WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers – Government 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
Answer all the questions
1. The first agent of political socialization is
A. school B. mass media C. community D. family.
2. Baron Montesquieu was noted for the theory of
A. the rule of law B. delegated legislation C. separation of powers D. equality before the law.
3. Political sovereignty in the state resides with the
A. executive B. people C. national assembly D. international community.
4. A political system in which there is only one source of authority in a state is
A. confederal B. parliamentary C. presidential D. unitary.
5. Which of the following best describes an absolute monarchy? He wields the supreme power in a state
B. is elected by an electoral college C. is elected by the electorate D. had fixed tenure of office.
6. The modern idea of democracy includes all the following except
A. unlimited freedom B. universal suffrage C. periodic elections D. equality before the law.
7. Which of the following is a method of acquiring political power in a democracy?
A. heredity B. election C. imposition D. selection.
8. One of the arguments against delegated legislation is that it
A. encroaches on the functions of the judiciary B. is against the principle of separation of power C. promotes limited government D. wastes the time of the legislature.
9. A practice by which semi autonomous units are given part of governmental powers and functions is known as
A. deconcentration B distribution C. devolution D. decongestion.
10. A disadvantage of centralized administration is that
A. wide powers are allocated to sub-national bodies B. the influence of the central administration is easily felt by the local people C. local people are not easily exploited by the sub-national agents D. sub-national bodies are denied initiative in decision making.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
11. Judicial independence means that the courts are independent of the
A Civil Service and the Bar B. Executive and the Legislature C. Legislature and the Ministry of Justice D. Executive and the Military.
12. A citizen expresses loyalty to his nation by
A. participating in sports B supporting political parties C. singing the national anthem when required D. lobbying for ministerial appointment.
13. A citizen can participate in the politics of his country by
A. acquiring university education B. attending international meetings C. contesting for an elective post D. being a good sportsman.
14. The office of the ombudsman is created to act as
A. spy for government B. an agency to redress maladministration C. regulator of government activities D. sole administrator of public corporations.
15. A constitution that has special rules for its amendment is said to be
A. written B. federal C. confederal D. rigid.
16. Which of the following statements best describes an unwritten constitution?
A. The legislature is always unicameral B The source of the constitution is supreme court verdicts C. There are no limitations on the powers of government D. The body of rules and laws cannot all be found in a single document.
17. The process by which people vote to elect their representatives is called
A. electoral system B. plebiscite C. electoral college D. franchise.
18. Apart from making laws, the legislature has the important function of
A. implementing executive decisions B advising the judiciary C. appointing the civil servants D. checking the executive powers.
19. Which of the following is a demerit of bicameral legislature?
A. The scope for political participation is limited B. Passing of bills into acts is delayed C. No safeguard for the minority groups D. There is tendency for despotic rule.
20. One form of delegated legislation is
A. case laws B statutory instruments D. conventions D. man-made laws.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
21. A system in which one level of government exercises an overwhelming authority over others can best be described as
A. confederal B. parliamentary C. unitary D presidential.
22. A major weakness Of a one-party system is that it
A. encourages the emergence of dictators B. ensures freedom of political choice C. negates the principle of one man one vote D. requires a bicameral legislature.
23. A multi-party system often leads to the formation of
A. coalition government B. dual government C. dictatorial government D. monarchical government.
24. Under a two-party system, the opposition party is as important as the ruling party because it
A. has equal number of supporters as the ruling party B. is as strong as the ruling party C. may force the government to resign D. is the alternative government.
25. The dissolution of parliament is usually followed by a
A. general election B. referendum C. plebiscite D. resolution.
26. A major function of a public corporation is to
A. construct roads and bridges u. compete with private companies C. provide certain essential services for all D. collect revenue for government.
27. Carpet-crossing is a characteristic of
A. monarchical system B. cabinet system C. presidential system D. unitary system.
28. A minister controls public corporations by
A. auditing the accounts of the corporations himself B. giving general policy directives C. criticizing the corporations through the mass media D. undertaking day-to-da” administration of the corporations.
29. When there is a second chamber in a federal state, it
A. makes up for the imbalance in the representation in the lower house B. ensures that the judiciary is independent of the executive C. reduces the power of the electorate D. alone makes laws for the country.
30. Countries adopt federal system of government because of
A. uneven development B. adoption of a state religion C. the fear of domination of minorities D. the availability of limited resources.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
31. The three main contesting issues about revenue allocation in Nigeria are
A. oil, cocoa, and groundnut B. oil, minority and majority C. ethnicity, corruption D. derivation, population and even development.
32. In Nigeria, the concurrent list of powers belongs to the
A. local authority only B. executive, the judiciary and the legislature C. federal and state governments D. state and local government.
33. Rule by decrees is associated with
A. military governments B. totalitarian governments C. democratic system D. Delegated legislation.
34. Which of the following Nigerian constitutions brought the Northern Provinces into the Legislative Council?
A. The 1979 Constitution B. The Richards Constitution C. The Clifford Constitution D. The Lyttleton Constitution.
35. Under the independence Constitutions of Nigeria, the final Court of Appeal was the
A. West African Court of Appeal B. Sharia Court of Nigeria C. Privy Council in Britain D. Supreme Military Council.
36. The Nigerian Youth Movement (NYM) collapsed because of
A. leadership struggle B. the ban on the press by the government C. high-handedness by the leadership D. corruption and nepotism
37. A major reason why the warrant chiefs were rejected in Eastern Nigeria was that
A. the chiefs were illiterates B. they were no indigenes C. they usurped the positions of the nationalists D. the system was not customary.
38. After the annexation in 1861, Lagos became a
A. trust territory B. crown colony C. protectorate D. consular territory.
39. In the Hausa/Fulani traditional political administration, the Madawaki was the
A. chief judge B. chief tax collector C. head of fishermen D. commander of the Calvary.
40. The chairman of the Unity Party of Nigeria (UPN) during the Second republic in Nigeria was
A. Aminu Kano B. Joseph Wayas C. Ume Ezeoke D. Obafemi Awolowo.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
41. Among the Yoruba, the presentation of parrot egg to the Oba indicates
A. outright rejection by his subjects B. acceptance of royal order C. obeisance and homage to the king D. prayer for long life for the king.
42. One important effect of the 1922 Constitution of Nigeria was the
A. formation of political parties B. establishment of university in West Africa C. fusion of both the legislative and executive powers D. establishment of a military government.
43. During the 1964 federal elections in Nigeria, there was total boycott of voting in
A. Lagos B. the Northern Region C. the Eastern Region D. the Mid-Western Region.
44. In pre-colonial West Africa, no centralized political administration existed among the
A. Hausa B. lgbo C. Yoruba D. Kanuri.
45. Under the Nigerian Constitution of 1979 representation in the Lower House was based on
A. equality of states B. the geographical size of each state C. the population of each state D. number of local government in each state.
46. Who among the following was dismissed from the Action Group at the Jos Congress of February, 1962?
A. Anthony Enahoro B. Ladoke Akintola C. Dauda Adegbenro D. Adesoji Aderemi.
47. If the receiving state does not approve a diplomat on account of his past activities, he is considered
A. a dozen of diplomat corps B. an extra-ordinary ambassador C. an ambassador plenipotentiary D. a persona non grata.
48. Nigeria’s idea of Africa as the centrepiece of her foreign policy includes all the following except
A. support for Apartheid policy in South Africa B. promotion of African unity C. creation of more Nigerian missions in Africa D. settling of disputes in Africa.
49. The organ of the Organization of African Unity (OAU) responsible for the appointment of the Secretary-General is the
A. Appointment Commission B. Liberation Committee C. Assembly of the Heads of State and Governments D. Economic and Social Commission.
50. Which of the following is an organ of the United Nations Organization (UNO)?
A. Assembly of Heads of State B. International Labour Organization C. Council of Ministers D. The Security Council.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Government 1 ANSWERS
1D 2C 313 41D 5A 6A 7B 8B 9C 10D 11B 12C 13C 14B 15D 16D 17A 18D 19B 20B 21C 22A 23A 24D 25A 26C 27B 28B 29A 30C 31D 32C 33A 34B 35C 36A 37D 38B 39D 40D 41A 42A 43C 44B 45C 46B 47D 48A 49C 50D
Government 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A – ELEMENTS OF GOVERNMENT
1. What are the characteristics of feudalism?
2. Describe the basic features of a democratic state.
3. Why do some countries adopt unitary system of government?
4. How can the revenue of local authorities in your country be improved?
5. Enumerate the methods used by pressure groups to achieve their objectives.
SECTION B
POLITICAL AND CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENTS IN WEST AFRICA AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
6. How did the people of any one British West African territory govern themselves before the advent of colonial rule?
7. State how the British colonial policies contributed to the rise of nationalism in West Africa.
8.Describe the main features of the 1946 Richards Constitution of Nigeria
9. Outline the objectives of the National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC).
10. What where the causes of the 1975 military coup d’etat in Nigeria?
11. (a) What is foreign policy? (b) Outline the basic factors that influence Nigeria’s foreign policy.
12.Highlight the functions of the Assembly of Heads of State and Governments of the Organization of Africa Unity (OAU).
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Government 2 ANSWERS
1. (i) The monarch is the lawmaker, judge and commander over his vassals. (ii) The land goes back to the lord when the vassal dies without the heir. (iii) Vassals keep the land as long as he performs his feudal duties, e.g payment of tributes, military services. (iv) It is characterized by close personal bond between the lords and serfs. (v) Only a vassal of the lord can receive land. (vi) Feudal tenants give military service to the overlord. (vii) The overlords are duty bound to protect the serfs. (viii) The serfs (tenants) pay their overlord’s annual tributes in money or in kind. (ix) Land is vested in the king or monarch or emperor. (x) It is based on land ownership.
2. (i) The provision of special procedures to amend entrenched parts of the constitution, e.g. creation of new states, etc. (ii) Supremacy of the constitution. (iii) Free press. (iv) The franchise is open to all on the basis of universal adult suffrage. (v) Operations of the rule of law. (vi) An independent judiciary. (vii) Existence of opposition party to be watchdog of the government. (viii) Existence of political parties in the state. (ix) Free and fair elections. (x) Rights of the minority are guaranteed. (xi) Fundamental human rights are guaranteed. (xii) Equal opportunity to participate in the decision of the government. (xiii) Periodic elections to elect representatives.
3. (i) Facilitates quick decision making (ii) Simple and cheap to operate. (iii) Desire for the preservation of national unity or identity and value. (iv) Identical political culture and history, i.e. common historical and political experience in administration. (v) Limited human (skilled personnel) and economic resources. (vi) Relative homogeneity and absence of marked ethnic inequalities. (vii) Small size in terms of territory and population.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
4. (i) The local authorities should be allowed by the central government to raise loans more easily from financial institutions. (ii) The revenue collecting sectors should be overhauled and only qualified officers with proven integrity should be responsible for collecting revenues. (iii) Local rates should be reviewed, where it is low, it should be increased to cater for inflation. (iv) Grants to local authorities should be paid regularly and promptly to encourage investment in viable projects. (v) Grants from the central government should be increased. (vi) Regular auditing of the accounts of the local authority. (vii) The local people should be well educated to pay their rates regularly. (viii) More revenue yielding projects should be embarked upon, e.g. commercial agriculture, housing projects, etc.
5. MODE OF OPERATION OF PRESSURE GROUPS OR METHODS USED BY PRESSURE GROUPS TO ACHIEVE THEIR OBJECTIVES
(i) Alliance with political parties and candidates who are perceived to be sympathetic to their cause. (ii) Presentation of gifts: In West Africa, a common feature of pressure groups is to present gift to the policy makers to influence them. (iii) Special publications: This is done either by the press or a booklet is published on their action. (iv) Propaganda/Letters to the press: Pressure groups write letters to the press to educate the public and to show their stand on important policies. (v) Sending a delegation: Pressure groups select some of their members to discuss their problems with the government or decision makers. (vi) Boycott: Sometimes, pressure groups refuse to co-operate with the authorities until their demands are met. (vii) Lobbying: This is done through legislators to persuade policy makers when policies are being made. (viii) Debates/Symposia/Workshops: These are organized to educate the people on their work and also their stand on some issues. (ix) Work to rule: No extra work is done apart from the normal working period. (x) Strike: Pressure groups may refuse to work to back their demands. (xi) Demonstration/Protest: Pressure groups can demonstrate or protest against a government policy through rioting, hijacking and holding people as hostages. (xii) Ultimatum: The final statement of condition which pressure groups issue to be accepted by the government without which actions they deem necessary will betaken.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
6. (i) Revenue was raised through tributes and taxes (ii) The commoners also performed important roles, e.g. manual labour for community development and defence. (iii) Queen’s mother and palace women performed important roles, e.g. settling disputes among women, advising the chief, etc. (iv) The chief priest and the secret societies performed religious functions and checked arbitrary use of power by chiefs. (v) The traditional rulers and elders exercised legislative, executive and judicial functions, i.e. there was no separation of powers. (vi) The age grades executed laws. (vii) The chiefs and council of elders made laws. (viii) The paramount chief was at the apex of the administration. (ix) The people were governed by customs, rules and norms.
7. (i) The land law was unfavourable to the chiefs and people. (ii) The crown -colony policy was not acceptable to the nationalists, e.g. both the legislative and the executive councils were dominated by British officials. Only illiterate African chiefs were nominated as members of the legislative council. (iii) Opportunities provided for the Africans to participate in government through constitutional developments. (iv) Provision of educational facilities through missionaries made the Africans politically conscious. (v) Inequality in wages between whites and natives especially in commercial enterprise. (vi) Little or no opportunities for the advancement of the Africans in the public service. (vii) Economic inequalities between the whites and natives especially in commercial enterprise, e.g. granting of loans by banks, the activities of companies like UAC, UTC and PZ. (viii) Colour bar and social segregation, e.g. housing estates, recreational facilities, hospitals and schools.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
8. (i) It granted the north a bicameral legislature, i.e. the regional assembly and the regional house of chiefs.
(ii) It led to the creation of Regional Assemblies with limited powers to legislate on minor matters subject to the governor’s reserved powers. (iii) It brought the North and South together under one legislature. (iv) It brought an African unofficial majority into the central legislative council. (v) Members of the central legislative council were at the same time members of the regional council, the central legislature has regional, instead of national outlook. (vi) The regional councils were used as electoral colleges for representation in the legislative council. (vii) The native authorities were linked with the regional assembly and through the latter to the central legislative council. (viii) The revenues of Nigeria were apportioned to each region in the form of bulk grants. (ix) Certain services were reserved to the central government and were financed by the central government, e.g. railways, army, post and telegraphs. (x) Limited franchise was maintained – three representatives were elected for Lagos and one for Calabar. (xi) Nigerians were in minority in the Central Executive Council.
9. See answers to question 7 of June 1995.
10. (i) Mismanagement of public funds. (ii) Members of the armed forces got disillusioned with the government.
The government disregarded public opinion on some major national issues, e.g. creation of more states.
Indecision on the part of the then government on major policies of government, e.g. redeployment of governors. (v) Port congestion leading to scarcity of essential goods. (vi) Change in the proposed date for return to civil rule. (vii) Government was not able to arrive at a definite figure for 1973 census. Government announced only provisional figures which were not generally accepted. (viii) Corruption: The government was corrupt because it encouraged corrupt practices of contractors. government officials, etc.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
11. (a) See answer to question 11(a) of June 2006.
