JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Geography
JAMB 2001 Past Questions and Answers
JAMB 2001 Geography Past Questions begins
1. The crop that will be most suitable for cultivation in the lower basin of River Madu is
A. coffee B. groundnut C. cotton D. rice.
2. The feature, running approximately north to north-east, on which the trigonometrical station is located is a
A. conical hill B. cliff C. ridge D. plateau.
3. The distance as the crow flies between the trigonometrical station and Josan is approximately
A. 5.5 km B. 5.0 km C. 6.5 km D. 6.0 km.
4. The most prominent economic activity in the North-Western part of the area is likely to be
A. mining B. lumbering C. mixed farming D. animal husbandry
5. The highest point in the area is
A. 300m 6. 250 m C. 320 m D. 275 m.
Use the diagram below to answer questions
6. Cocoa production represents
A. 16% B. 20% C. 62% D. 4%.
7. Tree crop production represents
A. 42% B. 45% 0. 36% D. 39%.
8. In surveying, fixed obstacles are best dealt with by
A. avoiding them B. using abney level C. removing them D. laying offsets.
9. The most suitable statistical diagram to show spatial distribution of population is the
A. divided circle B. dot map C. pie chart a line graph.
10. The main purpose of any ground survey is to
A. make an accurate map of a part of the earth’s surface B. measure and record lines and angles of places C. derive accurate baseline data for urban planning a have a detailed knowledge of the geology of a place.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Geography
11. The main advantage of plane tabling as a survey method is that it
A. is a fast method B. gives accurate results in most situations C. is an all-weather method 0. requires little or no skill to use.
12. Bees and butterflies are important to flowering plants because they
A. pollinate the plants B. satisfy human needs C. produce honey D. extract excess nectar.
13. A depositional landform occurring where streams emerge a mountain area in a desert is
A. a self dune B. a playa lake C. a rock pedestal D. an alluvial fan.
14. The prairies of North America are
A. montane grasslands B. temperate deserts C. tropical grasslands D. temperate grasslands.
15. The Stevenson’s screen is raised about one metre above the ground in order to avoid
A. rain drops entering it B. the influence of strong winds C. the effects of nearby trees D. the heat from the ground.
16. The variable which is both a control and an element of weather and climate is
A. wind B. airmass C. temperature D. rainfall.
17. The greatest threat to the world’s wildlife population is
A. the poor management of game reserves B. the development of zoological gardens C. excessive hunting D. the destruction of habitats.
18. The formation of coal is associated with
A. landslides and deposition B. earth movement and pressure C. heat and pressure D. earth tremor and heat.
19. A hazard that could be traced directly to ozone layer depletion is the
A. escalation of the melting of polar and temperate ice caps B. introduction of ultra violet rays into the troposphere C. submergence of numerous coastal settlements in the world D. extension of desert-like conditions to the savannah.
20. An example of a landform produced by glaciation is
A. a cirque B. a sand-dune C. an ox-bow lake D. an inselberg.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Geography
21. The vertical section of the soil from the surface down to the bedrock, showing different layers, is known as soil
A. colour B. profile C. texture D. horizon.
22. The time difference between a place on longitude 35°W and another on longitude 25°E is
A. 2 hours B. 3 hours C. 5 hours D. 4 hours.
23. High temperatures and heavy rainfall throughout the year describe the climate of
A. India, Uganda and Ethiopia B. Sierra Leone, Nigeria and Ghana C.Democratic Republic of Congo, Brazil and Indonesia D. Britain, North and South Korea and Namibia.
24. The Dead Sea is the most saline lake in the world because
A. it is surrounded by saline rocks B. sea water seeps into it C no river flows out of it D. it is located in the desert.
25. An igneous rock with distinct grains of mica, feldspar and quartz is
A. schist B. basalt C. rhyolite D. granite.
26. High tides are produced when the
A. moon is perpendicular to the earth’s axis B. earth completes a revolution round the sun C. earth, the moon and the sun are on a straight line D. sea level rises because of the earth’s rotation.
27. The basic raw materials for the textile industry include
A. cotton, wool, jute and rubber B. flax, wool, pulp and papyrus C. cotton, wool, pulp and papyrus D. flax, wool, silk and cotton.
28. The world’s leading producer of cocoa is
A. Ecuador B. Ghana C. Brazil D. Nigeria.
29. The main problem faced by export crop producers in developing countries is
A. pests and diseases B. widely fluctuating prices C. high cost of inputs D. lack of capital.
30. Western Europe and North Eastern U.S.A. are the most industrialized regions of the world because they
A. have abundant human and natural resources B. are densely populated C. are on either side of the Atlantic Ocean D.have high per capita income.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Geography
31. The population of a town in 1975 was 210,00G but grew to 280,000 in 1980. What was the annual. growth rat?
A. 15.0% B. 6.7% C. 333% D. 26.7%
32. Which of the following pairs of cities have both a seaport and an international airport?
A. Rio de Janeiro and Johannesburg :B. Lagos and San Francisco C. New York and Warn D. Kampala and Mombasa.
33. The sex ratio of any population may be affected by
A. mortality B. morbidity C. migration D. fertility.
34. Crude oil constitutes the bulk of the export products of
A. Nigeria, Cote D’lvoiré, Kuwait and Australia B. Australia, Java, Nigeria and Libya C. Libya, Qatar, Ghana and Saudi Arabia D. Qatar, Nigeria, o Kuwait and Saudi Arabia.
35. The. merging together of a number, of urban settlements will produce a
A. conurbation B. nucleated settlement C. linear settlement D. suburb.
36. Automobile industries that are essentially assembly plants are found in
A. West Africa B. South Africa C. Western Europe D. North East o U.S.A.
37. Nucleated groups of houses occupied largely by people engaged in primary occupation are referred to as A. metropolises B. villages C. farmsteads D. towns.
38. The group of hardwoods that are suitable for railway sleepers in Nigeria is
A. gmelina, teak and spruce B. obeche, mahogany and pine C. pine, fir and mahogany D. mahogany, obeche and iroko.
39. The relative dryness of the Horn of Africa is due to
A. the dominance of cold currents in the region B. the distance from the belt of tropical cyclones C. its closeness to the high ranges of East Africa D. the shape and direction of the shoreline.
40. The most capital-intensive sector of the Nigerian economy today is
A. transportation B. agriculture C. mining D. trading.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Geography
41 . A country well known for the production of copper In Africa is
A. Ghana B. Republic of Benin C. Zambia D. Egypt.
42. The major problems associated with rapid urban growth in tropical Africa are
A. over-population, traffic congestion and urban-rural migration B. traffic congestion, neglect of agriculture, and urban-rural migration C. rural-urban migration, unemployment and rising crime rate D. rural-rural migration, unemployment and rising crime rate,.
