances in education. Most of the students that live in rural areas come from low income families. The parents cannot provide them enough educational resources at home, compared to students in urban areas. Point three (lack of facilities and resources). Education promotes human capital development as an asset that has greater or lower rates of return depending on the quality of education that is provided. Some of the factors that contribute to the poor performances are lack of resources or poor facilities in most schools in the rural areas compared to the students in urban areas, due to the unequal distribution of resources.

Point four (less quality teachers). Teachers are important in creating good performances in students. Most of the teachers do not want postings to rural areas because they think it will bring difficulty to them so the majority of teachers that are sent to the rural areas are new teachers that have less experience.
With these few points of mine, I think! have been able to clear my grounds and I have been able to convince the reader and not to confuse him/her that urban centres have more advantages than the rural schools.

Thank you.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

5. WE APOLOGISED TO EACH OTHER AND RECONCILED

Once upon a time, there lived two boys named Peter and John. They lived in a small town called Ekpe. They were very good friends, through, their strong friendship they connected their parents to know each other. Peter and John looked almost alike, people kept asking whether they were twins. They walked together, attended the same church, ate at each others home, bought similar clothes and even forced their parents to allow them change their school to attend one school together. Their friendship was a very strong one. They told people that the” cannot depart from each other even in marriage they will build one house and both of their families will stay together. They agreed that if Peter has a male child and John a female or vice versa, their children will get married.

One sunny afternoon while Peter and John were playing happily as they were talking about a topic, an argument occurred. They started arguing for a very long time, it got so serious that they started to exchange words rapidly. The two boys were insulting each other, over and over again to an extent that they started to fight. People rushed to separate them, they have struck a blow into their friendship. Whenever they sec each other walking on the same street they turned their heads to the other side. They no longer walk together, play together or even visit each other.

At school hours. they don’t buy food together, even their friends begged them at school reconcile but to no avail. The whole town begged them even their own parents all to no avail. Peter had a video same and John had a bicycle. Peter loved John’s bicycle and always wanted to ride it. John liked Peter’s new video game and always dreamt of playing it. Because of their love for each other’s item, they begged each othcs1 embraced each other and asked forgiveness. Everybody was happy and glad that they have settled the grudges between them. And they said from that very day henceforth, they will, never fight or quarrel with each other. They apologized to each other and reconciled.

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION B – COMPREHENSION

6(a)
People regarded him as a ruthless or untouchable/merciless. (b) The expression tells us that the governor was the first person who dared to confront Chief Koko or that the governor was brave or fearless or bold. (c) It was necessary because the major roads were to be widened. (d) The driver implied that he was going to die and leave his children behind uncared for. (e) The governor’s action was a shocker because people did not expect him to assume the role of driver. (f) People expected Chief Koko to carry out his threat of killing whoever defied him or people expected Chief Koko to kill the driver or the governor or both of them (g)(i) It is an adverbial phrase of time. (ii) It modifies the verb “had” (Ii) The simile is “the mansion collapsed like a pack of cards”. (i)( I) Assumed – believed, accepted, thought. (ii) Retreat’- withdrawal, backing out, going back. (iii) Specified – defined, mark out, prescribed, stipulated. (iv) Showed up – arrived, turned up, appeared. (v) Collapsed – crumbled, crashed, went down

SECTION C – SUMMARY

7. (a)
(i) Robots work well under any condition or circumstance. (ii) Robots work without making demands. (iii) Robots can be programmed to perform any task. (iv) Damaged parts of robots can be replaced. (v) Robots work tirelessly.
(b) Unman being can make spontaneous decisions. (ii) The human being is capable of controlling his actions. (iii) The human being can take initiative or face challenges ordeal with crises. (iv) The human being can perform more functions than the robots.

 

English 3: Test of Orals

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

(SECTION 1)
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the some vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined. An example is given below.
Example: seat A. sit B. cite C. set D. key
The correct answer is D because only key contains the same vowel as the one underlined in seat. Now answer the questions that follow.

1. Monday—A. age——B. day—-C. pretty–D. heal
2. many—–A. village–B. fern—C. pap—–D. friend
3. want—–A. dog——B. ant—-C. wane —D. walk
4. woman —A. woo — B. put —C. lock—-D. song
5. blood —A cop —–B. loop –C. fool —D. YQuj1g
6. observe -A .float –B. mother C. dog —-D. form
7. people –A. quay —B. wedge -C. silk —D. pep
8. bought –A. dough –B. could -C. saw —-D. stock
9. heart —A ask —–B. pack –C. ask—- D. swear
10.view—- A. could —B. pull –C. hood —D. clue
11.eight— A. height -B. face –C. west —D. fight
12.poke —-A. pork —B. look –C. snow —D. work
I’ hound —A. cold —B. load –C. snore –D. mouse
14.hear —-A. heap—-B. beer –C. fan; —D. chair
15. air —-A, care —B. fail –C. pile —D. cheer

 

SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined An example is given below.
Example: vice A. cat B. dress C. show D. chalk
The correct answer is B because only dress has the same consonant sound as the one underlined in vice.