11. (b)(i) Types of government, e.g. military to democratic government. (ii) Historical background, e.g. Nigeria’s membership of Commonwealth. (iii) Location: Africa is described as centrepiece of Nigeria’s foreign policy (iv) Public opinion on issues can bring changes in government foreign policy, e.g. Anglo-Nigeria pact of 1962. (v)The industrial strength of Nigeria influences her choice of trading partners, e.g. electricity supply to Niger, Gas to Ghana, Republic of Benin and Togo. (vi) The military strength of Nigeria, (i.e. size of the army and quality) influences her foreign policy. (vii) Ideological disposition of the rulers: countries tend to relate more with those countries with similar ideologies. (viii) Commitments of previous governments, e.g. treaties and pacts. (ix) The economic resources available to Nigeria, e.g. mineral resources and agricultural products. (x) Population: Large size and the quality of human resources of Nigeria affect her foreign policy.
12. (I) It approves the regulations governing the function and conditions of services of the Administrative Secretary General, his assistants and other staff. (ii) It considers and approves proposals for amendments of the character of the organization. (iii) It appoints ad hoc committees to settle disputes involving member states. (iv) It considers reports from the secretariat. (v) It examines and reviews the structure, composition and functions of all other organs and specialized agencies of the organization. (vi) It has power to establish specialized commissions. (vii) It appoints the important officers of the organization such as the Secretary General. (viii) It coordinates and harmonizes the general policies of the organization. (ix) It discusses matters of common interest of member states. (x) It acts as the highest decision making organ of the OAU.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions Economics 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers, Answer all the questions.
1. Economic problems arise because
A. resources are scarce relative to wants. B. man is insatiable C. money is scarce D. man engages in too many economic activities.
2. The economic system in which resources are privately owned is known as
A. capitalism B. socialism C. communism D. unitarism
3. Quasi-rent refers to
A. payment made on acquisition of a firm’s premises. B. payment made for the procurement of tools and equipment C. returns on investment D. payment made on any factor of production that is temporarily fixed in supply.
4. The reward for entrepreneurship is
A. rent B. wages C. interest D. profit
5. Which of the following is a function of an entrepreneur?
A. Avoidance of risks B. Decision making C. Employment control D. Organizing unions
6. The difference between the highest and lowest in a set of data is the
A. range B. median C. variance D. mode.
7. In which of the following economic systems is the consumer referred to as king?
A. Capitalist economy B. Socialist economy C. Communist economy D. Mixed economy
8. The dispersal of people in a country is called
A. mobility of people B. geographical distribution C. occupational distribution D. state distribution
9. In a country with ageing population, the total population
A. comprises young school leavers only B. comprises mainly women C. is increasing at a low rate D. has reached the optimum level.
10. Population growth can be controlled by all the following except
A. legalizing abortion B. incentives on immigration C. family planning. D. limiting number of children per family
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
11. Performance of one task in a production process is known as
A. specialization B. standardization C. division of labour D. segmentation
Use the table below to answer questions 12, 13 and 14.
| Units of Variable factor | Total Product |
| 1 | 25 |
| 2 | 31 |
| 3 | 40 |
| 4 | 48 |
| 5 | 55 |
12. The marginal product at the fourth variable factor is
A. 12 B.9 C. 8 0.6.
13. The difference between the highest and the least marginal product of the variable factor is
A.3 B.8 C. 10 0.12
14. The average product of the variable factor when four units are employed is
A 6 B. 8 C. 12 D.48
15. The cost incurred by using both fixed and variable factors in production is called
A. marginal cost B. fixed cost C. total cost D. average cost.
16. Consumers buy more of a commodity at a lower price than at a higher price because
A. producers like to produce more. B. in any given situation I people like to buy more. C. consumers like to show off. D. with the same amount of money they wi I be able to buy more.
17. The demand for a commodity not directly for immediate consumption but for the production of another commodity is
A. competitive demand B_ derived demand C. composite demand D. joint demand
18. The following is a luxury item?
A. Petrol B. Textbook C. Pencil C. Gold
19. The quantity demanded of a particular commodity is represented by the function Qd = 30 – 2p, what is the quantity demanded at price of twelve Naira?
A. 6 units B. 8 units 0. 10 units C. 12 units
20. The responsiveness of demand to a change in income is the measurement of
A. foreign exchange rate B. cross elasticity of demand C. income elasticity of demand D. price index elasticity.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
21. The upward sloping of the supply curve indicates that
A. more will be supplied as price rises. B. less v be supplied as price rises. C. supply is not a function of price D. Supply is static and demand is dynamic
22. Monocultural agriculture means
A. the cultivation of seasonal crops. B. the cultivation of one major crop C. plantation agriculture D. shifting cultivation.
23. Industries are not sited in most rural areas of Nigeria because
A. of inadequate basic infrastructure B. they lack raw materials C. there is no appropriate government policy D. the climate is not conducive
24. Which of the following business units can issue shares?
A. Sole trader B. Private limited company C. Central Bank D. Supermarket
25. When the government initiates measures to make an organization in which it has substantial interest more profit oriented, such a business is described as being.
A. indigenized B. restructured C. privatized D. commercialized
26. Which of the following is not a trade union in Nigeria?
A. Nigerian Labour Congress B. Academic Staff Union of Universities C. Nigerian Economic Society D. Nigerian Union of Journalists
27. The monopolist power can be controlled by the government through
A. labour union B. price legislation C. import restrictions D. export promotion
28. Which of the following is not a condition for a perfect market?
A. Homogeneous commodity B. Ignorance of consumers C. Perfect information D. Free entry and exit
29. The reward for share holder-ship of a company is
A. wages B. interest C. dividends D. profit
30. In a public corporation, the risks of business are borne by the
A. workers B. tax payers C. board members D. treasury.
31. One of the functions of money is
A. double coincidence of wants. B. unit of account C. indivisibility D. making payments through banks only.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
32. Money is demanded for which of the following reasons?
A. To meet unforeseen contingencies B. To solve the problem of inflation C. It is easily divisible D. It is portable.
33. The Quantity Theory of money states that a reduction in the quantity of money in circulation would bring about
A. a geometrical fall in prices B. a proportionate fall in prices. C. a rise in prices. D. an unequal fall in prices.
34. Which of the following is the most liquid asset?
A. Bank notes B. Silver C. Bank deposit D. Cheques
35. The situation in which there is a persistent fall in the general price level is referred to as
A. devaluation B. depreciation C. deflation D. inflation.
36. Commercial banks settle their daily interbank indebtedness through the
A. Money Market B. Finance House C. Acceptance House D. Clearing House
37. One disadvantage of inflation is that
A. fixed income earners gain. B. fixed income earners lose C. businessmen lose D. standard of living rises.
38. Short-term loans can be sourced from
A. the central bank B. development banks C. mortgage banks D. commercial banks.
39. If there is an increase in wages and salaries without a corresponding increase in the supply of goods and services, the situation will lead to
A. a reduction in aggregate demand B. inflation C. depression D. budget surplus.
40. Public expenditure can be financed from all the following sources except
A. borrowing B. grant-in-aid. C. royalties and rents. D. mobilization fees.
41. Which of the following is a direct tax?
A. Import duty B. Export duty C. Capital gains tax D. Sales tax
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
42. Tax evasion means
A. postponing payment of tax B. tax payment according to ability to pay. C. making false declaration of taxable income D. paying little amount of money as tax.
43. A greater burden of tax on a product with high price elasticity of demand rests mainly on the
A. producer B. teacher C. civil servant D. middlemen.
44. An ad valorem tax refers to a tax
A. imposed on exports B. on goods manufactured in the country C. based on the value of the commodity D. levied on income.
45. Which of the following is associated with the development of the petroleum industry in Nigeria?
A. Neglect of agriculture B. Increase in population growth C. Increase in the rate of unemployment
D. Decrease in the rate of inflation
46. Balance of payments deficit can be corrected by
A. purchasing foreign assets. B. accumulating foreign reserves. C. export promotion measures, D. import promotion measures.
47. The exchange of goods and services across different countries can be described as
A. bi-lateral trade B. multilateral trade C. national trade D. home trade
48. Which of the following is a major barrier to international trade?
A. Religious differences amongst nations B. Uneven distribution of population across the world C. Educational imbalance between the developed and developing countries D. ideological differences amongst nations.
49. A country is economically rich if
A. there is a lot of money in circulation relative to its population B. it has a large volume of goods and services relative to its population. C. it has a large reserve of idle skilled manpower. D. there is a large amount of reserved mineral resources.
50. The main role of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is
A. fixing oil production levels B. ensuring optimum production of oil C. promoting efficiency in the management of oil D. supplying oil at affordable rates.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Economics 1 ANSWERS
1A 2A 3D 4D 5B 6A 7A 8B 9C l0B 11A 12C 13A 14C 15C 16D 17B 18D 19A 20C 21A 22B 23A 24B 25D 26C 27B 28B 29C 30B 31B 32A 33B 34C 35C 36D 37B 38D 39B 40D 41C 42C 43A 44C 45A 46C 47B 48D 49B 50A
Economics 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers, Answer five questions in all: one question only from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
SECTION A
1. The table below shows the various possible combinations of military and civilian goods produced by a country, using the available resources and technology. Use the table to answer the questions that follow.
| Military Goods | Civilian Goods |
| (in tonnes) | (in tonnes) |
| 0 | 200 |
| 20 | 160 |
| 40 | 120 |
| 60 | 80
|
| 80 | 40 |
| 100 | 0 |
(a) Draw the production possibility curve (PPC). (b) Indicate points S and K at which production is not feasible.
(c) Indicate points M and N at which resources are not efficiently utilized. (d) What does the downward slope of the PPC indicate? (e) Why is production not feasible at points S and K?
2. The following table shows the population and the Gross National Product (GNP) of countries R, S, T, U and V in 1980. Use the information in the table to answer the questions that follow
| Countries | Population (in Million) | Gross National Produc (in Million Dollars) |
| R | 120 | 2,500 |
| S | 180 | 12,000 |
| T | 60 | 4,000 |
| U | 100 | 6,500 |
| V | 25 | 2,500 |
(a)(i) Calculate the per capita incomes of countries R, S, T, U and V. (ii) Determine the range of the per capita incomes of the five countries. (iii) Which one of the countries enjoyed the highest standard of living? (b) Express the population of each of countries R, S, T, U and V as a percentage of the total population of all the countries. (C) Draw a simple bar chart showing all the countries and their respective per capita incomes.
SECTION B
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
Answer four questions only from this section
3. Why are many West African countries trying to adopt a free market system?
4. (a) What is underpopulation? (b) Under what conditions will it be advantageous for a country to promote population growth?
5. (a) Explain the concept of diminishing marginal utility. (b) How is utility maximized?
6. What are the instruments used by the Central Bank to control the supply of money in any economy?
7. Distinguish between: (a) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost; (b) Marginal Cost and Marginal Revenue; (C) Total Cost and Total Revenue; (d) Average Cost and Average Revenue.
8. (a) Define labour as a factor of production. (b) Explain five characteristics of labour.
9, What factors determine the size of a firm?
10. (a) What is economic integration? (b) Outline the characteristics of a customs union.
10. Distinguish between a perfect market and a monopolistic market.
12. (a) What is balance of payments deficit? (b) How is it financed?
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Economics 2 ANSWER
1(a, b, c.)
(d) The downward slope of the PPO indicates that there is an opportunity cost of producing more of one type of commodity and less of the other due to limited resources and technical know how.
(e) Production at points S and K is not feasible due to the limited available resources and technology.
.c
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
3. Why many West African countries are trying to adopt a free market system. (i) Facilitates rising standard of living. (ii) Enables consumers to maximize satisfaction.(iii) It generally promotes rapid economic growth and development through investment .(iv) Stimulates free and efficient utilization of resources by private individual. (v) Promotes efficient production methods. (vi) Consumers and producers have freedom of choice.
4. (a) Under population: This is a situation when the population is too small relative. to the available resources. The standard of living of the area can be Increased If the population is increased. (b) Conditions that will be advantageous for a country to. promote population growth when there is small labour force relative to resources. This hinders specialization and economies of scale.
(ii) When there is small domestic market relative to national output which hinders large production ,
and specialization. (iii) When there is declining or ageing population. (iv) when there is high labour cost as a result of small labour force.(v) When technology is basically labour’ intensive. (vi) When a country with optimum population had experienced considerable reduction in population due to war or epidemics.
5(a) Concept of diminishing marginal utility
As additional unit of commodity is consumed it adds less to total utility and later adds nothing to total utility. Further consumption leads to negative values, then total utility diminishes as reflected in the total curve dropping downwards. (b) How utility is maximized. A consumer’s utility is maximized with the marginal utility per amount spent on a product IS equal to the marginal utility per amount spent on any other product. It can be written mathematically as:
MUX/PX = MUX/PX = MUZ/PZ
Where MUx MU and MU represent the marginal utilities of
products x, y, z while Py Py Pz represent their prices respectively.
OR
In case of one commodity a consumer will maximize his utility when the MU of that commodity equals the price of the community e.g. MUx = Px
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
6. Instruments used by Central Bank to control the supply of money in an economy.
(i) Open market operation: Involves the buying and se fling of securities by the Central Bank in order to control the volume of money in the economy. (U) Discount rate: This is also known as bank rate. It is the rate at which the Central Bank charges interest on commercial banks and other financial institutions for discounting bills of exchange or tends to commercial banks.
If the Central Bank wants to curtail bank lending, it will raise its discount rate, thereby forcing other rates to rise. This will make lending unfavourable to the public thereby reducing the volume of money in circulation. On the other hand, if the CBN wants to pump money into the economy, the discount rates will be reduced. (iii) Special directives: These are special directives given by the CN to the commercial banks and other financial institutions as to the areas of priority in which their lending activities should follow. (iv) Moral suasions: This is more or less an appeal to the commercial banks by the CBN to behave in certain ways. (v) Special deposits: The commercial banks are compelled by law to keep certain percentages of their deposits with the Central Bank. If this is high, it will reduce the volume of loans given to the public and vice versa. (vi) Cash ratio/liquidity ratio: This is also known as cash reserve ratio or liquidity ratio. The Central Bank uses this ratio to increase or decrease the volume of money in circulation in the country. Like other methods, if the Central Bank wants to increase the amount of money in circulation in the economy during deflationary period, it will lower the ratio thereby expanding the lending activities of the commercial banks and vice versa.
7. (a) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
Fixed Cost of production is the sum of the cost of all the fixed inputs used in a production process.
Fixed cost do not change with the changing output in the short run which means no matter the level of production they remain fixed, example of this is the cost of machinery, land etc. FC = TC – VC.
Variable Cost on the other hand is the sum of the cost of all variable inputs of production. It includes the cost of labour, raw materials and any other item whose cost changes as output changes in the short run. Therefore, the more goods and services produced the higher they tend to be and vice versa. VC = TC – FC.
(b) Marginal Cost and Marginal Revenue
Marginal Cost is the change in total cost as a result of a unit change in output. Marginal cost does not depend on fixed cost. It depends on variable cost. MC = ΔTC/Δq
while Marginal Revenue is the changes in total revenue as a result of a change in quantity sold. MR = ΔTR/ΔQ
(C) Total Cost and Total Revenue
The Total Cost of production is the sum of all the fixed and variable cost incurred during the process of production. This varies with the level of output. Tc = Fc + Vc.
while Total Revenue is the total amount of money earned by selling a given level of output. Total Revenue may increase, remain constant or decrease with changes in price. TR = p x q
(d) Average Cost and Average Revenue
Average Cost is the total cost (TC) divided by the total output (Q). It is the unit cost i.e. Tc/q = AC
While Average Revenue is the unit price. It is the total revenue (TR) divided by the output (Q) TR/Q = AR.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
8. (a) Labour: Labour is the human effort used in production that is usually accompanied by some form of reward. For example, payment of wages and salaries.