43. The development of a climax vegetation in the savannah belt of Nigeria is disturbed mainly by
A. lumbering B. mining C. bush burning D. animal grazing.
44. The areas in Nigeria where temperate crops may be grown include
A. Jos Plateau and Mambilla Plateau B. Mandara Mountains and Biu Plateau C. Apata Hills and Effon Ridge D. Oban Hills and Yoruba Highlands.
45. Examples of fold mountains in Africa are.
A. Dràkensberg Mountains and Mount Cameroun B. Atlas Mountains and Mount Kenya C. Cape Ranges and Atlas Mountains D. Mount Kilimanjaro and Atlas Mountains.
46. The most densely populated city which is also the capital of a country in Africa is
A. Dakar B. Cape Town C. Abuja D. Cairo.
47.A good example of cuesta landscape in Nigeria is
A. Biu Plateau B. Udi Hills C. Yoruba Hills D. North Central Highlands.
48 The greatest environmental problem around Nkalagu and Ewekoro is
A. man-made lakes B. air pollution C. land subsidence D. water pollution.
49. Nigeria recently entered into trade agreements in petroleum products and gas with
A. all West African countries B.most countries of North Africa C. some West African countries D. all African countries.
50. Lakes Kivu and Malawi are related in that they
A. attract a large number of tourists B. lie in the Northern Hemisphere C. are rift valley lakes D. are crater lakes.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Geography ANSWERS
1.D 2.0 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.D 9.B 10.A 11.A 12.A 13. 14.A 15.D 16.C 17.C 18.C 19. 20.A 21.B 22.D 23.B 24.A 25.D 26.D 27.D 28.B 29.D 30.A 31.C 32.B 33.B 34.D 35.A 36.A 37.B 38.D 39.A 40.C 41.C 42.C 43.D 44.A 45.B 46.D 47.D 48.B 49.C 50.C
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Economics
1. If the price elasticity of demand for a good is 0.43, an increase in the price of the goodwill result in
A. an increase in profit by43% B. a net gain C. a decrease in profit by 43% D. a net loss.
2. in a free market economy, the price system allocates resources
A. under government’s directives B. to ensure genera welfare C. to their best alternative uses D. to reduce poverty.
3. At consumer equilibrium, the slope of the indifference curve is
A. half the slope of the budget constraint line B. equal to the slope of the budget constraint line C. grater than the slope of he budget constraint line D. less than the slope of the budget constraint tine.
4. For a supply Curve, an increase in the price of a commodity will result in
A. a decrease in supply B. a decrease in the quantity supplied C. an increase in supply D. an increase in the quantity supplied.
5. A normal good with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand
A. between zero and one B. equal to unity C. less than unity D. greater than unity.
6. Economics is regarded as a social science because it
A. adopts the scientific method in production B. is an agent of socialization C. adopts the scientific method In the study of human behaviour D. deals with social problems.
7. The diagram shows the total utility curve. At the point M, marginal utility
A. increases B. is unity C. diminishes D. is zero.
8. A change in supply is best described as a
A. movement along the supply curve B. shift of the supply curve to the left or to the right C. shift of the supply curve to the left. D. shift of the supply curve to the right.
9. When a generalization is made based on observed facts, it is known as
A. deductive reasoning B. inductive reasoning C. theoretical reasoning D. normative reasoning.
10. A major problem facing all economies is how to
A. increase consumption of imported goods B. improve trade among nations C. transform from a developing to a developed economy D. allocate scarce resources.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Economics
11. A vertical supply curve indicates that
A. the quantity supplied is responsive to price B. the same fixed quantity will be supplied no matter the price C, an increase in price will result in an increase in the quantity supplied D. there is a fixed price for the commodity below which no supply will be made.
12. In a demand curve, the relationship between price and quantity is
A. indeterminate, B. direct C. nil D. inverse.
13. If the arithmetic mean of 1, 2, 5, 6. x, 16 and 18 is 8.0, find the value of x.
A. 7.0 B. 6.0 C. 8.5 D. 8.0
14. The fixing of the price of an item above or below the equilibrium price is most likely to take place in a
A. centrally planned economy B. free market economy C. developed economy D. mixed economy.
15. A consumer’s’ scale of preference is an arrangement of his
A. scarce resources in order of importance B. needs in order of importance C. source of income and their importance D. requirements and how to satisfy them.
16. A firm’s shut-down point is reached when the average revenue fails to cover the
A. average variable cost B. marginal cost C. average total cost D. average fixed cost.
17. Internal economies of scale are expected to bring about
A. an increase in short-run average cost B. an increase in long-run average cost C. a decrease in long -run average cost D. a decrease in short-run average cost.
18. In the long run, a monopolist maximizes his profit when the marginal cost equals
A. total revenue B. marginal revenue C. average cost D. price.
19. The long run is a period during which a firm
A. sells inputs to purchase fixed assets B. varies all its inputs C. sources all its inputs from within D. replaces all its inputs.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Economics
21. An important feature of perfect competition is that
A. the movement of goods and services is restricted B; there is adequate knowledge of existing prices C. prices are centrally administered D. individual economic units can influence prices.
22. If government fixes price below the equilibrium price, what effect will it have on demand?
A. Quantity demanded and supplied will be equal. B. Quantity supplied will be greater than quantity demanded. C. Quantity demanded will increase. D. Quantity demanded will decrease.
22. An imperfect market exists where
A. the product is homogenous B. there is perfect information among the few buyers and sellers C. both buyers and sellers have free entry into and free exit from the market D. the location of some sellers gives them an advantage over others.
23. A production function relates
A. cost of output B. wage to profit C. cost to input D. output to input.
24. The table below shows a demand schedule for eggs. What is the equilibrium price?
| Price per dozen (N) |
Qty. demanded (in dozen) | Qty. supplied (in dozen) |
| 100 | 410 | 570 |
| 90 | 450 | 530 |
| 80 | 490 | 490 |
| 70 | 530 | 450 |
| 60 | 570 | 410 |
A. N100 B. N1 10 C. N60
25. A major advantage of specialization and division of labour is that
A. time wastage will be minimized B. trade unions will be encouraged C. there will be a ready market for labour D. workers will be adequately rewarded.
26. Which of the following is an example of a fixed cost?
A. Fuel cost. B. Electricity bill. C. Rent on building. D. Transportation cost.
27. In the agricultural sector, improved extension services facilitate
A. acquisition of techniques B. arable crop production C. mobility of labour D. livestock production.
28. A disadvantage of concentrating industries in an area is that it could
A. lead to collusion-among the firms B. result in environmental pollution C. bring about diseconomies of scale D. increase the cost of production.
29. The losses suffered by a sole proprietor are
A. usually equal to the amount invested B. usually less than the amount invested C. limited to the amount invested D. not limited to the amount invested.