16. cheap—A. Sheep–B. lashes–C. poach—-D. Chemistry
17. liquor–A. quiz –B. square-C. account–D. lizard
18. strife -A. strive-B. strip -C. phase —D. vibes
19. thank –A. tick –B. tank –C. stick —D. thin
20. then —A. through-B. den —C. bath —-D. think
21. cease –A. coat —B. back -C. chaff —-D. seal
22. boys —A. zinc -B. street-C. pots —–D. keeps
23. show –A. cheque -B. sure –C. chemist –D church
24. seizure A. sink B. usual C. zero D. daze
25. mature A. lash B. turning–C. tube -D. ritual
26. giant A: girl B. ghetto -C. joke -D. leg
27. paste A. physics B. photo – C. lap D. phlegm
28. [earn A. them B. thyme C. listen D. think
29. moved A. drive B. rove C. more D. kicked
30. bin A. doubt B. debt C. lamb D. bomb

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 3

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word An example is given below.
Example: obtain A. detain B. detail C. claim D. relay
The correct answer is A because o,i/i’ detain rhymes with obtain. Now answer the questions that follow
31. roam A. from 13. come C. home D. loan
32. bough A. thought B. dough C. low D. how
33. rain A. frighten B. frame C. feign D. many
34. knight A. knife B. cite C. knot D. cent
35. jeer A. jeep B. gear C. gauge D. bear

 

SECTION 4

In each of the following questions, the main or primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters.
From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress. An example is given below
Example, democratic
A. DE-mo-cra-tic B. de-MO-cra-tic C. de-mo-CRA-tic D. dc-mo-era-TIC
The correct answer is C because the main/primacy stress of the word democratic is on the third syllable. Now answer the questions that follow.

36. beneficial A. BE-ne-fi-cial B. be-NE-fi-cial C. be-tic-Fl-cial D. be-ne-fi-CIAL
37. Pecuniary A. FE-cu-n i-ary B. pe-CU-ni-ary C. pe-cu-NI-ary D. pc-cu-ni-A RY
38. reduplicate A. RE-du-pli-cate B. re-DU-pli-cate C. re-du-PLI-cate D. re-du-pli-CATE
39. satisfactory A. SAT-is-fact-ory B. sat-IS-fact-ory C. sat-is-FACT-ory D. sat-is-fact-ORY
40. disputatious A. DIS-pu-ta-tious B. dis-PU-ta-tious C. dis-pu-TA-tious D. dis-pu-ta-TIOUS

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 5

In the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. !denlj.i5.’ the one with ,h different stress pattern and shade your answer in the usual way. An example is given below
Example. A. away B. apart C. behind D. river.
Options A, B, C are all stressed on the second syllable while option D is the only one stressed on the first syllable. So, D is the correct answer. Now answer the questions that follow.

41. A. mulatto B. mystery C. pucker D. public
42. A. genius B. enthrone C. matron D. eager
43. A. multiple B. never C. rotter D. distaste
44. A. motivate B. invade C. concern D. inveigh
45. A. income B. nibble C. confirm D. muffler

 

SECTION 6
In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer. An example is given below.

Example: My mother’s FRIEND hates pets
A. Does your mother’s boss hate pets?
B. Does your mother’s friend love pets?
C. Does your mother’s friend hate toys?
D. Does your father’s friend hate pets?

The correct answer is A because My mother FRIEND hates pets answers the question. Does your mothers boss hate pets? Now answer the questions that follow.

46. The project is designed to alleviate poverty in the COUNTRY.
A. Is the constitution designed to alleviate poverty in the country?
B. Is the project designed to alleviate poverty in the city.’
C. Is the project designed to increase poverty> in the country?
D. Is the project designed to alleviate crime in the country?

47. Students are usually advised to stay out of l’OL.11ICS.
A. Are teachers usually advised to stay out of politics?
B. Are students usually advised to go into politics?
C. Are students usually advised to stay out of business?
D. Are students rarely advised to stay out of politics? .I

48. The angry WORKERS vowed not to return to work.
A. Did the happy workers vow not to return to work?
B. Did the angry students vow not to return to work?
C. Did the angry workers choose not to return to work?
D. Did the angry workers vow not to return to school?

49. Mr. Peter GOT his hearing aid last week.
A. Did Mr. Peter lose his hearing aid last eek?
B. Did Mr. James get his hearing aid last week?
C. Did Mr. Peter get his reading aid last week?
D. Did Mr. Peter get his hearing aid last year?

50. They have been on the PHONE for an hour.
A. I las she been on the phone for an hour?
B. Have they been off the phone for an hour’?
C. I lave they been on the sofa for an hour?
D. Have they been on the phone for two hours?

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

SECTION 7
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol. An example is given below.
Example: /oI / A. yell B. holy C. boy D. idiot
The correct answer is C because only boy contains the sound represented by the given symbol. Now answer the questions that follow.

51. / i / A. weak B. symbol C. people D. heal
52. / ^ / A. shoot B. mug C. shirt D. curly
53. / ae / A. cart B. heart C. plait D. core
54. / u:/ A. cook B. float C. hew D. full
55. / 3:/ A. walk B. worm C. trek D. lire
56. /t/ A. listen B. wrestle C. castle D. looked
57. /k/ A. knight B. chassis C. chime D. count
58. /6 I A. thin B. then C. teeth D. three
59. /s/ A. plays B. lose C. hens D. place
60. /3/ A. pleasure B. bag C. rush D. sharpen

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers English 3 ANSWERS
1C 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.B 7A 8.C 9.A IO.D 11.B I2.C 13.D 14.B 15.A 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.D 20.C 21.D 22.A 23.B 24.B 25.D 26.C 27.C 28.B 29.A 30.D 31.C 32.D 33.C 34 B 35.B 36.C 37 B 38.B 39.C 40.C 41.A 42.B 43.D 44.A 45.C 46 B 47.C 49.B 49.A 50.C 51.B 52.B 53.C 54.C 55.B 56.D 57.D 58.B 59.D 60.A

 

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions: Further Maths 1

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers

 

Further Maths 2

WASSCE 2015 Past Questions and Answers