(b) The characteristics of labour are: i) Labour is mobile: Labour is mobile both graphically (from one place to another) and occupationally from one job to the other). (ii) Labour becomes skilful through education and training. ii) Labour controls and combines all other factors of production to make them more meaningful to the society. iv) The quality of labour can be changed by factors such as personal qualities, training, the environment and motivation. (v) Labour is perishable: Knowledge can diminish over time as a result of continued unemployment. (vi) Labour can act on its own initiative.
9. Factors that determine the size of a firm (I) The market: The size of the market for a firm’s product influence the size of a firm. If the market is small in term of effective demand the operation of the firm is bound to be small. (ii) Capital: When it is difficult to obtain necessary capital for the formation of a large firm or expansion of existing one. (iii) Entrepreneurial ability: Ability to undertake a large risk and to manacle large scale business is an important factor to determine the size of a firm. The size of such firms depend on the knowledge and experience needed for planning the operation. (iv) Technical nature of product/ service: Firms providing personal services for customers are usually run by small enterprises e., lawyers, accountants and bankers. Firms producing perishable agricultural produce and bankers. Firms producing perishable agricultural goods tend to produce to satisfy only local markets. They therefore tend to be small scale producers. (v) Stage of development: Some firms are small because they have just been established. Given some time they may grow and expand. (vi) Government policy: When government is ready to assist firms it helps to determine the size of operation. (vii) Available technology.
10 (a) Economic Integration: It is the deliberate act of governments, to pool their economic resources in order to achieve a greater efficiency in the production of goods and services for the social and economic welfare of their countries. Countries with common interests form themselves into an organisation whose major objectives are to remove trade barriers and other obstacles that reduce the free flow of services between them e.g. ECOWAS, EEC/EU
(b) Characteristics of customs union (i) Tariffs are abolished. (ii) Each member country is given freehand to maintain its custom duties and tariffs against non member countries. (iii) The members may agree on common duties and tariffs against any non-member country. (iv) All trade restrictions are abolished.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
11. Differences between perfect market and monopolistic market. (i) A perfect market is characterized by many buyers and sellers. In a monopoly market, there is only one or single producer or supplier of a particular commodity and many buyers. (ii) In a perfect market, price and quantity are determined by the interaction of the forces of demand and supply, whereas in a monopoly market, price and quantity are determined by the producer i.e. he has the power to influence either price or output in his favour. (iii) There is free entry as well as exit in a perfect market while entry and exit are restricted in the monopoly. (iv) Monopolists are able to discriminate due to different elasticities of demand for their products in different markets whereas this is absent in the perfect market because there is perfect elasticity of demand. (v) There is homogeneity of products in a perfect market, while in a monopolistic market that is not so. (vi) Under-utilization of resources under monopoly and duplication of resources under perfect competition. (vii) Under perfect competition there is perfect knowledge of the market situation where as it is not true of monopoly. (viii) The equilibrium level under perfect competition is where MC = MR = P, whereas under monopoly price is higher than MC and MR.
12 (a) Balance of payment deficit
A deficit balance of payments means in/or respect of imports of goods and services plus autonomous capital outflow is greater than receipts in respects of exports of goods and services plus autonomous capital inflow.
(b) Some of the means to finance balance of payments deficit are: (i) Running down external reserves/ and special drawing rights. (ii) Drawing of IMF (Borrowing from IMF). (iii) Short-term credit from various sources (borrowing) (iv) Purchase goods on credit (v) Increased export of goods and services-export promotion (vi) Sale of foreign investments (vii) Grants and aids from friendly countries.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions BIOLOGY 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers, Answer all the questions.
1. Which of the following indicates that Euglena is a plant?
A. Conspicuous eye’ spot B. Presence of gullet C. Limited movement D. Presence of starch grains.
2. Which of the following is a tissue?
A. Volvox B. Chlamydomonas C. Epidermis D. Paramecium
Use the diagram below to answer Questions 3 and 4.
3. The structure that produces ATP is labelled
A. VII B. V C. VI D. I
4. The structure labelled V is the
A. cell wall B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. mitochondrion
5. The major function of the cell membrane is that it
A. delimits the cytoplasm B. synthesizes protein C. breaks down worn-out organelles. D. is the site for photosynthesis.
6. Carbohydrates are stored in the animal cell in the form of
A. starch B. glycogen C. plastid D. maltose
7. A piece of yam weighing 1.0 gm was put into some salt solution. After 3 hours, it was removed and weighed. The recorded weight was 1.2gms. This simple experiment demonstrates that the
A. salt solution is more concentrated than the cell sap of the yam. B. cell sap of the yam is more concentrated than the salt .solution C. salt solution has the same concentration as the cell sap of the yam. D. the yam lost some water
molecules to the salt solution.
8. A major reason why the red blood cells can survive in the blood is that the
A. blood plasma and the red blood cells are isotonic. B. red blood cells are hypotonic to the plasma. C. the red blood cells are hypertonic to. the blood plasma. D. the red blood cells receive digested nutrients.
9. Which of the following phenomena affects plants growth in an alkaline soil?
A. Excessive plasmolysis II’ B. Excessive transpiration C. Excessive sunlight D. Poor drainage
10. A red blood cell haemolyses when placed in a hypotonic solution because
A. it contains haemoglobin.. B. the cytoplasm is less dense. C. the cell lacks a wall D. its pigment has a high affinity for water.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
11: Which of the following structures are visible in the cell of a plant during mitosis?
A. Centrioles, chromatids and nucleolus B. Homologous chromosomes, nuclear membrane and spindle: fibres C. Cell wall, centrioles and chromatids D. Chromosomes, nuclear membrane and centromere.
12 Display is a phenomenon which occurs when an animal is
A. ready for mating B. fighting to defend it C. approaching puberty D. chasing away an intruder.
13 The advantages of sexual reproduction include the following except
A. it allows the formation of new species B. it allows production of desirable traits. C. it permits variation of individuals D. it provides mea for the variation of chromosome number from generation to generation.
14 Which of the following groups contains a non-supporting structure in animals?
A. Cartilage, bone an pseudopodia B. Pellicle, chitin and bone C. Humerus, ribs and cartilage D. Femur, pellicle and chitin
15 Which of the following statements is true about blood groupings?
A. Group AB can donate blood to all other groups. B. Group 0 are universal recipients. C. Group A has A antigen in its plasma. D. Group 0 has no antigen.
16 Which of the following is not a constituent of blood plasma?
A. Proteins B. Mineral salts C. Water D. Platelets
17 The process by which plants convey food material to different parts of the body is called
A. nutrition B. absorption C. circulation D. translocation
18 Which part of the gill of fish is involved in gaseous exchange?
A. Gill slits B. Gill bars C. Gill covers D. Gill filaments
19 Which of the following is not a product of fermentation of glucose?
A. Energy B. Alcohol C. Lactic acid D. Carbon dioxide
20 Which of the following pairs of structures does not perform similar functions?
A. Lungs and spiracles B. Root hair and mammalian hair C. Feathers and scales D. Contractile vacuole and kidney
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
21 The effect of the contraction of the muscles of the diaphragm is that
A. the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. B. more carbon dioxide is expelled through the nostrils. C. the rib cage is drawn inwards. D. the intercostal muscle becomes relaxed.
22 Which of the following is an excretory product of Amoeba?
A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Uric acid D. Amino acid
23 Which of the following processes occurs when the body temperature of a mammal rises above the normal. I The arterioles in the skin dilate. II Sweat production is reduced. III The erector muscles contract.
A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only
24 The following functions are associated with the liver except
A. regulation of blood sugar B. production of heat C. production of fibrinogen D. production of vitamin D.
25 Short-sight could be corrected with the use of
A. convex lens B. cylindrical lens C. concave lens D. bifocal lens.
26 Which of the following statements about the maize grain is not correct? It
A. undergoes hypogeal germination B. is a fruit C. is non-endospermous D. has pericarp fused with the testa.
27 In mammals, fertilization usually occurs in the
A. cervix B. vagina. C. uterus D. oviduct.
28 Which of the following vertebrates incubate their eggs?
A. Mammals B. Birds C. Amphibians D. Reptiles
29 Which of the following is an agent of pollination of grasses?
A. Insects B. Water C. Wind D. Mammals
30 The spinneret found in the caterpillar of butterfly is used for
A. protection against predators B. feeding on vegetation C. movement on twigs D. production of silk thread.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
31. Carbon dioxide enters the leaf through the structure labelled
A. I B. II C. IX D. X
32..Manufactured food is transported from the leaves through the structure labelled
A. IV B. V C. VI D. VII
33. The palisade cells are the structures labelled
A. III B. IV C. VI D. VIII
34. Which of the groups of structures listed below contains chloroplast?
A. I, and III B. II, III and VII C. III, VIII and IX D. III, VIII and XI
35. In which of the following processes is light energy converted to ATP?
A. Osmosis B. Transpiration C. Chemosynthesis D. Photosynthesis
36. The correct equation for photosynthesis is
A. C6 H12 O6 + 602 sunlight/chlorophyll — 6 C02 + 6H2O.
B. CO2 + H2O sunlight/chlorophyll — C6 H12 O2 + O2
C. 6CO + 6H2O sunlight/chlorophyll — C6 H12 O6 + 602
D. 6 C02 + 6H2O.sunlight/chlorophyll 6C6 H12 O6 + 602
37. Which of the following is an evidence of photosynthesis?
A. Absorption of light B. Formation of starers C. Availability of carbon dioxide D. Splitting of water molecules
38 Which of the following organisms is a chemo-autotroph?
A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Paramecium D. Euglena
39. Turgidity in the cell of plant does not easily lead to bursting of the cell because the
A. cell membrane can resist the turgidity B. large vacuole contained in the cell, can continuously take in water. C. cellulose cell wall can resist the turgidity. D. cytoplasm is jelly-like. .1
40. Magnesium is needed by plants for
A. protein synthesis B. formation of cell membrane. C. activation of enzymes. D. formation of chlorophyll.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
41. Which of the following. is not a micronutrient?
A. Manganese B. Copper C. Potassium D. Zinc
42. Loam is the best type of soil for crop production because
A. it has a high percentage of clay which prevents leaching B. it has high humus content. C. it is porous and has good water retention capacity D. gravels which obstruct implements are absent from it.
43. The mineral needed for the formation of haemoglobin is
A. magnesium B. iron C. phosphorus D. calcium
44. A person who fails to detect the bitter taste of a substance swallowed, is more likely to have
A. dead taste buds on the tongue. B. avoided the substance from contacting the back of his/her tongue.
C. fewer taste buds on the tongue. D. swallowed the substance without any water.
45. Which of the following solutions is suitable for removing chlorophyll in a green leaf?
A. Millon’s reagent B. Methylated spirit C. Benedict solution D. Fehling’s solution
46. Which of the following is not promoted by high wind speed?
A. Rill erosion B. Weathering of parent rock C. Breeding of plant D. Opening of stomata
47. Micro-organisms which break down dead organisms and absorb their contents are called
A. decomposers B. consumers. C. parasites. D. commensals
48. The substances recycled in the soil by the activities of micro-organisms during the decay of dead organisms are first utilised by the
A. carnivores B. herbivores C. scavengers D. autotrophs.
49. Which of the following associations can upset the balance of nature?
A. Epiphitism B. Parasitism C. Symbiosis D. Saprophytism
50. Which of the following groups of factors do the Agama lizards compete for? I. Space II. Food Ill. Mates
A. Space and food only B. Space and mates only C. Food and mates only D. Space, food and mates
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
51. Which of the following structures in a housefly aids in the transmission of diseases in man?
A. Hairs B. Spiracles C. Antennae D. Wings
52. Which of these is not correct about the Tsetse fly and mosquito? They
A. harbour protozoa as disease agents B. possess piercing and sucking mouth parts. C. have intermediate hosts. D. inject disease-causing organisms into the blood stream.
53. Which of these is a vector of malaria fever?
A. Female anopheles mosquito B. Male anopheles mosquito C. Female culex mosquito D. Male culex mosquito
54. Fresh milk is often kept in refrigerated vehicles, for distribution to customers in order to
A. ensure proper share of fresh milk to all customers. B. ensure delivery of milk to customers in good time C. improve the quality of the milk. D. ensure that the milk is preserved for a longer period.
55. In medicine, bacteria have proved very useful due to the production of
A. nitrate B. antibiotics C. cured tobacco D. tanned leather
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
Use the following human characteristics to answer questions 56 and 57.
I. Complexion II. Height Ill. Blood Rh factor IV. Colour blindness
56. Which of the above human characteristics are discontinuous variations?
A. I and Ill only B. II and Ill only C. II and IV only D. Ill and IV only
57. Which of the characteristics can be expressed phenotypically?
A. I and II only B. I, II and IV only C. I, Ill and IV only D. I, II and Ill only
58. Which of the following variations is applicable to a weight lifter?
A. Continuous variation B. Discontinuous variation C. Hereditary variation D. Acquired variation
59. The character that expresses itself in the presence of the contrasting character is
A. hybrid B. allele C. recessive D. dominant
60. Which of the following animals exhibits territoriality?
A. Bees B. Bats C. Lizards D. Rabbits
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Biology 1 ANSWERS
1.D 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.D 11.C 12.A 13.D 14.A 15.D 16.E 17.D 18. D 19. C 20.B 21. A 22.B 23.A 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. D 31.C 32.B 33.A 34.D 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. B 44. B 45. B 46.C 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. D 51.A 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. D 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. C
BIOLOGY 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
ESSAY (PART I)
Answer two questions only from this part.
1.(a) (i) Draw and label the human sperm cell. (ii) State where the sperm cell is produced and where it is stored. (b) Explain how the structure of the sperm cell enables it to function effectively in fertilization. (c) Mention four advantages of sexual reproduction.
2.(a) (i) Draw and label the mammalian heart. (ii) Explain briefly pulmonary circulation in mammals. (b) State five processes by which the mammalian body reduces its temperature.
3.(a) State eight human activities that may pollute water bodies. (b) Explain the measures that may be used to prevent pollution of water bodies. (c) Mention four methods of purifying water.
4.(a) (I) Define tropic and nastic movements. (ii) List four differences between tropic and nastic movements. (b) Describe an experiment to show that auxins are produced in the apical cells of a shoot.(c) (i) Name two plant hormones, other than auxins. (ii) Give two examples of tropism.
PART II
Answer one question only from this part.
5.(a) What is an ecosystem? (b) Name two abiotic factors each which affect plants and animals in a terrestrial habitat.
(c) Describe the effects of three abiotic factors on a named plant and an animal in the habitat mentioned in (b) above.
6 (a) (i) Name two types of competition (ii) State four factors that bring about competition among organisms (b) Outline the relationship between competition and succession.(c) (i) Explain briefly Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection. (ii) List five evidences to support the occurrence of evolution.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Biology 2 ANSWERS
1.(a) (i) Diagram of human sperm cell.