30. To facilitate the exportation of crude oil from Nigeria, special
A. airstrips were constructed for jets to evacuate the oil B. roads were built to connect the major oil wells to the ports C. pipelines were laid to connect the major oil wells to the ports D. railway lines were constructed to connect the major oil wells to the ports.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Economics
31. An industry is a
A. company producing unrelated commodities B. group of firms producing related commodities C. group of firms producing distinct commodities D. firm producing differentiated commodities.
32. The raising of funds by selling stocks to the public is called
A. equity financing B. ‘stock financing C. debt financing D. loan financing.
33. A tax that increases at higher percentage as income increases is called
A. a proportional tax B. a regressive tax C. a progressive tax D. an income tax.
34. The price paid for labour services is the
A. commission rate B. wage rate C. income rate D. salary rate
35. The capital market is a market for trading of financial assets such as
A. bankers’ acceptances B. treasury bills C. long-term securities D. commercial papers.
36. In national income accounting, NNP is derived by subtraction from the GNP
A. transfer payments B. indirect taxes C. allowance for wastage D. capital consumption.
37. Economic growth can be accelerated through
A. balancing of savings and’ consumption B. postponement of current consumption C. planned current consumption D. increased current consumption.
38. An increase in the discount rate is an indication of a central bank’s intention to pursue
A. an expansionary monetary policy B. a disciplined monetary policy C. a dynamic monetary policy D. a concretionary monetary policy.
39. The efficiency of labour can be increased by
A. constant training of workers B. retirement of workers on a regular basis C. engaging expatriates only D. placing an embargo on recruitment.
40. In Nigeria, revenue sharing from the Federation Account is between the
A. executive, the judiciary and the legislature B. federal and state governments and the parastatals C. federal and state governments and the senate D. federal, state and local governments.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Economics
41. The reduction of high fertility rate is a measure in population ‘control designed to make the
A. female population higher than the male B. female and male population equal C. male population higher than the female D. growth in population more sustainable.
42. National debt is an expected outcome of a
A. deficit budget B. consolidated budget C. balanced budget D. surplus budget.
43. The distribution channel that contributes most to the cost of production is
A. producer-wholesaler-consumer B. producer-retailer-consumer C. producer-retailer-wholesaler-consumer D. producer-wholesaler-retailer-consumer.
44. Money may not be accepted as a store of value if
A. its value is unstable B. it is easily transferable C. its value is stable D. it is easily divisible.
45. In order to accelerate economic development, a country must
A. stimulate her population growth rate B. pursue a high population growth rate C. pursue a rational population policy D. pursue an incremental population policy.
46. If the labour force in a given community is 2 000 000, those in the wage employment are 200 000 and the unemployed are 80000, what is the unemployment rate in the community?
A. 04% B.40.0% C. 10.0% D. 4.0%
47. GNP is not a good measure of social welfare because there are unrecorded
A. indirect taxes B. social costs C. government subsidies D. transfer payments.
48. The loans from the World Bank to developing countries are mainly to support
A. the establishment of more universities B. capital-intensive technology C. infrastructural investments D. their low level of consumption.
49. The major reason why nations engage in international trade is that
A. it allows free movement of factors of production B. it makes possible the use of capital-intensive method of production C. nations are substantially different in their endowments of economic resources D. it affords the trading nations the opportunity to earn high profit.
50. A country with over-valued currency will
A. expect balance of payments surplus B. have increased demand for her exports C. increase her foreign reserve D. decrease her foreign reserve.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Economics ANSWERS
1.B 4 B 7. A 10. A 13. A 16. B 19. A 22. A 25. A 28. B 31. A 34. C 37. D 40. A 43. C 46. A 49. C
2.B 5.A 8. B 11. D 14. A 17. B 20. B 23. A 26. B 29. D 32. B 35. B 38. B 41. B 44. C 47. B 50. D
3.B 6.D 9. A 12. C 15. C 18. D 21. B 24. B 27. C 30. C 33. D 36. A 39. A 42. A 45. A 48. A
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Government
1. The idea of making the civil service permanent, neutral and anonymous is to
A. make civil servants a functional elite B. prevent opposition to government C. ensure loyalty and support D. enhance efficiency in administration.
2. When a bill passed by the legislature is vetoed by the executive, the action underscores the principle of
A. collective responsibility B. probity and accountability C. checks and balances D. separation of powers.
3. The fundamental rights of citizens include rights to
A. life, liberty and property B. association, property and social security C. free education, employment and freedom of thought D. life, speech and association.
4. A constitution that requires a plebiscite or a referendum to be amended is
A. written B. flexible C. rigid D. unwritten.
5. The political neutrality of civil servants implies that they
A. have no dealings with politicians B. are not allowed to be involved in partisan politics C. are not allowed to vote D. are not allowed to join any organization or group.
6. One of the advantages of a bicameral over a unicameral legislature is that
A. prevents the passage of ill-considered bills B. is cheap to maintain C. promotes social equality D. takes less time for bills to be passed.
7. Associational interest groups are organized to
A. support the government B. achieve goals affecting other associations C. specifically lobby the government D. further the interests of members.
8. The western zone of Sokoto caliphate was administered from
A. Ilorin B. Bida C. Gwandu D. Kebbi
9. The standing committee of a legislature is one
A. that has statutory responsibilities B. that has all legislators as members C. whose members stand while deliberating D. that performs ad hoc functions.
10.The central point of capitalism, as expounded by Karl Marx, is that
A. capitalists shall always increase workers’ earning capacity through wages B. capitalists’ profit is the surplus value obtained from workers’ labour C. capitalists shall always readily consent to worker’s welfare demands D. workers are inherently incapable of being owners of their labour.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Government
11.The manipulation of boundaries of constituencies in order to win more seats is called
A. delimitation B. gerrymandering C. devolution D. rigging.
12.Public opinion is a view that is
A. no longer a secret B. held by the majority C. active in the public realm D. widely publicized.
13.Power differs from influence in that it is
A. coercive while influence is harmful B. arrogant while influence is corruptible C. persuasive while influence is directive D. coercive while influence is persuasive.
14.The central decision-making organ of a confederation is made up of
A. politicians elected from the confederal constituencies B. politicians nominated by governments of member states C. representatives of pressure groups D. technocrats appointed by the units.
15.An important function of a constitution is that it
A. promotes citizen participation in government and administration B. serves as the fountain head of authority for the exercise of power C. provides a framework for the study of government D. facilitates cross-fertilization of ideas of governance.
16.In the legislative process, a bill is a
A. motion rejected after debate B. law passed by the legislature C. motion accepted for debate D. Proposal before the legislature.