(ii) Site of production and storage of sperm cell Acrosome Produced in the Testis(es)/seminiferous tubules. Stored temporarily in the epididymis (b) Structure and function of sperm cell. Acrosome is located at the anterior end of the head which contains lytic enzymes/agents used to dissolve the egg membrane/enhances penetration of the egg during fertilisation. Middle piece contains numerous mitochondria, which generate the energy used by the sperm cell to swim towards the egg. Long whip-like taillflagellum at the posterior end of the sperm cell propels/moves the sperm cells.
The nucleus in the head of the sperm cell contains genetic materials which fuses with the nucleus of the egg/ovum.
(c) Advantages of sexual reproduction.
– Permits variability of individuals/new varieties produced.
– Enhances survival in new/changing environment.
– Allows for production of hybrids for some desirable traits.
– Provides means for the maintenance of chromosome number from generation to generation.
– Enhances speciation/formation of new species/allows for continuity of the species.
2.(a)(i)
(ii) Pulmonary circulation in mammals Heart muscles contrast. – Deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle. -Passes through the
pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery. -To the lung capillaries. – For exchange of oxygen and carbondioxide.- Oxygenated blood from the lungs then returns by the pulmonary vein. To the left auricle.
(b) Processes by which mammalian body reduces temperature.
Relaxation of hair erector muscles. – Sweat production increases -Vasodilation occurs – Reduction ~n heat generated by muscles. – Reduction of metabolic activities by the body. – Conversion of energy into ATP instead of heat. – Panting/yawning
reduces temperature.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
3.(a) Activities of man that pollute water bodies.
– Dumping of household refuse/organic wastes into water. – Oil spillage from drilling/tankers.
– Thermal pollution/ hot water from industrial plants/atomic reactors.
– Dumping of agro-chemicals e.g. fertilizers, pesticides, fungicide etc.
– Dumping of dyes from textile factories into water.
– Pouring detergents from homes/factories into water. -Pouring tanins from leather factories into water.
– Radiations/radioactive fall-outs from nuclear plants washed into water. -Untreated sewage dumped into water bodies.
– Use of dynamites/explosives for fishing. – Use of chemicals/gamalin/ DDT in fishing.
(b) Measures for preventing pollution of water bodies.
– Treat raw sewage before discharge into water/prohibition of disposal of human waste into water
– Refuse must be burnt/buried/must not be deposited in water. -Recycle industrial waste before discharge.
– Discharge wastes in controlled amounts. – Cool water from industrial plants before discharge.
– Proper sewage treatment. – Use of biodegradable detergents in controlled amounts.
– Limit use of pesticides and fertilizers.
– Spray oil with detergents to spread it/cover oil with chalk powder to cause it to sink and spcd up bacteria decomposition.
– Educate farmers on correct usage of fertilizers to limit run-off into water bodies.
– Enactment/enforcement of laws to prevent the use of explosives and chemicals in fishing.
– Proper measures should be enforced at nuclear plants.
(c) Methods of purifying water
– Boiling – Addition of chemicals e.g. alum/chlorination – Filtering – Distillation -Sedimentation and boiling
– Sterilization e.g. by using U.V. light.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
4. (a) Definition
(I) Tropic movement: Growth movement of plant organs, in response to external unilateral/direction of stimulus. Nastic movement: Movement of certain parts of plants, in response to diffused/nondirectional stimulus.
(ii) Differences between Tropic and Nastic movements.
Tropic Movement
– Movement not easily reversible
– Response leads to growth
– Movements are not due to changes in cell turgor
– Response is towards the direction of the stimulus
– Response is slow
– Responses are not due to pressure
Nastic Movements.
Movement reversible
Response does not lead to growth
Movements are due to changes in cell turgor.
Response is not directed to the stimulus
Response is rapid
Responses are due to pressure.
(b) Experiment to show that auxins are produced in the apical cells of a shoot. Aim: To show that auxins are produced in the apical cells of a shoot. Materials: 3 potted seedlings of maize labelled A, B, and C. Agar block, sharp knife/ cutting instrument, Mica sheet/ aluminium foil/cover slip. Methods: Cut tip of coleoptile/shoot in A to serve as control.
– Leave decapitated shoot for about 48 hours.
– Select another potted seedling B, and cut off tip of coleoptile/shoot.
– Place the cut tip on an agar block for about 2-6 hours.
– Place agar block on stump of the decapitated shoot and leave for about 48 hours. – Select a third seedling, C, and cut off tip of the coleoptile.
– Place tip of the cut coleoptile on mica sheet for 2-6 hours.
– Place mica sheet on cut surface of decapitated shoot and leave for about 48 hours. Observation: Growth ceased in decapitated shoot A.
– When agar block was placed on stump of shoot B in which growth had stopped, growth resumed
– When mica sheet was placed on stump of shoot C in which growth had stopped, growth did not resume.
Conclusion: This shows that a chemical substance/auxin produced at the tip/apical cell of the shoot is responsible for the growth of the shoot.
(c)(i) Names of plant hormones.
– Globerelic acid/Globerellin.
– 2, 4 – 2, 4 – Dichlorophenozy acid/2, 4 – Dichiorophenol ethane acid. -Cytokinins I kinins I kinetin,
– Abscisic acid I Abscissin – Ethylene / ethene – Traumatin – Florigen – Dormin – Any other correct hormones – Formin etc.
(ii) Examples of Tropisms
• Geotropism – Hydrotropism – Thigmotropism / Haptotropism – Phototropism – Stereotropism
– Chemotropism – Thermotropism Any other tropism
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
PART II
5. (a) An Ecosystem: Ecosystem is a natural unit in which there is an interaction between all living organisms/
biotic factors and non-living organism/abiotic factors; within an environment/habitat. Abiotic factors that affect plants and animals.
– Inorganic compound elements e.g. 02, N2, Salts, CO.,, H.,O etc. – Water/Rainfall – Temperature
– Light/Sunlight – Wind – Altitude – Pressure – Moisture/rainfall humidity – pH -Wildfire/thunder and lightning
Effects of abiotic factors Temperature:
– High temperature leads to high transpiration rate in plants/aestivation/hibernation in animals.
– High rate of metabolism in organisms. – A high rate of decay of organic matter.
– A higher rate of growth and shorter length of life cycle in some organisms e.g. housefly/toad.
– At very low temperature plant roots absorb water at slower rates/reduction in the rate of transpiration/metabolism of organisms. – At low temperature, animals e.g. snails may hibernate/birds migrate. Rainfall:
– Makes water available to organisms (plants, animals)
– Quantity of rainfall determines type of vegetation in a habitat.
– Vegetation in its turn influences types of animals that will live there.
– Rainfall/splash/floods may dislodge organisms.
– Rainfall increases relative humidity which may affect the rate of transpiration and perspiration in plants and animals respectively. -Rainfall causes soil erosion which deprives plants of soil nutrients.
– May form puddles/ponds thereby creating habitats/breeding grounds for certain terrestrial organisms.
Winds:
– Steady wind increases rate of evaporation/transpiration/desiccation rate for animals.
– Strong winds cause soil erosion which affects living organisms.
– Strong winds break off branches of trees/fell trees/bend trees/also force animals out of cover
– Aids dispersal of organisms. – Aids pollination.
Light:
– Intensity of sunlight affects plants by affecting rate of photosynthesis. – Affect the rate of transpiration/ stomata opening. – Adequate sunlight promotes growth of many plant species. – Low light leads to growth of shade-tolerant species. – Light affects the vision/movement of animals. – Light affects the distribution of organisms in habitat.
Pressure/Altitude:
– At high altitude pressure decreases and animals have problems with respiration/blood pressure.
– At high altitude temperature decreases while wind action increases which affects the distribution of organisms.
– At high altitudes only animals with special haemoglobin are found in the environment.
– Altitude may affect speciation. – Altitude may affect the behavioural pattern of animals.
Inorganic compounds:
– Used by organisms/plants and animals to maintain growth and sustain life. °2 for respiration.
– CO2 for photosynthesis. – N2/Nitrates promote plant growth. – H20 for growth and maintenance of body
temperature. PO2 for plant growth.
Humidity:
– Affects rate of transpiration/perspiration – Affects the vision of animals through the formation of fog/mist.
– Affects the activities of poikilothermic animals.
– Affects the distribution of organisms e.g. earthworms/ bryophytes e.g. liverworts etc.
Wildfire/thunder and lightning:
– Destroys organisms/vegetation/animals – Displaces organisms/animals from their habitat.
– Breaks a dormancy in seeds/buds/underground stems/rhizomes. – Enhances growth of grasses and
provides food mostly for herbivores. – Destroys soil nutrients/humus.
– Exposes soil to erosion which affects plants/animals.
pH:
– Increases salinity/alkalinity/acidity of soil which affects plants/animals.
– Affects distribution of plants. – Delays germination in some seeds. – Enhances germination in some seeds.
– Affects turgidity of some plants.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
6. (a)(i) Types of competition.
– Inter-species/inter-specific competition. – Intra-species/Intra-specific competition.
(ii) Factors Affecting Competition.
– Food shortage/scarcity of food. -Shelter/space/reduced space/over-crowding/over-population/shortage of air. -Water – scarcity of water. – Light – inadequate light intensity. -Mate – reduced number of mates. – Temperature – temperature variation.
Relationship between competition and succession.
– Competition leads to death of weak organism/the well adapted organisms/ones survive.
– Competition gives rise to succession
– Changes are brought about by the replacement of the old species by new ones.
– New species adapt better than old ones; new species utilise components of the old ones leading to a new stable community which leads to succession.
(c)(i) Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection.
– Living organisms produce more offspring than can survive.
– Due to over-production of offspring there is constant struggle/competition for existence among them.
– Some organisms are well adapted to survive the competition than others.
– The well adapted ones will transmit such variations/traits to their offspring.
– Those with poor adaptations will die off/become out-competed/progressively less productive.
– An accumulation of favourable variation will in a long time lead to divergence/spread from original stock.
– Resulting in the formation of new species
(ii) Evidence of Evolution
– Evidence from comparative anatomy – Evidence from fossil record. – Physiological evidence
– Embryological evidence – Evidence of vestigial organs – Evidence from cytology – e.g. DNA structure
– Evidence from geographical distribution – Classification/Taxonomy.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions GEOGRAPHY 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
Answer all the questions.
Study the map of AGIDI DISTRICT below and use it to answer question I – 10.
1. The scale of the map expressed as a representative fraction is
A. 1: 50,000 B. 1: 120,000 C. 1:150,000 D. 1: 250,000
2. The direction of Ebie from Oze is
A. 035° B. 085° C. 127° D. 305°
3. The feature marked X – Y is a
A. cuesta B. cliff C. spur D. ridge
4. How many tributaries has river Morni?
A. 1 B.2 C.5 D.6
5. What is the likely occupation of the people of Agic District?
A. Mining B. Trading C. Agriculture D. Boat building
6. The uict contour line on the map is
A. 850m B. 800m C. 600m D. 500m
7. The actual distance from Ofia to Yot as the crow flies’ is
A. 15 km B. 12km C. 7 km D. 3km
8. The second largest settlement on the map is
A. Oze B. Agidi C. Asebe D. Fada
9. Which of the following towns are not intervisible?
A. Agidi and Fada B. Oze and Asebe C. Ebie and Yot D. Ofia and Ego
10. The symbol •845 in the North eastern part of the map is known as
A. trigonometrical station B. contour line C. spot height D. hachures.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
Use Figure 1 below to answer Questions 11 —14.
11. The Figure 1 is known as
A. simple bar graph B. divided bar graph C. percentage bar graph D. group graph
12. The greatest advantage of the Figure 1 is that it
A. makes for easy comparison of the data represented B. shows the total value of the data represented. C. shows the percentage decrease in the value of the data represented. D. is very easy to construct.
13. Which of the following countries produced the least number of motor cars in 1963?
A. Britain B. America C. Italy D. Japan
14. The difference between the number of motorcars produced by Britain and Italy is 1960 is
A. 92 million B. 83 million C. 63 million D. 43 million
15. The biggest member of the solar system is
A. Mars. B. the moon C. the sun D. Neptune.
16. Which of the following planets revolves round the sun in clockwise direction?
A. Mercury B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Pluto
17. The latitude which marks the limits of the sun’s apparent movement north and south of the equator is
A. 231/2° B. 45°W C. 651/2° D. 90°.
18. The average density of Sima is
A . 2.0 B. 2.9 C. 3.0 D. 3.7
19. An example of a crystalline rock is
A. peat B. limestone C. granite D. sandstone
20. When plateaux are enclosed by fold mountains they are known as
A. intermont plateaux B. lava plateaux C. volcanic plateaux D. dissected plateaux
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
21. Which of the following is formed by coastal erosion?
A Spit B. Bay C. Lagoon D. Tombolo
22. A horizontal intrusion of molten magma into the bedding plane of sedimentary rocks is called
A. Phacolith B. Lacolith C. Sill D. Batholith.
23. Which of the following ocean currents enhances rainfall in its immediate hinterland?
A. Canaries current B. Mozambique current C. Californian current D. West Australian current
24. Which of the following is not an element of climate?
A. Rainfall B. Humidity C. Temperature D. Fog
25. Given that the temperature of Station X (at sea-level) is 80°F (26.7°C) at a particular time, what would be the temperature of V at 1300 ft (400 m) above sea level] at the same time? (Both stations are on the same latitude).
A 68°F (20°C) B. 70°F (21°C) 0.76°F (24.4°C) D. 80°F (26.7°C)
26. Environmental lapse rate is
A. 1°C for every 300 m ascent B. 2°C for every 100 ascent C. 0.6°C for every 100 ascent D. 0.8°C for every 1000 m ascent.
27. Dark clouds extending to height of about 15,000 metres which bring a lot of rain to tropical lands are known as
A. cirrocumulus. B. cirrus C. cumulonimbus D. cumulus
28. Which of the following is not an element of weather?
A. Condensation B. Cloud cover C. Rainfall D. Sunshine
29. Which of the following is not true about a clayey soil?
A. It is heavy B. It has relatively small particle sizes. C. It has relatively small tiny air spaces. D. It is characterized by high capillarity.
30. The type of rainfall characterized by torrential downpour in the tropics or during summers in the temperate interiors is called
A. convectional rainfall B. frontal rainfall C. orographic rainfall D. cyclonic rainfall
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
31. Which of the following settlement types is the largest in size?
A. Megalopolis B. Village C. Town D. City
32. A plant which is adapted to living in a region where little moisture is available is called
A. helophyte B. hygrophyte C. xerophyte D. hydrophyte
33. All the following minerals are found in Nigeria except
A. coal B. bauxite C. tin ore D. columbite
34. Which of the following occupations is not common among the peoples of Southern coastlands of Nigeria?
A. Fishing B. Lumbering C. Trading D. Cattle rearing
35. Which of the following factors is least necessary for the development of hydro-electric power?
A. High domestic demand B. Natural reservoirs and falls C. Rain-fed rivers D. Heavy capital outlay
36. A major hazard to both human and aquatic life in some coastal areas of Nigeria is
A. air pollution B. overfishing C. desalination of sea water. D. oil spillage.
37. The intensity of erosion by a river is determined by the
A. volume of water only. B. gradient of the valley only. C. gradient and width of the valley D. volume of water, gradient of the valley and the load carried.
38. Transhumance involves the movement of
A. people from rural to urban areas. B. migrant labour from source to receiving regions. C. settlers from highlands to lowlands for farming. D. cattle up and down mountains for pasture.