17.A major feature of authoritarianism is that government is
A. decentralized B. consensual C. personalized D. centralized.
18.One argument against a multi-party system is the
A. banning of interest groups B. encouragement of opposition and instability C. high cost of conducting elections D. inability to attract foreign assistance.
19.Where the constitution is supreme, unconstitutional acts of the executive and the legislature can be checked by the courts through
A. vote of no confidence B. recall C. judicial review D. impeachment.
20.Which of the following is true of a parliamentary system of government?
A. Adherence to majority rule. B. Removal of government by impeachment. C. Strict operation of bicameral legislature. D. Clear separation of government organs.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Government
21.A major factor that influenced the formulation of Nigerian foreign policy in the First Republic was
A. the parliamentary system B. economic consideration C. geographical location D. the colonial legacy.
22.The Independent National Electoral Commission has the power to prepare and maintain the register of
A. electoral candidates B. voters C. political parties D. constituencies.
23.Which of these constitutions recognized local government as a third tier of government in Nigeria?
A. 1960 Constitution. B. 1963 Constitution. C. 1979 Constitution. D. 1946 Constitution.
24.The main source of financing local government in Nigeria is
A. special state grants B. internal revenue generation C. grants-in-aid D. statutory revenue allocation.
25.The Nigerian Youth Movement collapsed as a result of
A. the break-up of its leadership B. the harassment of its leadership by government. C. shortage of funds to run its affairs D. its failure to win election.
26.When Nigeria achieved Independence in 1960, the Head of State was the
A. Queen of England B. Governor General C. President D. Prime Minister.
27.Some pre-colonial Nigerian societies are described as stateless because
A. their population was too small B. they had no formal governmental institutions C. they were not independent D. they had no definite political boundaries.
28.The President of Nigeria is advised on the sovereignty and territorial integrity of the country by the
A. Council of State B. Federal Executive Council C. National Security Council D. National Defence Council.
29.Under the 1963 constitution, items not listed in the exclusive and concurrent lists were within the exclusive competence of the
A. federal parliament B. executive C. judiciary D. regional legislatures.
30.The Land Use Decree of 1978 vested the ownership of land in Nigeria in the
A. state governments B. federal government C. local governments D. local chiefs.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Government
31.After 1945, the demand of African nationalists changed from reform to independence because
A. colonial rule was in disarray B. the Second War enhanced colonial rule C. colonial rule became less oppressive D. the Second World War boosted their morale.
32.The Murtala/Obasanjo regime in Nigeria increased the number of states from
A. 19 to 21 B. 4 to 12 C. 30 to 36 D.12 to 19
33.Before Nigeria became a republic, the highest body charged with the administration of justice was the
A. Supreme Court B. Court of Appeal C. Privy Council D. High Court.
34.The most remarkable legacy of the 1976 Local Government Reform in Nigeria was the introduction of
A. caretaker management committees B. the office of sole administrators C. the third tier of government D. uniformity in
structure and functions.
35.The method used by the British to facilitate the administration of Southern Nigeria was
A. dialogue B. trade concession C. persuasion D. divide and rule.
36.Nigeria’s departure from pro-west policy during the Murtala Muhammed regime was as a result of
A. Nigeria’s concern for decolonization in Africa B. the economic interest of the West in Nigeria C. Nigeria’s increased international influence D. the growing trade between Nigeria and the East.
38.The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the
A. supervisory councillor B. councillor C. secretary D. executive chairman.
39.The first restructuring of the Nigerian Federation took place with the
A. military counter-coup of 1966 B. creation
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Government
40. The central legislature of Nigeria became bicameral in
A. 1959 B. 1963 C.1951 D.1945
41. Nigeria’s withdrawal from the Edinburgh Commonwealth Games in July 1986 was in protest against British
A. supply of arms to Rhodesia B. failure to impose sanctions on South Africa C. negative utterances on Nigeria
D. support for UNITA rebels in Angola.
42. The first Nigerian Permanent Representative to the United Nations was
A. General Joseph Garba B. Professor Ibrahim Gambari C. Chief Samuel Adebo D. Alhaji Yusuf Maitama Sule.
43. The Economic Community of West African States has made impressive progress in the area of
A. providing financial aid to its members B. free movement of persons and right of residence C. increased trade among
members D. political integration of the region.
44. The Barclays Bank and the British Petroleum Company in Nigeria were nationalized in the late 1970s for transacting business with
A. Libya B. France C. South Africa D. Portugal.
45. The major demand of the Third World countries on the United Nations in recent times is the
A. withdrawal of the veto power from the Security Council B. enforcement of resolutions on the superpowers C. expansion of the permanent membership of the Security Council D. post of Secretary-General of the organization.
46. Nigeria’s recognition of the Popular Movement for the Liberation of Angola to lead that country was made under
A. General Murtala Muhammed B. General Ibrahim Babangida C. General Yakubu Gowon D. General Muhammadu
Buhari.
47. During the civil war, the major power that expressed moral support for Biafra’s self-determination was
A. Great Britain B. the United States C. China D. France.
48. Which of the following is the function of the Council of Ministers of the OAU.?
A. Reviewing the functions and activities of other organs of the organization. B. Co-ordinating the general policy of the organization. C. Directing the finances of the organization. D. Preparing the agenda of the organization’s meetings.
49. In 1981, Nigeria participated in an Organization of African Unity peace-keeping force to replace Libyan forces in
A. Zaire B. Ethiopia C. Somalia D. Chad
50. South-South cooperation is a major policy plan on which Nigeria bases her relations with
A. member countries of OAU B. developed countries C. countries of the southern hemisphere D. developing countries.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Government ANSWERS
1. D 4. D 7. C 10. B 13. D 16 D 19. C 22. B 25. A 28.D 31. D 34.D 37. A 40. A 43. C 46. A 49. C
2. D 5. B 8. C 11. B 14. B 17. C 20.A 23. C 26. B 29D 32. D 35.D 38. B 41. B 44.D 47. D 50. D
3. A 6. A 9. D 12. C 15. B 18. B 21. C 24.D 27. D 30.B 33. C 36.A 39. D 42. B 45.D 48. D
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – PHYSICS
JAMB 2001 Past Questions and Answers
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Chemistry
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Biology
1. An association between the root nodule of a leguminous plant and Rhizobium sp. is known as
A. commensalism B. mycorrhiza C. parasitism D. symbiosis.
2. Amphibians are normally found
A. on dry land and in water B. in water and on moist land C. on moist land D. in water
3. Viviparity occurs in the
A. mammals B. reptiles C. ayes D. amphibians.
4. The jointed structure in insects that bears organs which are sensitive to touch, smell and vibration is the
A. maxilla B. labium C. antenna D. abdomen.
5. Which of the following groups is the most advanced?
A. Pteridophytes B. Bryophytes C. Thallophytes D. Gymnosperms.
6. Most monocots are easily recognized by their
A. short leaves with petioles B. long and sword-like leaves C. long and palm-like leaves D. short leaves with many veinlets.