39. The vegetation type which is found only in the Northern Hemisphere is the
A. Mediterranean woodland. B. Tundra vegetation C. Tropical rainforest D. Coniferous forest.
40. Deforestation can be caused by
A. an increase in population B. re-afforestation C. the establishment of forest reserves. D. a decrease in the use of fuel wood.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
41. Man has interfered with the ecosystem through.
I. farming II. modification of weather and climate Ill, overgrazing
A. I only B. II only C. II and Ill only D. I, II and Ill
42. Good transportation network promotes all the following except
A. national disintegration B. international trade C. movement of people and goods. D. spread of ideas and technology.
43. The most ideal location for an iron and steel industry is one that has I. a large population II. an adequate supply of iron ore. Ill, a good transport network. IV. an abundant supply of coal.
A. I and II only B. I, II and IV C. I, Ill and IV D. LI, Ill and IV
44. A net population growth is the
A. surplus of emigrants over immigrants plus total death. B. actual population inhabiting a place. C. surplus of birth over death plus net migration D. surplus of immigrants plus total birth.
45. Which of the following is the cheapest source of power for a large scale industry?
A. Coal B. Gas C. Water D. Petroleum
46. The climate of Nigeria is characterized by
A. continuous seasons B. two seasons C. three seasons D. four seasons.
47. The largest producer of gold in West Africa is
A. Nigeria B. The Gambia C. Sierra Leone D. Ghana
48. The initial problems of rail and road development in Africa were due primarily to the
A. dense population B. inadequate mineral resources C. difficult physical environment D. insufficient agricultural resources
49. The largest city in Africa South of the Sahara is
A. Ibadan B. Accra C. Lusaka D. Johannesburg
50. The benefits to be derived by ECOWAS member countries include all the following except
A. free movement of people across member countries B. territorial expansion C. free flow of capital D. the creation of large market
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Geography 1 ANSWERS
1.A 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.D 10.C 11.D 12.A 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.A 21.B 22 C 23.B 24.D 25.C 26.C 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.A 31.A 32.C 33.B 34.D 35.C 36.D 37.D 38. D 39.B 40.A 41.D 42.A 43.D 44.C 45.A 46 B 47.D 48. C 49.A 50.B
GEOGRAPHY 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION B – ELEMENTS OF PRACTICAL AND PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
Answer Question I and any three others.
Study the map extract on a scale 1:100,000 and answer the following questions:
1(a) Draw an outline of the area to a scale of 1:300,000. (b) On your outline, insert and name: (i) the settlements of Pindiga and Yalo; (ii) one 1900 ft contour line; (iii) the minor roads. (c) Calculate the actual distance along the minor road from Futuk to the point where it leaves the area on the map. (d) Describe the influence of relief and drainage on the distribution of settlements shown on the map.
2. (a) Describe the Prismatic Compass. (b) Highlight four basic precautions that should betaken when making a compass traverse.
3. (a) Distinguish between Meridians and Parallels. (b) A football match is to be played on Saturday in New Zealand (150°E) between the host country and Nigeria (15°E). If the match is to be televised live, at what time should Nigerians tune in their television sets to watch the kick-off scheduled for 4.00 p.m. in New Zealand?
4. (a) Explain the term vulcanicity? (b) Describe the characteristics and mode of formation of any one of the following (i) Batholith; (ii) Dyke; (iii) Composite cone. (C) In what four ways are volcanic rocks important to man?
5. (a) What is a spring? (b) With the aid of diagrams, describe three ways by which springs may be formed.
6. (a) Name the instruments used in measuring the following: (i) Rainfall: (ii) Humidity (iii) Temperature (iv) Wind. (b) With the aid of a diagram, describe the instrument used to measure rainfall. (C) Explain how the instrument described in 6(b) above is used.
7. (a) Describe the characteristics of the equatorial climate. (b) Highlight the main features of the vegetation type associated with the climatic region in 7(a) above.
8. (a) Define the term flooding. (b) Highlight four causes of flooding. (c) Outline four effects of flooding (d) What two measures can be taken to control flooding?
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Geography 2 ANSWERS
SECTION B [ESSAY]
ELEMENTS OF PRACTICAL AND PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
1(a) Draw an outline of the area to scale of 1:300,000.
Outline length 12.2cm Breadth 12.2cm
Note: The original length and breadth had been divided by 3.
(b)(i) Settlement of Pindiga and Yalo. (ii) 1 900ft contour line. (iii) Full length of two minor roads. Note: All these had been indicated in the drawn outline.
(c) Calculating the actual distance along the minor road from Futuk to the point where it leaves the area on the map. The distance in the map is 13.5 cm. The scale of the map is 1:100,000. Therefore the conversion of 13.5cm to the actual distance on the ground is
(13.5 ÷ 100000) x 100000 ÷ 1 km = 13.5km
(d) The influence of relief and drainage in the distribution of settlements shown on the map. (i) The undulating plain to east of the area has many settlements. (ii) Most settlements are near the river valleys. (iii) Settlements avoid river valleys that are liable to flooding e.g. no settlement in the south-east due to flooding. (iv) Settlements avoid the highland area in the west, north-west and south-west.
2. (a) The description of prismatic compass.
This is a circular magnetic compass used in surveying or for taking bearing.
Prismatic compass is a prism with a slit in it and has a slight vane with a vertical line opposite the prism. Most often, it contains a circular card and graduated in degrees (0′- 3600). The plane containing the prism slit and the sight vane hair also contain the pivot of the compass card. The prism reflects the figure of the card immediately below it and allow the surveyor to read. A prismatic compass contains a magnetic needle, pointing to the magnetic north.
(b) The precaution to be taken when making a compass traverse are as follows: (i) All magnetic materials should be removed from the body and pockets of the reader before the bearing is taken (ii) the bearing should not be observed from a position close to strongly, magnetic materials eg. corrugated iron sheets, railway tines or power lines. (iii) The compass must be held horizontally so that the edge of the card does not rub against the top of the compass. (iv) The “back” bearing should be taken from the other end of the line and should differ from the on/forward bearing by exactly 1800.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
3(a) Distinguish between Meridians and Parallels”
(i) Meridians are lines of longitude white Parallels are lines of latitude.(ii) Meridian are drawn from North to South while Parallels are drawn from West to East. (iii) The distance between two Meridians decreases towards the pole while for the Parallels the distance is constant. (iv) Meridians have equal length in circumferences while Parallels have different length. (v) Meridians meet at the poles while Parallels never meet. (vi) Meridians are marked 0° – 180° East and West of the Greenwich while Parallels are marked 0° – 90° North and South of the equator. (vii) All Meridians form part of a great circle while only one latitude —the equator is a great circle. (viii) The equator is a point of reference of all lines of latitude whereas the Greenwich is a reference point of the longitudes. (ix) Meridians are used to calculate time while Parallels are used to calculate distance.
(b) The difference in longitude between New Zealand and Nigeria. ie. 150′- 15° = 1350 using the formula. 1° is equivalent to 4 minutes; 15° is equivalent to 1 hour.
Therefore 1350 ÷ 15° x 1 hr. = 9 hrs.
Since Nigeria is behind New Zealand subtract from New Zealand time to get Nigeria’s time.
i.e. initial time – calculated hour
Therefore 4 p.m. – 9 hours
(16 hours-9 hours).
= 7 00 am Saturday.
4(a) Explain the term vulcanicity
Vulcanicity is the process by which gaseous, liquid and solid substances are forced from interior of the earth into the crust or onto the surface of the earth.
(b) Characteristics of Batholith
(i) Most spectacular of igneous rocks. (ii) It is a large mass and usually of hundred kilometres in extent. (iii) It forms longitudinal ridge in the core of fold mountains. (iv) Batholith may be exposed as a result of denudation. (v) Examples are Wicklow mountain, Ireland and Upland Britany France, along the Rockies in U.S.A. Formation of Batholith It is volcanic in origin and formed at the roof of mountain, massive and resistant upland. Batholith are large mass of magma rising upwards and accumulates in the crust.
Characteristics of Dyke (i) They are vertical or inclined across the bedding planes (discordant) (ii) It has a narrow wall-like feature. (iii) Dyke is rarely prominent in the landscape. (iv) A times when exposed forms shallow trenches. (v) It is a resistant rock. (vi) It may be circular in shape e.g. Ring Dyke in Jos. (vii) Dyke is very extensive in length. (viii) Dyke sometimes gives rise to waterfall s/rapids.(ix) Dyke often constitutes oil trap or water trap. (x) Examples are cleveland dyke of Yorkshire, ring dyke in Jos.
Formation (i) Dykes are formed from the intrusion of molten magma into cracks and joints. (ii) They are formed through cooling and solidification of vertical and narrow walls of igneous rock.
(iii) It has shallow trenches formed when exposed to denudation.
Characteristics of composite cone. (i) It is the highest form of volcanoes. (ii) It is the most common type of volcanoes.(iii) It is conical in shape. (iv) In structure, it is made of alternative layers of ash and lava. (v) Composite cone usually build up conelets around the major cone. (vi) Examples are Etna Sicily, Mountain Fuji; Mountain Chimborazo and Vesuvius.
Formation Composite cones are made of alternate layers of ash and lava. The lava pours out forming layers on top of the ash The lava moves out from the sides of the cone. Conelets are built up in minor eruptions. New eruption forms new layers which grow gradually as height increases. At times the whole top of the volcanoes blows off or sinks e.g. chimborazo. A large crater called Caldera may finally emerge at the point of volcano.
(c) Importance of volcanic rocks. (i) It serves as a source of mineral. (ii) It is a fertile soil for agriculture (iii) It serves as hotspring for domestic uses (iv) It provides rocks for construction. (v) It forms basin for underground water. (vi) It forms basin for crude oil deposits
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
5(a) What is a spring? A spring is a natural outflow of water from underground to the surface of the earth. The water may seep out gently or gush out strongly. The outflow of water occurs at or below the plane where the water table intersects the surface
(b) Formation of springs In areas of tilted strata, where permeable and impermeable rock alternate, water emerges at the base of the permeable Iayei In well jointed rocks, water may percolate downwards until it reaches a joint which emerges at the surface. The water may come to the surface through the joint to form a spring. Where a dyke or sill of impermeable rock is intruded through permeable rocks it causes the water table to reach the surface. The water issues out as spring In limestone or chalk escarpments, where the permeable rock lies between impermeable strata, water issues at the foot of the scarp as springs. In Karst regions rivers often disappear underground and may re-emerge as a resurgence..
6(a) Name the. instruments used in measuring the following:
(i) Rainfall – Raingauge
(ii) Humidity – Hygrometer
(iii) Temperature – Thermometer
(iv) Wind – Wind vane for direction
(v) Velocity – Cup counter anemometer for speed.
(b) With the aid of a diagram, describe the instrument used to measure rainfall. The description of instruments (i) Outer metal cylinder (ii) A funnel (iii) Lunar container (iv) Measuring jar
(c) The Raingauge – The raingauge is installed 30cm above the ground level to avoid water splash. The rain that falls each day is collected in the glass jar. The rain water enters the inner container / glass jar through a funnel. To prevent any water splash from entering the funnel, it is usually constructed in an open place away from trees and buildings. The rain water that fails into the container is emptied each day. It is measured in the calibrated measuring jar or read directly from the glass jar. The total rainfall for each month is added to get the monthly rainfall which is added at the end of the year to get the total rainfall for the year.
7. (a) Describe the characteristics of the equatorial climate. The temperature is constantly high all the year round. Mean monthly temperature is 27°C, and has a very small annual range of less than 3°C. It has a high humidity and its relative humidity is over 80%. Large amount of clouds in the sky and daily range of temperature is small. Annual rainfall is over 2000mm or 200cm and it rains throughout the year. There is no marked dry season hence rainfall is convectional in nature. There is an intermittent shower caused by convergence of air masses at the doldrums. Relief rainfall is usually observed at mountainous areas. Throughout the year it is hot and wet.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
(b) Vegetation – It is an equatorial rain forest and evergreen. Some trees shed their leaves and others bear flowers, others fruit simultaneously. Trees do not occur in pure stand as there exists different species. The trees are in three (3) distinct layers. The common trees are Mahogany, Ebony, African walnut, Iroko, Sapele wood, etc. In this vegetation type, there are climbers, creepers and parasites. The trees have buttressed roots and are umbrella-shape or form canopies on top which only permit this growth.
8. (a) The term flooding: – Flooding is the covering of the surface of the earth with water, resulting from temporary rise in the level of a river, lake or other water bodies.
(b) Causes: The causes are as follows:
(i) Heavy rainfall.(ii) Blockage of drainage and water ways.(iii) Encroachment on water courses by settlement. (iv) Ground water coming out from over-saturated aquifer.(v) Rivers overflowing their banks. (vi) Release of excess water from reservoirs or dams. (vii) The collapse of dams and rise in sea level.
(c) Effects: Flood would result in the following: (i) Destruction of farmland. (ii) Destruction of houses and properties. (iii) Loss of Iife. (iv) Shortage of food and high cost of food (v) Outbreak of diseases and epidemics(vi) Causes landslides and mudflow. vii) Temporary stoppage of economic activities such as schooling, marketing etc (viii) Contamination of source of domestic water.
(d) Measures of control (i) Channelization (ii) Enforcing environmental laws. (iii) Clearing of drainage channels regularly. (iv) Dredging of river course. (v) Regular maintenance of dams.
GEOGRAPHY 3: HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
Answer at least one question from this section.
(a) Identify four patterns of population movement within a country. (b) Give five reasons that may lead to any one pattern of the movements identified in 1(a) above. (c) Highlight three possible effects of population movement on the: (i) source region; (ii) destination.
2. (a) Highlight any four characteristics of urban centres. (b) Explain four ways in which urban centres depend on their surrounding rural areas. (c) Describe three problems facing rural areas.
3. (a) Identify any four ocean routes used in world trade (b) In what four ways has water transportation contributed to economic development? (c) State four ways of improving transportation on inland waterways.
SECTION B – NIGERIA
Answer at least one question from this section.
4. (a) On an outline map of Nigeria, show and name: (i) Rivers Kaduna, Niger and Cross; (ii) two important dams; (iii) one delta coast; (iv) one inland lake. (b) Identify any three contributions of rivers to the development of Nigeria. (c) Outline any three problems encountered in the utilization of Nigerian rivers.
5. (a) Draw an outline map of Nigeria and on it show and name: (i) two industrial zones; (ii) one town in each zone; (iii) one industry in one of the zones. (b) Outline two factors that favour the location of the named industry in (a)(iii) above. (c) Highlight four problems facing industries in Nigeria.
6. (a) On an outline map of Nigeria, locate and name: (i) the Niger-Benue trough; (ii) Rivers Niger, Benue, Gongola and Donga; (iii) one confluence town in the region. (b) Write a geographical essay on the physical characteristics of the Niger-Benue trough. (c) Outline four ways in which the economic activities in the Niger-Benue trough are related to its physical characteristics.
SECTION C – AFRICA
Answer at least one question from this section.
7. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show: (i) latitudes 30°N and 35°S; (ii) longitudes 150W and 20°E; (iii) one area each of equatorial climate, tropical continental climate and desert climate; (iv) one major town in each climatic belt. (b) Explain any four ways in which the tropical continental climate affects the vegetation in the area.
(a) Describe the method of gold mining in South Africa. (b) Highlight any four benefits of gold mining to the country. (c) Identify three problems which result from gold mining activities.