7. Water fleas, wood lice and barnacles belong to the group
A. arachnida B. crustacea C. insecta D. chilopoda.
8. The mode of fedding in Amoeba and Hydra is
A. heterotrophic B. holophytic C. autotrophic D. symbiotic.
9. Which of the following organisms does not exist as a single free living cell?
A. Paramecium B. Volvox C. Amoeba D. Chlamydomonas.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Biology
Use the diagram below to answer questions 10 and 11
10. The structures labelled II and Ill respectively are
A. female organs and rhizoid B. male organs and rhizoid C. sporophyte and sori D. annulus and stalk of sporangium.
11. In ferns, the structure above is equivalent to the
A. zygote of a moss B. gametophyte generation of a moss C. sporophyte generation of a moss D. sporangium of a moss
12. The centre for learning and memory in the human brain is the
A. medulla oblongata B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. olfactory lobe.
13. Urea formation occurs in the
A. heat B. liver C. lung D. kidney.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 14 and 15
14. The structures yolk in position is labelled
A. Il B. I C. IV D. III
15. The part labelled IV is the
A. albumen B. germinal disc C. yolk D. air space.
16. The gas produced during tissue respiration can be identified by using
A. calcium hydroxide B. copper sulphate C. calcium carbonate D. sodium hydroxide.
17. A seedling grown in the dark is likely to be
A. etiolated B. dormant C. sturdy D. stunted.
18. The enzyme invertase will hydrolyze sucrose to give
A. maltose and glucose B. glycerol and fatty acid C. glucose and fructose D. mannose and galactose.
19. When yeast respires anaerobically, it converts simple sugars, carbon (IV) oxide and
A. oxygen B. acid C. alcohol D. water
20. The transportation of oxygen and carbon (IV) oxide in mammals is carried out by
A. leucocytes B. thrombocytes C. phagocytes D. erythrocytes.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Biology
21. The veins of the leaf are formed by the
A. vascular bundles B. cambium cells C. palisade tissue D. spongy mesophyll.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 22 and 23
22. The parts which function together to bring about hearing are labelled
A. IV, V and VI B. I, II, IV and VI C. 1, II III and IV D. I, II and IV.
23. The part labelled II is the
A. fenestra ovalis B. middle ear canal C. internal auditory meatus D. ear ossicles,
24. When specimen X is mixed with few drops of iodine solution, the appearance of a blue-black colour confirms that X is
A. galactose B. starch C. sucrosa D. glutose
Used the diagram below to answer questions 25 and 26
25. The structure represents a
A. caudal vertebra B. lumber vertebra C. thoracic vertebra D. cervical vertebra.
26. Blood vessels usually pass through the structure labelled
A. III B. II C. V D. IV.
27. Salts and water are absorbed in the roots and transported to the leaves by
A. diffusion through the xylem tissues B. osmosis through the phloem tissues C. diffusion through the phloem tissue D. osmosis through the xylem tissues.
28. The number of plant species obtained from a population study of a garden is as follows: Guinea grass (15),
Ipomea spp. (5), Sida spp. (7) and Imperata spp. (23). What is the percentage of occurrence of Imperata spp.?
A. 35% B. 16% C. 46% D. 23%.
29. Carbon (IV) oxide content of the atmosphere is least affected by
A. cutting down and clearing of forests B. forest fires C. burning of fossil fuels D. plant and animal respiration.
30. The factor that least affects food shortages in sub-Saharan Africa is
A. flooding B. pests C. mixed-cropping D. drought.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Biology
31. The epiphytic habitat can best be described as
A. arboreal B. estuarine C. aquatic D. terrestrial.
32. The highest percentage of energy in an ecosystem occurs at the level of the
A. secondary consumers B. decomposers C. producers D. primary consumers.
33. The greatest influence on a stable ecosystem in nature is exerted by
A. man B. pollution C. animals D. rainfall.
34. The physical space occupied by an organism together with its functional role in the community can be described as
A. environment B. biome C. niche D. habitat.
35. Afresh water pond may contain
A. tadpole, water boatman, leeches and crab B. water beetle, shrimps, water snail and water bug C. water lily, fish, water scorpion and dragonfly larva D. pond skater, water lily, shark and mosquito larva.
36. The hygrometer is used for measuring
A. relative humidity B. specific gravity C. rainfall D. salinity.
37. The distribution of plants in a rain forest is governed mainly by
A. vegetation B. soil types C. amount of sunlight D. rainfall pattern.
38. Both recessive and dominant characters are found
A. on different chromosomes in the cell B. at the same locus of a homologous chromosome C. at different loci of a homologous chromosome. D. on the same chromatid in a chromosome.
39. The probability of a baby being a boy or a girl depends on the contribution of the
A. father’s sex cell B. father’s somatic chromosome C. mother’s sex cell D. mother’s X-chromosome.
40.Which of the following statements is true of blood groups and blood transfusion?
A. Group 0 is the universal recipient. B. Group A can donate to group A only C. Group AB is the universal recipient. D. Group B can donate to group B only.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Biology
41: Which of the following is likely to encourage inbreeding in plants?
A. Dioecious. B. Protandrous C. Monoecious D. Hermaphrodite.
42. A tall plant crossed with a dwarf one produces offspring of which half are tall and half are dwarf. What are the
genotypes of the parents?
A. TT,TT B. Tt,tt C. TT, tt D. Tt, Tt
43. In man, the ability to roll the tongue is a variation classified as
A. anatomical B. physiological C. structural D. morphological.
44. Darwin is considered the first scientist who correctly explained the theory of
A. special creation B. spontaneous generation C. use and disuse D. organic evolution.
45. The stem of a typical aquatic plant usually has many
A. air cavies B. intercellular spaces C. water cavities D. water- conducting cells.
46. The role of the male adult honey bee is to
A. clean the hive B. ventilate the hive C. mate with the queen D. care for the young.
47. The ability of an organism to live successfully in an environment is known as
A. resistance B. competition C. succession D. adaptation.
48. The most important adaptation of xerophytes is the ability of the protoplasm to
A. resist being damaged by loss of water B. store sugar and minerals in the vacuoles C. absorb water and swell D. shrink from the cell wall.
49. A green snake in green grass is able to escape notice from predators because of its
A. disruptive colouration B. counter shading C. warning colouration D. cryptic colouration.
50. For heterotrophic organisms, competition is least caused by the inadequacy of
A. mates B. space C. light D. nutrients.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Biology ANSWERS
1. D 4. C 7. A 10. B 13. B 16. A 19. C 22. C 25. D 28. C 31. A 34. C 37. D 40. C 43. B 46. C 49. B
2. A 5. D 8. A 11. B 14. D 17. A 20. D 23. D 26. C 29. A 32. C 35. C 38. B 41. C 44. D 47. D 50. C
3. A 6. B 9. B 12. C 15. B 18. C 21. A 24. B 27. D 30. C 33. A 36. A 39. A 42. B 45. D 48. A
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – Mathematics
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – General English
COMPREHENSION:
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE I
By 1910, the motor car was plainly conquering the highway. The private car was now part of every rich man’s establishment, although its price made it as yet an impossible luxury for most of the middle class. But for the adventure, some youth, there was the motor cycle, a fearsome invention producing accidents and ear-splitting noises. Already, the dignified carriages and smart pony-traps were beginning to disappear from the roads, and coachmen and grooms, unless mechanically minded, were finding it more difficult to make a living.
The roads which had gone to sleep since the coming of the railway, now awoke to feverish activity. Cars and motor cycles dashed along them at speeds which rivaled those of the express trains, and the lorry began to appear. Therefore, the road system was compelled to adapt itself to a volume and speed of traffic for which it had never been intended. Its complete adaptation was impossible; but the road surface was easily transformed and, during the early years of the century, the dustiness and greasiness of the highways were lessened by tar-spraying. To widen and straighten the roads and get rid of blind corners and every steep gradient were tasks which had scarcely been tackled before 1914. The situation was worst of all in towns, where not only was any large scheme of road widening usually out of the question, but also where crowding and danger were all too frequently increased by the short-sighted eagerness of town authorities in laying down tramlines.
Yet it was not only the road system that was in need of readjustment; the nervous system of those who used and dwelt by the road suffered. The noises caused by the conversion of the roads into speed ways called for a corresponding tightening up of the nerves; and especially in the towns, to practice himself in estimates of the speed of approaching vehicles and to run or jump for his life if he ventured off the pavement.
Adapted from Rachel Carson: The Advent of the Motor Car
1. One of the following statements can be deduced from the passage.
A. People no longer used trains with the advent of cars and lorries. B. Significant improvement occurred in road transport since the advent of motor cars, lorries and motor cycles. C. Human society was static without the express speed of cars and motor cycles. D. Society would be better off without the chaotic volume and speed of motor cars, lorries and motor cycles.
2. From the passage, it is obvious that
A. motor cars were mere luxuries which many people tried desperately to acquire B. the motor car was invented before the express trains C. the train was the fastest means of transport before the motor car and the lorry D. the motor car and the lorry came to displace the train traffic.
3. The writer seems to suggest that
A. the roads that existed were dormant B. coachmen and grooms were not mechanically minded C. there were no roads and so people had to be mechanically minded D. the volume and speed of traffic on the roads increased with the advent of cars, motor cycles and lorries.
4. The writer uses the expression unless mechanically minded to refer to
A. coachmen and grooms adaptable to the new technology B. coachmen and grooms who chose to become mechanics C. town authorities laying down tramlines D. those amenable to change and development.
5. The statement by 1910, the motor car was plainly conquering the highway means that
A. by 1910 many people knew how to drive motor cars B. the motor car was invented in 1910 C. highway codes for Motor cars came into effect by 1910 D. by 1910 motorcars became a common sight on the highways.
PASSAGE II
The passage below has gaps numbered 6 to 15. immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.
Before any detailed analysis begins, the first thing to do with the raw data is to check through the field record books and questionnaires for any... .6… .[A. records B. events C. odds D. mistakes], inconsistencies and incompleteness. In some cases, it may be possible to correct any discovered shortcomings. When it is not possible to carry out these.. .7….. [A. plans B. possibilities C. corrections D. expectations], a visit to the field may even be necessary. It should however be realized that is not very often that a revisit is possible.
In most scientific… .8… .[A. experiments B. data C. conclusions D. questionnaires] such revisits are clearly impossible. This is true of many surveys too. A. road traffic survey.. .9... [A. conducted B. experimented C. classified D. preceded] to find out the amount and frequency of daily traffic between two towns cannot be expected to be…. 10... [A. reproducible B. undertaken C. observed D. produced]. There is no way of going back to check whether the number of vehicles reported for any particular hour is correct or not. With open-ended questions the … 11 ... [A. methods B. responses C. errors D. conclusions] have to be classified into relatively small number of groups. The process of classifying answers and of sometimes identifying them by number and letter is called… 12 ... [A. recording B. recording C. encoding D. coding]. When closed-ended questions are used, it is possible to code all the possible answers before they are actually received. This is called ... 13 .… [A. precoding B. coding C. encoding D. recoding]. What is done, a check through the answers for proper classification, numbering and lettering is still called for at this stage. This whole process of checking through questionnaires and notebooks is called.. ..14. . . .[A. precoding B. coding C. listing D. auditing]. Collected data will eventually have to be used in drawing… 15.... [A. references B. examples C. conclusions D. analogies] and writing a report about the population from which it came.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
Read passages Ill & IV carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE Ill
It is possible to have a glimpse of life after death. Man has always believed in an afterlife, but only today do we have scientific reports of people who seem to have experienced the sensation of dying but lived to tell about it. Ongoing research is documenting hundreds of cases each year of the near-death experience (NDE), and scientists think they are finding a clearly identifiable pattern: usually a man is dying and, as he reaches the. point of greatest physical distress, he hears himself pronounced dead by his doctor. He begins to hear an uncomfortable noise, a loud ringing or buzzing, and at the same time feels himself moving very rapidly through a long dark tunnel. After this he suddenly finds himself outside of his own physical body, but still in the immediate physical environment, and he sees his own body from a distance, as though he is a spectator. He watches the resuscitation attempt from this unusual vantage point and is in a state of emotional upheaval.
After a while, he collects himself and becomes more accustomed to his odd condition. He notices that he still have a ‘body’, but one of a very different nature and with very different powers from the physical body he has left behind. Soon after, things begin to happen. Others come to meet and to help him. He glimpses the sprits of relative and friends who have already died, and a loving, warm spirit of a kind he has never encountered before – a being a light – appears before him. This being asks him a question, non verbally—to make him evaluate his life — and helps him along by showing him a panoramic instantaneous playback of the major events of his life. Then he finds that he must go back to the earth, that the time for his death has not yet come. At this point he resists, for by now he is taken up with his experiences in the afterlife and does not want to return. He is overwhelmed by intense feelings of joy, love and peace. Despite his attitude, though, he somehow reunites with his physical body and lives.
Adapted from Moody, R.A. (1975) Life after Life
16. That the man was shown a panoramic instantaneous playback of the major events of his life suggests that
A. he has to assess his deeds in life B. there are video machines in the world beyond C. he needs to see the difference between his past life and his new life D. he needs to be entertained to take his mind away from the noise around him.