9.(a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show and name: (I) Nile Basin; (ii) Zaire (Congo) Basin; (iii) Mediterranean region in North Africa. (b) Write geographical notes on any two of the following: (i) Irrigation agriculture in the Nile Basin. (ii) Lumbering in Zaire (Democratic Republic of Congo). (iii) Fruit farming in North Africa.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Geography 3 ANSWERS
SECTION A – HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
(a) Identify four patterns of population movement within a country.
Pattern of movement – (i) Rural – rural (ii) Rural – urban (iii) Urban – urban (iv) Urban – rural (v) Transmigration(vi) Seasonal migration.
(b) Reasons for population movement – (i) The quest for job opportunities. (ii) Religious oppression. (iii) Political oppression.(iv) Wars (inter-tribal/communal clashes). (v) Quest for medical facilities. (vi) Absence/inadequacy of social amenities generally. (vii) Unfavourable economic condition. (viii) Famine (ix) Environmental hazards-drought, floods etc. (x) Quest for education.
(c) Possible effects of population movement on: (a) To the source region. (i) Decrease in population. (ii) Decongestion (iii) Decrease in number of young men and women (iv) Scarcity of labour (v) Less development (vi) Decline in productivity. (vii) Low value for landed property. (viii) Disintegration of cultural values such as broken homes.
(b) To destination (i) Increase in population. (ii) Increase in the number of young men and women.(iii) Congestion in housing, traffic etc. (iv) High crime rate. (v) Inadequate social facilities. (vi) Unemployment/underemployment. (vii) High value for landed property. (viii) High cost of living.
2. (a) Characteristics of urban centres. (i) Densely populated. (ii) Seats of administration. (iii) Well built-up area. (iv) Presence of social amenities. (v) Poor waste management. (vi) Population is heterogenous. (vii) Population engaged in secondary and tertiary activities. (viii) Congestion. (ix) Low rate of inter-personal relationship.
(b) Ways in which urban centres depend on rural areas.
(iv) Market for manufactured goods – clothes, jewelleries and other consumer goods. (v) Country home for some retired civil servants.(vi) Provision of wood for fuel. (vii) Provision of herbs. (viii) Cultural preservation e.g. art and crafts.
(c) Problems of rural areas. – (i) Rural depopulation (ii) Inadequate social amenities (iii) Inadequate infrastructure (iv) Slow rate of development such as banks, insurance etc. (v) Loss of farm labour. (vi) Low agricultural production.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
3.(a) Identify any four ocean routes used in world trade.
Ocean routes – (i) The North-Atlantic routes. (ii) The Mediterranean -Asiatic routes (Suez Canal route).(iii) The Cape route or South African route. (iv) The South Atlantic route. (v) The North pacific route.(vi) The Transpacific route.
(b) Contributions of water (H2O) transport to economic development. – (i) It enhances a cheap exchange of bulky commodities between nations such as crude oil. (ii) It has induced production of export commodities in large quantities. (iii) It has enhanced development of towns and cities along sea routes and points. (iv) It is a means of cultural contact and exchange of innovations. (v) It generates foreign exchange. (vi) It serves as source of revenue to the government. (vii) It was the means for many discoveries that changed the world outlook. (viii) It employs a very large number of people.
(c) Ways of improving transportation in inland water ways – (i) Clearing of water weeds. (ii) Manpower development (iii) Dredging of river channels (iv) Construction of dams and locks to maintain uniform depth of water.(v) Building of canals to straighten winding water routes. (vi) Use of barges or narrow boats where waterways are narrow. (vii) Installation of modern navigational aids.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
4.a
(b) Contributions of rivers to development. (i) Navigation purposes. (ii) Source of fishes. used for food and trade.(iii) Used for industrial purpose. (iv) Used for domestic purposes. (v) Useful for irrigation in dry areas.(vi) Used for recreation and tourism. (vii) Hydro electric power production.(viii) Nuclei for development of river basin authorities.
(c) Problems encountered in the use of rivers. (i) River pollution (ii) Narrow channel (iii) Shallowness (iv) Shortness of rivers (v) Rapids and waterfalls. (vi) Silting at river mouths (vii) Growth of water weeds
5.a
(b) Factors of location (i) Nearness to raw material Lake chad (limestone availability at Ewekoro. Ogun State.)(ii) Supply of labour both skilled and unskilled. (iii) Power supply (NEPA)(iv) Near-ness to market (Lagos and Abeokuta)(v) infrastructural facilities (vi) Capital (vii) Government policy
(C) Problems (i) Inadequate raw materials (ii) Poor transportation (iii) Erratic power supply (iv) Inadequate skilled labour (v) Inadequate capital (vi) Preference for foreign goods
6.a
(b) Physical characteristics of Niger- Benue Trough. (i) It is a low lying area. (ii) It is a land generally below 300m above the sea level. (iii) It is an area characterised by extensive flood plains and swamps. (iv) Climate is tropical hinterland! continental. (v) Rainfall within the area is more than 120cm. (vi) Humidity is above 70% for most parts of the year. (vii) Vegetation is Guinea Savanna. (viii) Major rivers that run to both areas, are River Niger, Benue, Donga, Kaduna, Sokoto, Gongola, etc. (ix) The rocks are made up of older sedimentary rocks with flat hills separated from one another gorge- like river valley.
(c) Relationship between physical characteristics and economic activities. (i) Presence c: rivers encourage irrigation. (ii) Moderate rainfall encourages farming for food crops such as rice, yams, soya beans etc.(iii) Presence of rivers encourages fishing and inland water transport. (iv) Presence of limestone has led to cement industry. (v) Presence of rivers has led to boat building and power generation at Kainji. (vi) Sedimentary deposits have led to exploitation of salt. (vii) Presence of clay deposits promotes pottery. (viii) Presence of swamps encourages rice cultivation.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
7.a
(b) Influence of tropical continental climate on
vegetation. (i) Seasonality of rainfall gives rise
to deciduous trees.(ii) Low rainfall gives rise to grass-land.(iii) Trees develop several adaptive ways to survive the long dry season such
as long taproots. (iv) There are small leaves to reduce transpiration and thick barks to reduce
transportation. (v) Length of rainy season
determines luxuriance in vegetation growth. (vi) Height of trees and grasses decreases as rainfall amount reduces.
8.(a) Method of Gold Mining in South Africa. (i) It is underground or shaft method.(ii) Vertical shafts or holes are dug to the level of ore-bearing rock. (iii) Broken rocks are hauled to the surface using conveyor belts and lifts. (iv) Horizontal tunnels are driven towards ore-bearing rocks. (v) Holes are drilled into the ore-bearing rocks.(vi) Holes are filled with explosives. (vii) Rocks shattered by blasting.(viii) Broken rocks are taken to concentrator for processing.
(b) Economic Benefits of Gold Mining to South Africa. – (i) Employs a lot of workforce (ii) Revenue to government (iii) Income for workers (iv) Encourages settlement e.g. Johannesburg. (v) Development of infrastructures. (vi) Gold as a foreign exchange earner. (vii) Enhances manpower
development.(viii) Stimulates development of all other sectors of the economy.
(c) Problems arising from mining. (i) Land deterioration/degradation. (ii) Industrial unrest (iii) illegal mining (iv) Mining hazards/collapse of miners. (v) Environmental pollution. (vi) Illegal migrant labour (vii) Relative neglect of other vital economic sectors. (viii) Increasing depth of mines and comparatively higher cost of mining.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
9.a
(b)(i) Irrigation Agriculture in the Nile Basin.(i) Aridity of the area (ii) Rainfall is inadequate in the area usually below 20cm (iii) Practised along the course of the Nile (iv) Methods include basin or flood, perennial, pump, shaduf, saquia or sikia, selika and manual. (v) Crops grown include cotton rice, wheat, sorghum, vegetable, barley, sugarcane, etc. (vi) Results in increased raw materials for industries.(vii) Problems include flooding, evaporation, salinity, water-borne disease.
(ii) Lumbering in Zaire (i) Areas include the Zaire basin, North and South of the equator.(ii) The favourable factors include climate, presence of dense forest, transport and cheap labour. (iii) The problems include inadequate capital and the use of hand or power saws. (iv) Tree species include timber, mahogany okoume. (v) It serves as an important source of raw materials for industries and employment. (vi) Other problems include difficulty in identification of tree species, inadequate transport, indiscriminate felling of trees which leads to depletion. (vii) It serves as source of income and foreign exchange.
(iii) Fruit farming in North Africa. – (i) The areas of fruit farming in North Africa include the river valley, the coast of Algeria, Morocco and Tunisia.(ii) The favourable factors include climate, fertile soils, ready market. (iii) The problems include hilly topography, pests and diseases, inadequate storage facilities. (iv) The solution to these problems include use of insecticides and pesticides, provision of adequate storage facilities. (v) The types of fruit include raisins, apples, apricot figs, dates, grapes and olives. (vi) The importance of fruits includes sources of protein, raw materials for industries, foreign exchange earning, income, employment etc.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions ENGLISH LANGUAGE 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
In each of the following sentences. there is one word or group of words underlined and one gap. From the list of words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most neatly opposite in meaning to the underlined word or group of words and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence. Answer all the questions.
1. The leader of the delegation was commended for the manner in which he handled the matter, while their hosts were ………………….
A. applauded B. praised C. criticized D. sanctioned
2. Musa is very frugal, whereas his friend Audu is ……………….
A. miserly B. thrifty C. precocious D. extravagant
3. Taiwo’s flamboyance and Kehinde’s ………..often keep people wondering if they are really twins.
A. modesty B. arrogance C. timidity D. pretention
4. People enjoy stories with……………..settings rather than those with far-fetched backgrounds.
A. practical B. realistic C. artificial D. undefined
5. We were asked to reach a compromise and not start another …….. ……..
A. accusation B. concession C. controversy D. issue
6. He was promoted for his efficiency, while his colleague was demoted for …………
A. ability B. lateness C. incompetence D. capability
7. Okon’s business is flourishing while his father’s is ……………
A. declining B. progressing C. withering D. vanishing
8. You should he ………………..so as not to be caught unawares,
A. serious B. sober C. ready D. alert
9. The manager who was sacked last month has been …………..
A. retired B. suspended C. reinstated D. promoted
10. The school authorities expected the contributions to be ………………..rather than compulsory.
A. willful B. voluntary C. deliberate D. outright
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences:
11. The …………………programme against childhood diseases has ended.
A. injection B. vaccination C. immunization D. harmonization
12. The accused stated, …….. ……. that he was innocent of the crime.
A . unequivocally B. feebly C. ashamedly D. excitedly.
13. The doctor’s ……………………was that the patient was suffering from cancer.
A. prediction B. verdict C. diagnosis D. analysis
14. I was advised to open a …………………….account with the bank if I wanted to pay in cheques.
A. savings B. deposit C. loans D. current
15. The pastor addressed his …………………..in a sonorous voice.
A. audience B. masses C. spectators D. congregation
16. Many African leaders try to cling ……………….to power.
A. tenaciously B. judiciously C. economically D. socially
17. The civilian head of state was …………..in a military coup d’etat.
A. discharged B. ousted C. empowered D. enthroned
18. After much debate on the controversial issue, the meeting was ………………….till the next morning.
A. postponed B. proscribed C. adjourned D. delayed.
19. The company distributed gifts to its staff as an ……………………..to hard work.
A. incentive B. inception C. interest D. induction
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 3
After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider, most appropriate for each sentences.
20. Bukola has an infectious smile. This means that Bukola
A. spreads infection when she smiles. B. has sores in her teeth. C. makes others smile when she smiles D. becomes infected when she smiles.
21. It is cold comfort to tell a hungry man that starvation improves health. This means that telling a hungry man this is
A. frightening. B. consoling C. unhelpful D. hypocritical.
22. Nonso’s father gave him a free hand to run the family business. This means that his father
A. assisted him freely. B. allowed him to make his own decisions. C. made him sole owner of the business D. allowed him freedom of movement in the premises.
23. Audu was certainly born with a silver spoon in his mouth. This means that
A. lie was born into a rich family B. his parents gave him a silver spoon when he was born. C. lie was born in the age of miracle D. his parents could not help him.
24. You must be speaking with your tongue in your cheek. This means that you
A. must be very serious B. must be thinking of something else C. have food in your mouth D. don’t mean what you are saying.
25. The manager hit the roof when he was presented with a huge estimate for the new project. This means that the manager
A. became very suspicious B. threw an object at the roof. C. became very angry D. ordered the project to be started at once.
26. Her reproaches cut him to the quick. This means that he
A. was made to act quickly B. was wounded C. was deeply hurt D. began to speak angrily
27. The girl went scot-free even though she started the fight. This means that the girl was
A. punished B. unpunished C. expelled from school D. free to move about
28. The secretary’s vote of thanks did not ring true. This means that the vote of thanks was
A. full of praise B. not audible C. not sincere. D. well delivered.
29. Mary Onyali won the race by a hair’s breadth. This means that Mary won
A. convincingly B. narrowly C. comfortably D. luckily.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 4
From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.
30. The criminal was incarcerated.
A. arrested B. pardoned C. imprisoned D. cautioned
31. The Manager soon found out that my sister was a competent typist.
A. patient B. capable C. hardworking D. careless.
32. At the inception of his administration, the Governor was very popular.
A. end B. beginning C. dissolution D. peak
33. The businessman anticipated the collapse of the bank
A. prevented B. caused C. foresaw D. pre-empted
34. The plaintiff was dissatisfied with the decision of the court.
A. solicitor B. accused C. complainant D. respondent
35. The judge was incorruptible.
A. frank B. unreliable C. incorrigible D. honest
36. Mr. Preye is a stern father.
A. wicked B. loving C. conservative D. strict
37. My first son is an unusually audacious boy.
A. daring B. clever C. cowardly D. mischievous
38. Amina often makes derogatory remarks about her husband.
A . arrogant B. belittling C. laudable D. discreet
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 5
From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.
39. For such a serious offence, Etim was lucky to ………………with a fine.
A. get over B. get on C. get away D. get off
40. The members of the Association were just rounding …………..their discussion when the police arrived.
A. up B. off C. of D. in
41. I could not attend the meeting, so I asked my sister to stand …………..for me
A. up B. by C. in D. on
42. I tendered for that contract, but my application ……. .. ….
A. fell in B. fell off C. fell through D. fell down
43. He is Mr. Bello’s son…………..?
A. isn’t he B. isn’t it C. is it D. he is
44. You will help me with my assignment………………?
A. can you B. could you C. would you D. won’t you
45. I bought my ………………today.
A. very green first party dress B. green very party first dress C. first green very party dress D. very first green party dress
46. Although he was not born in Yorubaland . ……………………
A, he can’t speak the lari;’: B, he can’t write the language C. he can speak the language D. but he can speak the language.