17. The NDE man appears to be a spectator in the flurry of activities around him because
A. he is moving rapidly through a long dark tunnel B. his new ‘body’ would not allow him to participate C. he can only watch as the events unfold D. he is now a dead man.
18. According to the passage, scientific evidence has made it possible.
A for the dead to return and tell their experiences B. to make conjectures about what happens in the world of the dead. D. for one to experience the sensation of dying and living aging.
19. A suitable title for the passage is
A. A glimpse into the World of the Dead B. The Sensation of Death and the Afterlife C. Research into the Lives of the Dead D. Visions of an Afterlife.
20. The expression as he reaches the point of greatest physical distress, as used in the passage, means when
A. the man’s system finally collapses B. his condition seems to get worse C. his doctor is ready to pronounce him dead
D. the sick man finally stops breathing.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
PASSAGES IV
The emergence of a standard dialect produces the phenomenon known as ‘accent’ which is quite different from dialect. In the process of learning a foreign language, it is normal to transfer the patterns of an indigenous language to those of the foreign language. With time, however, those of form and most of those of orthography and phonology gradually get eliminated. This is because these can easily be identified and corrected. They are easy to correct because they do not involve patterns of muscular movement. It is also necessary to correct them because otherwise they could seriously impair intelligibility.
With phonetic patterns, on the other hand, there is a great deal of intelligibility tolerance because muscular patterns are involved, thus making corrections difficult when observed. Besides, phonetic patterns do not impair intelligibility much. Hence the transference of phonetic habits from one language to another is both easier to tolerate and more difficult to avoid than transference at the lexico-grammatical level. It follows that a speaker who is learning a second dialect does so with an accent since the muscles of his speech organs would have crystallized in response to the phonetics of his native language which he learnt first. The speaker therefore speaks the second dialect with phonetic features of his native dialect. The learning of a standard language is simply the learning of a second dialect – that which has been standardized.
Members of a language community control at least two dialect and use both dialects in different situations. In the rural areas, the native dialect is used in most situations since there is less movement. Therefore, rural dwellers tend to be parochial and maintain the homogeneity of their dialect. In the urban community, on the other hand, there is more demand on the standard dialect than on the rural one. This is because people from different regions converge here. In order to ensure mutual intelligibility resulting from the pressure of communication, a great deal of demand is made on the standard dialect which now becomes the lingua franca amongst them.
21. The word those, as used in the passage, refers to
A. forms of orthography and phonology B. patterns of an indigenous language C. foreign languages D. indigenous languages.
22. Phonetic patterns allow for intelligibility tolerance because
A. they are involved and difficult to avoid B. they involve muscular patterns which later crystallize C. they give rise to the phenomenon of accent which is easy to tolerate D. transference is both difficult to avoid and easy to tolerate.
23. According to the passage,
A. a lingua franca is the consequence of a standard dialect B. a foreign language produces the transference of the correct patterns of dialect features C. mutual intelligibility is the consequence of the pressure of communication D. speech organs are shaped by indigenous languages.
24. An appropriate title for this passage is
A. The quest for a Lingua Franca B. The Emergence of a Standard Language C. The Phenomenon of Accent D. Members of a Language Community.
25. Members of a language community control at least two dialects because
A. there is little demand for the indigenous dialect B. the convergence of people from disparate regions results in the pressure of communication C. they want a lingua franca which is produced by mutual intelligibility D. they are made up of both rural and urban dwellers.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS
In each of questions 26 to 40, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics
26. I cannot understand why Ali should serve in that moribund administration
A. oppressive B. prodigal C. crumbling D. purposeless
27. The Conference Centre caters for transients only.
A. temporary guests B. professionals C. permanent guests D. novices
28. The coalescence of the groups created additional problems.
A. proscription B. fighting C. disbandment D. union
29. As the triumphant rebels were returning to their base, they met with a serious reverse.
A; a defeat B. an enemy C. an army D. a victory
30. The village girl wore sumptuous clothes
A. faded-looking B. ideas C. expensive D. loose-fitting
31. Any chief executive of an organization would find radical changes blocked at every turn.
A. development B. ideas C. innocent D. combative
32. Ugo has often been described as belligerent.
A. attractive B. patient C. innocent D. combative
33. The men were tardy in offering help
A. brave B. generous C. slow D. quick
34. Funmi is just being facetious about her marrying a soldier.
A. unserious B. crazy C. serious D. unfaithful
35. The professor discussed a number of abstruse topics
A. esoteric B. relevant C. irrelevant D. useful
36. Bose was angry because her friend called her a pilferer.
A. hypocrite B. thief C. criminal D. liar
37. While the hooligans exchanged blows, we looked on complacently.
A. dejectedly B. sorrowfully C. questioningly D. contentedly
38. Tade became timorous when she was asked to give the valedictory speech.
A. excited B. nervous C. aggressive D. happy
39. The player kept on gamely to the end of the match.
A. amateurishly B. nervous C. aggressive D. happy
40. Art lies in cherishing the initiative and creative power of each person.
A. potential B. skilfully C. gifts D. mind
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
In each of questions 41 to 45, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence. Each question carries 2 marks.
41. Oche’s chief idiosyncrasy is a passion for pounded yam.
A. Oche’s chief hates pounded yam B. Oche hates pounded yam. C. Oche has a penchant for pounded yam D. Oche’s chief likes pounded yam.
42. You must not attend the end-of-year party.
A. It is not necessary that you attend the party. B. It is necessary that you do not attend the party. C. You do not have to decide whether to attend the party or not D. You have to decide whether to attend the party or not.
43. The man reasoned that there ought to be a limit to sycophancy
A. There can be no favour beyond a reasonable point. B. Sycophants need not talk all the time. C. People should know when not to use flattery. D. Sycophants should known when to grant people’s requests.
44. Adawo is an imp.
A. Adawo behave queerly B. Adawo behaves decently. C. Adawo behaves differently D. Adawo behaves badly.
45. The solution lies in choosing between various negative alternatives.
A. The solution can be found in one of the negative options. B. The solution lies in choosing between the positive-and the negative C. The solutions are many D. The solution is a negative one.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
In each of questions 46 and 47, identify the word that has the stress on the first syllable
46. A. resist B. salon C. confirm D. intact
47. A. competent B. misread C. resign D. compel
In each of questions 48 to 51, choose the word that does not have the same vowel sound as the others.
48. A. toil B. rejoice C. enjoy D. log
49. A. key B. wind C. even D. people
50. A. granite B. die C. rice D. fight
51. A. bale B. saint C. plait D. gate
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
In each of questions 52 to 66, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
52. The lecture seemed interminable.
A. unending B. boring C. D. brief
53. Had I known about their plan much earlier, I would have nipped it in the bud.
A. stopped it B. initiated it C. squashed it D. promoted it
54. What a harmless thought he has!
A. pernicious B. pertinent C. pleasant D. perfect.
55. The town was all agog at his unexpected return.
A. on fire B. excited C. unexcited D. surprised
56. The teacher taught the rudiments of Chemistry to the first grade.
A. elements B. theories C. fundamentals D. basics
57. In his naivety, he believed all the stories his friend told him.
A. artlessness B. stupidity C. friendliness D. incredulity
58. The journalist’s write-up contained a plethora of detail.
A. shortage B. simplicity C. complexity D. spectrum
59. Amina’s performance in the examination surpassed my expectations.
A. was disappointing B. lacked merit C. was extraordinarily good D. amazed everyone
60. As these boys never act in public, the police are now worried about their covert activities.
A. ignoble B. evil C. open D. cryptic.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
61. It is inconceivable that the rat devoured the cast.
A. contestable B. incomprehensible C. credible D. unimaginable
62. In the latter part of his life, the famous soldier showed signs of youthfulness.
A. energy B. senility C. bravery D. vitality
63. There is much apathy towards reading among students nowadays.
A. enthusiasm B. indecision C. disinclination D. indifference
64. Some equatorial areas have a sultry climate.
A. a hot B. an inclement C. a temperate D. a stable
65. Ali wondered why the principal was ambivalent about the student’s future
A. anxious B. inconsiderate C. ambitious D. decisive
66. Updating the Board’s brochure is an arduous task.
A. an easy B. an annual C. a regular D. a difficult
In questions 67 and 68, identify the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
67. A. classroom B. programme C. July D. brother
68. A. temperamental B. administrative C. circulation D. consideration
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
In each of questions 69 to 72, choose from the options the words that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.
69. Church A. feature B. chauffeur C. ocean D. machine
70. sure A. cheer B. cheap C. charlatan D. church
71. Past A. wrestle B. preached C. castle D. pasture
72. Thank A. though B. thought C. Thames D. Thomas
In each of questions 73 to 75, the word in capital letters has an emphatic stress. Choose the option that best fits the expression in the sentence.
73. YOUR sister should come with us tomorrow
A. Should your brother come with us tomorrow? B. Should our brother come with us tomorrow? C. Should Ado’s sister come with us tomorrow? D. Should my sister come with us tomorrow?
74. My neighbour BRUISED his thigh while playing football.
A. Did your neighbour break his leg while playing tennis? B. Did your neighbour fracture his thigh while playing football C. Was your neighbour involved in an accident? D. Did your neighbour play football yesterday?
75. They FLEW to Abuja.
A. Did they go to Abuja by road? B. Did they fly to Jos? C. How will they get to Abuja? D. Where did they fly to?
In each of questions 76 to 100, fill each gap with the most appropriate option from the list provided.
76. I do not think any sane person would have acted in such a ………..[A. rational B. composed C. secret D. cruel] manner.
77. Neither Agbo nor his parents…..[A. attended B. attend C. has attended D. attends] the meetings now.
78. Modern dancing has become rather scientific and so requires..… [A. bizarre costuming B. some choreographic skill C. immense instrumentation D. a rapping voice]
79. Had he considered his public image carefully, he… [A. might have stood aside B. would have stepped aside C. should have stepped down D. would have stood down] for his opponent in the election.
80. The government which ….. recruiting .... [A/ are/its B. was/its C. is /their D. were/their] workers suddenly stopped doing so.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
81. Of course, we all saw the culprit.. ..[A. approached B. approaching C. approach D. approaches] and hit the man on the head.
82. A child that shows mature characteristics at an early age may be described as…..[A. preconceived B. premature C. ingenuous D. precocious].
83. The Company Director showed the contractor a……….[A. prototype B. photograph C. microfilm D. photocopy] of the proposed office complex.
84…..[A. While B. By chance C. Should D. Should in case] you come early to the new house, clean up my flat.
85. This imposing edifice… .[A. had costed B. have cost C. costed D. cost] a fortune to build.
86. They let him go in… .[A. respect B. regard C. disregard D. consideration] a fortune to build.
87. Some scientists are trying to… .[A. imitate B. replicate C. implicate D. fabricate] human beings in their laboratories.
88. He does not seem to known how to solve the problem…..[A. does not he B. does he not C. does he D. doesn’t he?]
89. These villagers… .[A. used B. are used C. were used D. use] to grow rice.
90. Ado tried to… .[A.cecall B. obstruct C. obliterate D. eulogize] all memory of his dead father.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English
91. The weather is probably. . … appealing for people who live in Jos. . . .[A. as much/as B. more/as C. no less/than D. at least as/but] for foreigners.
92. The meeting was called to… [A. reconcile B. recommend C. re-present D. reconstitute] divergent views on the subject of a national conference.
93. The police came early enough to…. [A. diffuse B. insulate C. detonate D. defuse] the bomb planted by the rioters. 94…..[A. Have being B. Having been C. Have I been D. Having being] told of his impending arrival, I worked hard to make his short stay very comfortable.
95. More.. ..[A. power B. effort C. grease D. energy] to your elbow as you campaign for press freedom!
96. When Ajike met her . . . .[A. estranged B. strange C. caring D. loving] husband at the party, she felt like reconciling with him.
97. They had to……..[A. light up B. fall back on C. switch on D. resort to] the generator when the electricity failed.
98. The editor was not happy that the Nigerian press was hemmed…..[A. up B. over C. across D. in]
99. Three quarters of the hostel.. ..been painted and three quarters of the students….. [A. has/has B. has/have C. have! has D. have/have] moved in.
100. A wide range of options… .[A. are B. were C. was D. is] made available to the political parties during the recently concluded elections.
JAMB 2001 Past Questions – English ANSWERS
1.D 6.D 11.B 16.A 21.B 26.C 31.B 36.B 41.C 46.B 51.C 56.B 61.C 66.A 71.B 76.D 81.B 86.D 91.A 96.A
2.A 7.C 12.D 17.B 22.C 27.A 32.D 37.D 42.B 47.A 52.D 57.D 62.B 67.C 72.B 77.B 82.D 87.D 92.A 97.B
3.D 8.A 13.A 18.D 23.A 28.D 33.C 38.B 43.C 48.D 53.D 58.A 63.A 68.B 73.D 78.B 83.A 88.C 93.D 98.D
4.A 9.A 14.B 19.B 24.A 29.A 34.A 39.C 44.D 49.B 54.A 59.A 64.B 69.A 74.B 79.C 84.C 89.A 94.D 99.C
5.D 10.D 15.C 20.B 25.B 30.C 35.A 40.A 45.A 50.A 55.C 60.C 65.D 70.C 75.A 80.B 85.D 90.C 95.A 100.C
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