47. Adaku and Udoka were curious ……….who was coming to see their father.
A. at B. about C. in D. of
48. Moji says she is better at Maths ………………
A. as me B. than I am C. as I am D. with me
49. I have never ……………….humiliated in my life.
A. being so B. so being C. been so D. so been
50. Fie ……………….. the scene before the accident occurred.
A. leaves B. has left C. left D. had left
51. The proposer’s argument was ……………convincing than that of his opponent.
A: much more B. most C. much D. more much
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
52. The cloth is …………………bright for my liking.
A. very B. so C. quite D. too
53. By the time they arrive, we …………..the work.
A. shall have finished B. could have finished C. will finish D. have finished
54. This engine is. ………… that one.
A. superior than B. more superior than C. more superior to D. superior to
55. Janet could not attend the party because she ………………..with the flu over the weekend.
A. came up B. came down C. came away D. came in
56. The new student made a good impression ……………the rest of the class.
A. with B. at C. on D. for
57. Could I borrow ………………..cash please?
A. a little B. a few C. much D. few
58. It is …………this background that we can understand the issues clearly.
A. for B. against C. with 0. on
59. The teacher told the pupils to commit the poem ……………….memory
A. to B. in C. onto D. inside
60 . ………………. we waited, Ayo read the letter over again.
A. While B. When C. Where D. Why
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
61. I expect everybody to respect ………………
A. itself B. ourselves C. himself D. oneself
62. You are ………………..for having that painful experience
A. none the best B. none the worst C. none the worse D. nonetheless
63 . ………………. is not good for children
A. To have skipped breakfast B. Skip breakfast C. To have,been skipping breakfast D. Skipping breakfast
64. The manager is leaving the company to ………………..a new appointment elsewhere.
A. take over B. take on C. take up D. take off
65. Since we were not given all the things we requested, we should ……………..with what we have.
A. make up B. make out C. make do D. make over
66. Nigerians will have ……………….to blame for withdrawing from the competition at the last minute.
A. themselves B. one another C. each other D. ourselves
67. Many people do not ……………their religious professions
A. live by B. live to C. live with D. live on
68………………a new teacher, she does not know much about the behaviour of the students.
A. Being B. Having been C. Been D. Having being
69. The principal hoped that he ………………to help the students.
A. can be able B. is able C. would be able D. must be able
70. The lecturer arrived exactly ……………….time to give the talk.
A. on B. with C. by D. in
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
71. Olumide initially disliked Mathematics, but ……………..time he began to like it.
A. by B. on C. with D. at
72. The judge says that no one is ………………the law.
A. over B. above C. after D. across
73. The officer ………………..that he was not supposed to talk to the press on the matter.
A. will know B. shall know C. could have known D. should have known
74. He is a dare-devil; I really ………….be surprised that he has escaped.
A. ought to B. oughtn’t C. could D. couldn’t
75. This is Bisi’s handwriting; there ………………..be no argument about it.
A. will B. may C. might D. can
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 6
In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below each passage, four options are offered in columns fettered A to D. Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gap in the passages.
PASSAGE A
Jide bought his car last year and now there is the need to renew the – 76 -. The first time he went to Mr. Olumide, the – 77 -, he was advised to – 7,8 – a – 79 – rather than a – 80 – cover. Mr. Olumide had carefully explained the merits and demerits of both types, which included the fact that one was far more – 81 – than the other. Now Jide has cause to smile because of his entitlement to a no-claim – 82 -, Being a careful owner-driver, he had not been involved in any – 83 – during the period. Unfortunately, the same could not be said for his friend, Jackson, whose car was a total – 84 – after a – 85 – with a truck. He could not even make any claim for – 86 -, because he was not – 87 – at all.
Jackson’s experience clearly points to the need for insurance – 88 – to educate prospective – 89 – on the benefits of insurance.
PASSAGE B
The persistent fuel – 90 – in the country paralysed all aspects of life especially in the cities. The streets were often 91 -of the usual hustle and – 92-that characterized city life. A visitor might erroneously think it was a public holiday, until he came near a – 93 -. There he would find long – 94 – of haphazardly parked vehicles waiting to buy the non-existent fuel from the idle 95. Another look at the bus stops would reveal groups of people anxiously trying to get to their places of work. Even car owners used the few – 96 – buses, the drivers of which had increased the — 97 – by anything from 100 to 500 percent. Though this could be very annoying, – 98 – should not blame the drivers for the – 99 rates because the drivers had
to pay through the nose to procure fuel at the – 100-
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers English 1 ANSWERS
1.D 2.D 3.A 4.B. 5.C 6.C 7,A 8.D 9.C 10.B 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.C 21.C 22.B 23.A 24.D 25.C 26,A 27.B 28,C 29.B 30,C 31.B 32.B 33.C 34.C 35.D 36.D 37.A 38.B 39.C 40,B 41.C 42.D 43.A 44.D 45.D 46.C 47.B 48.B 49.C 50.D 51.A 52.D 53.A 54.D 55.A 56.C 57.A 58.B 59.A 60.A 61.C 62.C 63.D 64.C 65.C 66.A 67.A 68.A 69.C 70,A 71.C 72.B 73.D 74,B 75.D 76.C 77,B 78.C 79.D 80.C 81,A 82.C 83.C 84.D 85.A 86.C 87 C 88.A 89.C 90.B 91.D 92.B 93.C 94.D 95.B 96.B 97.C 98,D 99.A 100.B
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION A
Answer one question only from this section.
Write a letter to your father, who has been on a long course abroad, telling him how the family has been faring in his absence.
2. Write an article suitable for publication in a cultur3l magazine on the advantages and disadvantages of the extended family system.
3. The last nation-wide strike secondary school teachers affected your school adversely. Write a letter to the Minister of Education suggesting at IC. Lt three ways of preventing future strike actions.
4. You are a speaker in a dc’-ate on the topic: Civilian rule is better than military rule.” Write your contribution for or against the motion.
5. Write a story, real or imagined, which illustrates the saying: ‘Make hay while the sun shines.”
SECTION B – COMPREHENSION
Answer the questions in this section.
6. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
Bitrus, a middle-aged man, was speeding along the hot tarmac one afternoon, oblivious of the countryside. By his side, reading a magazine, was his first son, c. twenty year old university computer science student. On the man’s mind was the contract he was pursuing in the capital city. It was worth several million dollars. Although he had handled bigger contracts before, Bitrus was preoccupied with this new challenge, his mind far away from the road before him. His son too was buried in the magazine he was reading. So, neither saw the goat crossing the road early enough. Like an automaton, Bitrus jammed on the brakes. In a flash, there was a skid and a somersault. The villagers worked for almost an hour on the wreckage of the huge Mercedes before rescuing the two.
There, in the casualty ward, the duo lay on the stretchers. Bitrus was soon in a fairly stable condition, but anybody would know that the son needed prompt specialist medical attention. The doctor was sent for, a surgeon who regularly handled such cases. Soon enough, the doctor came. The nurses heaved a sigh of relief. But then.’.. “Oh no, I can’t handle this case. He’s my son!” Everyone was shocked. One of the nurses pleaded, “But doctor, you must do something, otherwise “”No, he’s my son. I have to transfer this case.” And so, tearfully, more agitated than anybody around, the doctor hurried away to call a colleague.
Here was Bitrus, with multiple injuries, but not in danger. In the adjoining room was his son, still comatose. How then could a doctor come in and say, ‘This is my son”? Wasn’t Bitrus the father after all? Most people would reason that the doctor was truly the secret biological father. Others, reasoning hard, would conclude that the doctor was Bitrus’s father and thus was right in describing his grandson as his son. But for i iow long would people continue to think that all doctors must be male? Couldn’t the doctor have simply been Mrs. Bitrus?
(a) (i) Who was the remote cause of the accident? (ii) What was the immediate cause?(b) What does the passage suggest about doctors’ attitude to the cases they handle? “(c) Describe the conditions of Mr. Bitrus and his son at the hospital. (d) What assumption about doctors does the passage illustrate? (e) “His son too was buried in the magazine he was reading.” (i) What type of figurative expression is this? (ii) What does it mean? (f) ……(fiat the doctor was truly the secret biological father”. (i) What grammatical name is given to this expression? (ii) What is its function as it is used in the sentence? (g) For each of the following, find a word or phrase that means the same and can replace it as it is used in the passage: Q) oblivious; (ii) prompt; (iii) regularly: (iv) pleaded; (v) agitated; (vi) adjoining
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
In the 1960s and 1970s undergraduates did not need to apply for employment. Employers usually wooed them by depositing offers of jobs in their halls of residence for those interested to pick and choose from as soon as they finished writing their degree examinations. How things have changed! We have since progressed” from this age of abundance in which unemployment was hardly heard of to one of economic recession and widespread unemployment. The problem is so acute nowadays that one finds unemployment even among engineers and doctors.
What are the causes of this phenomenon? For one thing, our educational system does not train its products for sell employment. Everybody expects the government or the private sector to provide them with ajob at the end of their studies. As w have now realized, the government and the private sector combined cannot create enough jobs to go round the army at graduates turned out annually by our universities. For another, many parents encourage their children to enrol in courses leading to prestigious and lucrative professions for which they may be intellectually unsuited. They end up obtaining poor degrees or none at all. Such graduates cannot compete on the job market, so they swell the ranks of the unemployable and the unemployed.
Perhaps the most important single cause of unemployment is economic recession. During periods of boom, economic activities are generated in abundance 3nd these make plenty of jobs available. But the reverse is the case in times of economic recession.
There is no simple solution to the problem. Everyone in the society has a role to play here. The government has a duty to ensure that the economy is buoyant, thus providing the right environment for the creation of jobs. The educational authorities have to orientate the process of education towards the production of job creators rather than job seekers. Guidance and counselling services should be made available in all secondary institutions. Parents, too, should stop misdirecting their children into choosing careers for which they are ill-suited.
(a) (i) What was the employment situation like in the 1960s and 1970s? (ii) What is the situation now? (b) In what ways do the educational system, the parents and the students contribute to the unemployment situation? (c) Mention three suggestions given in the last paragraph for solving the problem. (d) Why does the writer enclose the word progressed (first paragraph) in quotation marks? (e). … for which they may be intellectually unsuited.” (i) What grammatical name is given to this expression? (ii) What is its function as it is used in the sentence? (f) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase that means the same and can replace it as it is used
in the passage: (i) recession; (ii) acute; (iii) army; (iv) lucrative; (v) boom; (vi) orientate
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION C SUMMARY
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it.
Poverty! Can anyone who has not really been poor know what poverty is? I really doubt it. How can anyone who enjoys three square meals a day explain what poverty means? Indeed, can someone who has two full meals a day claim to know poverty? Perhaps, one begins to grasp the real meaning of poverty when one struggles really hard to have one miserable meal in twenty-four hours. Poverty and hunger are cousins, the former always dragging along the latter wherever he chooses to go.
If you are wearing a suit, or a complete traditional attire, and you look naturally rotund in your apparel, you cannot understand what poverty entails. Nor can you have a true feel of poverty if you have some good shirts and pairs of trousers, never mind that all these are casual wear. Indeed, if you can change from one dress into another, and these are all you can boast of, you are not really poor. A person begins to have a true feel of what poverty means when, apart from the tattered clothes on his body, he doesn’t have any other, not even a calico sheet to keep away the cold at night.
Let us face it, how can anyone who has never slept outside, in the open, appreciate the full, harsh import of homelessness? Yet that is what rea!, naked poverty, is. He who can lay claim to a house, however humble, cannot claim to be poor. Indeed, if he can afford to rent a flat, or a room in a tovn or city, without the landlord having cause to eject him, he cannot honestly claim to be poor. The really poor man has no roof over his head, and this is why you find him under a bridge, in a tent or simply in the vast open air.
But that is hardly all. The poor man faces the world as a hopeless underdog. In every bargain, every discussion, every event involving him and others, the poor man is constantly reminded of his failure in life. Nobody listens attentively when he makes a point, nobody accepts that his opinion merits consideration. So, in most cases, he learns to accept that he has neither wisdom nor opinion.
The pauper’s lot naturally rubs off on his child who is subject not only to hunger of the body but also of the mind. The pauper lacks the resources to send his child to school. And even in communities where education is free, the pauper’s child still faces an uphill task because the hunger of the body impedes the proper nourishment of the mind. Denied access to modern communications media, the poor child has very little opportunity to understand the concepts taught him. His mind is a rocky soil on which the teacher’s seeds cannot easily germinate. Thus embattled at home and then at school, the pauper’s child soon has very little option but to drop out of the school.
That is still not all. Weakened by hunger, embattled by cold and exposure to the elements, feeding on poor water and poor food, the pauper is an easy target for diseases. This is precisely why the poorest countries have the shortest life expectancy while the longest life expectancy are recorded among the richest countries. Poverty is really a disease that shortens life!
In six sentences, one for each, summarize the problems of the poor man.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers English 2 ANSWERS
SECTION A
1.
6,Agarawu Street,
Mushin,Lagos State,
Nigeria.
16th May, 2001
My dear father,
I don’t know how to express our feelings at home. We miss you a lot. I had thought you will come back in good time. What we thought would take just six months has taken two complete years, yet we don’t know when you will return. Home has not been the same since you left. I now realise the importance of a father at home. The moonlight stories and plays. The collection of one money or the other from you. Words cannot express how much we’re missing you; We are all anxiously waiting for the time when the prolonged course shall end.
The position of the family since you left has been mixed. Though, our mother has been trying, yet I still believe that there is no person who can replace your fatherly role at home. Uncle Tayo comes in once in a while to play with us He even assisted us in making Sola secure an admission.
Another important thing that happened during your absence is mummy’s promotion. God is wonderful. It would have been difficult to finance our education, shelter us, but for the promotion. She is now the Assistant Executive Officer in the Local Government.
Educationally, we are steadily progressing. None of us has failed since you left. I was the best overall student in the last promotion from SS2 to SS3. Sola was able to secure an admission to Federal Government College, New Bussa. Also, our elder sister, Funmilola is in the University of Lagos. Even if you’re here, we couldn’t have surpassed this achievement.
However, there are two major things that have happened which made your absence felt. First, the plots of land you bought at Oke Odo have been taken over by trespassers. Second, the landlord has given us a quit notice. We are presently looking for an alternative accommodation.
Uncle Tayo and Bola sent their greetings. Extend my warm regards to your fellow course mates. Hoping to read from you soon
Yours affectionately, Ade
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
2. THE ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF THE EXTENDED FAMILY SYSTEM.
The family is the single, most important unit of any society. This explains why God created the first family after he had established the earth. There are many advantages inherent in the extended family system. The nuclear family does not exist in isolation, it comes from a larger system which is the extended family.
The extended family consists of the husband, wife, children and the relatives of the husband and wife. These relatives are the uncles, cousins, nephews, aunts, etc. It is a system which ensures communal help to be rendered to the other members of the extended family. The help includes taking the children of other family members into one’s immediate family. It extends to providing free labour when one family member is constructing a house.
One of the advantages of this system is fostering unity amongst the family members. Everybody is his brothers’ keeper. The concerted efforts of all members of the family make the extended family system have an edge over the nuclear family system. Problem shared is problem solved. Psychologically, a member of the extended family whose burden is shared by many is likely to have a less burden to carry. This can be exemplified with this illustration. Roofing of the house of a member of the extended family is shared by all those concerned. The children carry planks and nails while their parents contribute money to support the completion of the work.
Child-rearing in the extended family system is most suitable. Any other member of the family who is capable of assisting ,in raising children of those in need accepts the child. The children are also better trained because there are many people watching the behaviour of the children. If a child misbehaves, other members of the family will correct him even when the blood parents are not there.
However, the extended family system does not conform with the present economic reality. It does not logically follow that because a person was trained by another, he is bound to train other people’s children. This may cause disaffection among the family members. In addition, it is a known fact that no matter what you do to satisfy someone else’s child, he may not be contented. The child may be feeding his blood parents with packets of lies which in turn may cause disunity. The truth of the matter is that no matter what is done, it is by far better to leave parents to raise their children in their own way.
Finally, the extended family system may encourage indolence. Lazy members of the family can indulge in laziness. All he needs to do is to become an itinerant beggar, moving from one house to the other with complaints. He collects money only to move to another house.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
3.
Adewale Bolanle,
25, Karimu Street,
P.M.B. 2026, Mushin,
Lagos State. Lagos.
The Honourable Minister,
Federal Ministry of Education, Abuja.
A.U.D. Girls’ High School,
25th July, 2001.
Dear Sir,
THE CAUSES AND PREVENTION OF SECONDARY SCHOOL TEACHERS’ STRIKE
I wish to intimate you with the serious consequences of the last nation-wide strike by secondary school teachers in the country. There are many students who did not resume after the strike was called off. The most affected are the female students in the senior classes who were reported to have been pregnant. Infact, our senior prefect was one of these students.
The unfortunate effect of the strike action also affected the male students. The devil found work for some idle hands as there were reports that some secondary school students joined gang of armed robbers while others became gamblers. Academically, most of us have forgotten practically all the things we were taught before the strike commenced. The strike made us duller and lazier. I pray that God will give our teachers strength to make up for the lost time.
Prevention they say is bettor than cure. it is better to identify the causes of the strike so as to offer ways of preventing it. One of the causes of the teachers’ strike was the non-payment of their salaries promptly. The Nigeria Union of Teachers (NUT). scribe claimed that sometimes their salaries are paid on the fifteenth of the following month. He also stated that in some states, teachers were owed arrears of up to three months.
In addition, secondary school teachers are being molested by parents and hooligans; just because they discipline erring students. Also, the proscription of the umbrella body of teachers by the ministry was the last straw that broke the camels back The government detained the executive members of the union, dissolved the cabinet and later proscribed it. I wish to suggest some possible ways to curb this type of situation. First, teachers, just like other civil servants are entitled to reward of labour. They have rendered their service and as such should be paid their salaries, You should use your good offices to constitute a probe panel to look into the reasons for the delay in payment of the teachers’ salaries.
Teaching profession is the oldest profession in the world. There should be a code of conduct governing it. The ministry should come out with categorical statement condemning all acts of molestation and intimidation of teachers. I also wish to suggest that a liaison committee be formed. This committee will have members from both the ministry and the teachers where problems and agitations can be discussed. It is going to be of immense benefit to the nation at large and to’ the students in particular if there are no more strikes. I wish the ministry looks into these suggestions with a view to finding lasting solution to incessant strikes.
Yours faithfully,
Don Miklem
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
4. CIVILIAN RULE IS BETTER THAN MILITARY RULE
Good morning, the chairman, the moderator, the panel of judges, the time keeper, my co-debaters, and my attentive audience, The topic to be proposed this morning is ‘Civilian Rule is Better Than Military Rule’
First, one has to give the meanings of key words in this topic – Civilian and Military Rule. Civilian rule can be defined as a type of governance undertaken by the civil society. It can also be referred to as government by the people’s representatives. Military rule on the other hand is governance by members of the armed forces. They usually force themselves on the people. Civilian rule is referred to as democratic while military rule is tagged autocratic. The process of choosing the representatives of the people is most often done through voting while the military come to power through another process called coup d’etat.
At this juncture, I have to come out boldly by supporting the proposal, having these points to buttress my stance. One of the most important reasons why civilian rule is better is what we are doing today—debate. The freedom guaranteed all citizens to air their views. My opponents cannot deny the fact that you dare not publicly criticize a military regime. You will be rounded up by the state security agents if such happens.
The process of becoming the peoples’ representative is another reason for my preference of civilian rule to military rule. All intending participants will come out to campaign. They will give highlights of what they wish to accomplish if they are voted for. Some will employ campaign managers, print leaflets, advertise on bill boards, etc. All these will provide employment to some Nigerians. The most important of all these is the choice. The opportunity given to the electorate to vote for the best candidate.
In addition, civilian rulers tend to govern better than military rulers. This is simply because of the fear of reprimand by the people who elected them. The civilian rulers know clearly that should they fail to perform, re-election will be difficult. It may even spell doom for their political party if they are elected through the platform of a political party. Above all, they live amongst us, they begged us to vote for them and they are our people. It seems logical that they are easily accessible to us than any group of people who forced themselves on us.
Moreover, there are checks and balances embedded in civilian rule to ensure smooth running of government. The legislative houses and the press oftentimes cry out to check the excesses of civilian rulers. My opponents can testify to the fact that there are no legislative houses during military regime. Again, the press is viewed by the military as their enemy, thus leading to the closure of media houses and detention of journalists.
In conclusion, I wish to state categorically that the armed forces are established to defend the territorial integrity of the nation against internal and external aggression. They should face their job rather than rule.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
5. MAKE HAY WHILE THE SUN SHINES
Aduke, the toast of the moment. Born with the proverbial silver spoon. She was given everything imaginable for a young child. The sky was the limit. Moyo and influence, two things necessary to make a man are in her possession without any struggle. She was the only child of Mr. and Mrs. Adoye. The family was blessed with wealth. It would be considered a shame if they don’t use this abundant wealth to train just a child. In fact, many a time, neighbours and relatives were often bailed out of financial difficulties through their philanthropic gestures. There was a particular couple in the nei.9hbpurhoo,d who could not afford to pay their children’s school fees. It was the generous assistance of the Adoyes who responded to their distress call.
One would have thought that with all these opportunities, Aduke will prosper, in addition her parents have no choice than to make do with what they have. They are indeed ready to train her to the highest level. The process began with the enrolment into a nursery and primary school in their locality at the age of three. Some dissenting tongues started wagging at first because of the age of the child. The explanation from the Adoyes was that she will get used to the situation.
Aduke graduated from the nursery/primary school to another privatc secondary school. She was put in a boarding school. This was the rare opportunity given to her on a platter of gold. It was misused. She stopped attending classes altogether. She soon joined the gang of had girls. All vices which one could think of were her stock-in-trade. She abused all drugs within her reach. It was in the last year in the secondary school that it started to dawn on her that she must do something to pass her examination. Meanwhile, cheating is imrssibIe, hence she decided to try another method.
She consulted some of her mates on her predicament and the solution offered her was to consult a native doctor who will give her a remembering potion She had forgotten that without reading the potion will not work She failed her examination After three unsuccessful attempts, she gave up.
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION – COMPREHENSION
6(a) (i) The remote cause of the accident was that Bitrus was not concentrating on the driving.
(ii) The immediate cause was the goat crossing the road.
(b) The passage suggests that doctors’ attitude to the cases they handle depends on their relationship with the patient. (c) Mr. Bitrus had multiple injuries, his son was unconscious. (d) People think that all doctors are male (e)(i) It is a metaphor. (ii) it means the boy was immersed in what he was reading (f )(i) Noun Clause (g)(i) Oblivious – unmindful, forgetful, unaware. (n) Prompt – immediate, urgent, quick. (iii) Regularly normally, consistently, usually. (iv) Pleaded begged appealed implored (v) Agitated shaken disturbed moved (vi)Adjoining next adjacent
7 (a)(i) In the 1960s and 1970s,there was no unemployment (ii) Now, there is unemployment
(b)(i) The educational system does not train students to be self-employed. (ii) Parents enrol their children for courses that they are not suited for. (iii) Students obtain poor degrees or none at all. • (c)(i) Government should provide the right environment for the creation of jobs. (ii) The educational authorities should channel the process of education towards producing job-creators. (iii) Guidance and counselling services should be made available in all secondary schools. (d) He has used it ironically. (e)(i) Adjectival/Relative clause (ii) It qualifies the noun professions (e) (i) Recession – depression, slump, decline (ii) Acute – severe, serious, enormous (iii) army, large number, multitude, legion. (iv) Lucrative— Profitable, paying, rewarding (v) Boom – growth, buoyancy, abundance. (vi) Orientate – direct, steer, guide.
SECTION SUMMARY
8. (i) The poor man goes hungry. (H) The poor man hardly has any clothes to wear. (iii) The poor man has no roof over his head. (iv) The poor man’s opinion is not recognized. (v) The poor man is unable to send his child to school. (vi) The poor man has a short life-span.
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 3: TEST OF ORALS OBJECTIVE TEST
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 1
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined. An example is given below.
Example: seat A. sit B. cite C. set D. key
The correct answer is D because only key contains the same vowel sound as the one underlined in seat. So, answer space D would be shaded Now answer the question that follow:
1. work A. port B. talk C. nurse D. lock
2. grew A. sew B. who C. pull D. know
3. deep A. police B. twice C. kick D. spill
4. hill A. chief B. hike C. save D. fit
5. best A. regale B. vehicle C. many D. burnt
6. hunt A. rough B. cough C. hinge D. saw
7. flock A. love B. onion C. bottle D. yarn
8. force A. worse B. pause C. bus D. yarn
9 cat A. last B. cut C. bank D. plate
10. car A. clerk B. man C. plait D. quay
11. by A. bury B. buoy C. heinous D. height
12. float A. oven B. hoard C. poll D. hop
13. way A. says B. great C. plaque D. height
14. abt A. round B. dough C. thought D. country
15. fair A.. dear B. hear C. bier D. rare
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
16. bang A. sand B. singe C. hung D. bug
17. these A. clothe B. worth C. thank D. path
13. vision A. attention B. repression C. intention D. illusion
19. Ehysics A. verse B. faction C. shepherd D. psychic
20. check A. choir B. chaos C. chimney D. machine
21. cool A. accuse B. ocean C. censure D. cellar
22. slag A. phase B. post C. corps D coup
23. tame A. bench B. toss C. nation D. yacht
24. toast A. begged B. warned C. listen D. capped
25. thin A. length B. tin C. thyme D. there
26. asked A. axed B. grasped C. masked D. taxed
27. apy A. help B. please C. tulip D. print
28. pneumonia A. damn B. solemn C. hymn D. knew
29. zoo A. resign B. assist C. converse D. rice
30. baby A. dumb B. lamb C. stab D. climb
SECTION 3
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word. An example is given below.
Example: detain A. obtain B. detail C. claim D. relay
The correct answer is A because only obtain rhymes with detain. Therefore, answer space A would be shaded. Now answer the following questions:
31. serial A. carrier B. serious C. unreal D. rally
32. deceit A. receipt B. appeal C. resit D. conceive
33. could A. food B. blood C. wooed D. wood
34. curtail A. until B. fail C. defile D. feel
35. while A. buy B. boil C. bile D. boy
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 4
In each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the correct stress. An example is given below.
Example: democratic A. DE-mo-cratic B. de-MO-cra-tic C. de-mo-CRA-tic D. de-mo-cra-TIC
The correct answer is C because the main/primary stress of the word democratic is on the third syllable. Therefore, answer space C would be shaded.Now answer the following questions:
36. matrimony A. ma-TRI-mo-ny B. ma-tn-MO-ny C. ma-tn-mo-NY D. MA-tn-mo-ny
37. advertisement A. ad-ver-TISE-ment B. ad-ver-tise-MENT C. ad-VER-tise-ment D. AD-ver-tise-ment
38. formidable A. FOR-mi-da-ble B. for-MI-da-ble C. for-mi-DA-ble D. for-mi-da-BLE
39. category A. cat-E-go-ry B. CAT-e-go-ry C. cat-e-GO-ry D. cat-e-go-RY
40. delicacy A. del-i-ca-cy B. del-i-CA-cy C. del-i-ca-CY D. DEL-i-ca-cy
SECTION 5
In the following options lettered A to 0, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress pattern and shade your answer in the usual way. An example is given below.
Example: A. away B. apart C. behind D. river
Options A, B, C are all stressed on the second syllable while option D is the only one stressed on the first syllable. So, D is the correct answer. Therefore answer space D would be shaded. Now answer the following questions:
41. A. success B. extent C. colleague D. acute
42. A. despite B. petrol C. vomit D. wardrobe
43. A. component B. importance C. distribute D. revenue
44. A. benefit B. deposit C. difficult D. prevalent
45. A. schedule B. country C. finance D. fountain
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 6
In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in CAPITAL LETTERS. From the questions lettered* to 0, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer. An example is given below.
Example: My mother’s FRIEND hates pets.
A. Does your mother’s boss hate pets? B. Does your mother’s friend love pets? C. Does your mother’s friend hate toys? D. Does your fathers friend hate pets?
The correct answer is A because My mother’s FRIEND hates pets answers the question, Does your mother’s boss hate pets? Therefore, answer space A would be shaded. Now answer the following questions:
46. Tamuno confessed that he STOLE the car.
A. Did Thomas confess that he stole the car?
B. Did Tamuno confess that he borrowed the car?
C. Did Tamuno deny that he stole the car?
D. Did Tamuno confess that he stole the lorry?
47. Dad requested the DRIVER to open the door?
A. Did Mum request the driver to open the door?
B. Did Dad order the driver to open the door?
C. Did Dad request the gardener to open the door?
D. Did Dad request the driver to shut the door?
48. The housemaid locked the baby in the FRIDGE.
A. Did the steward lock the baby in the fridge?
B. Did the housemaid cool the baby in the fridge?
C. Did the housemaid lock the cat in the fridge?
D. Did the housemaid lock the baby in the toilet?
49. Musa found the money UNDER Mum’s mattress.
A. Did Musa find the money inside Mum’s mattress?
B. Did Musa steal the money under Mum’s mattress?
C. Did Ayo find the money under Mum’s mattress?
D. Did Musa find the wristwatch under Mum’s mattress?
50. The AMBASSADORS are visiting Nigeria tomorrow.
A. Are the ambassadors visiting Ghana tomorrow?
B. Are the athletes visiting Nigeria tomorrow?
C. Are the ambassadors visiting Nigeria next week?
D. Are the ambassadors leaving Nigeria tomorrow?
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
SECTION 7
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol. An example is given below.
Example: / ⊃i / A. yell B. holy C. boy D. idiot
The correct answer is C because only boy contains the sound represented by the given symbol. Therefore, answer space C would be shaded. Now answer the following questions:
51. / ª i A. increase B. perform C. tidy D. divert
52. / Λ / A. colour B. loss C. though D. collar
53. /∪/ A. rude B. fun C. push D. rush
54. /3:/ A. heart B. clerk C. part D. earth
55. / I I A. amoeba B. woman C. rescind D. police
56. /5/ A. cheat B. match C. clash D. forge
57. 13/ A. regime B. fragile C. huge D. gender
58. / 0 I A. writhe B. smooth C. northern D. worth
59. / s / A. resound B. cease C. houses D. design
60. / z / A. worse B. goose C. bats D. whose
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers English 3 ANSWERS
1.c 2.b 3.A 4.D 5.c 6.A 7.c 8.B 9.c 10.A 11.D 12.c 13.B 14.A 15.D 16.c 17.A 18.D 19.B 20.c 21.A 22.B 23.C 24.D 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.D 29.A 30.C 31.C 32.A 33.D 34.B 35.C 36.A 37.C 38.A 39.B 40.D. 41.C 42.A 43.D 44.B 45.C 46. B 47.C 48.D 49.A 50.B 51.B 52.A 53.C 54.D 55.C 56.C 57.A 58.D 59.B 60.D
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Mathematics 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Maths 1 ANSWERS
Mathematics 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Maths 2 ANSWERS
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Chemistry 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
Chemistry 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers Physics 1
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
Physics 2
WASSCE 2001 Past Questions and Answers
