JAMB 2000 Past Questions – Geography
JAMB 2000 Past Questions and Answers
1. The feature marked X is best described as a
A. pass B. col C. gap D. path.
2. Tap is visible from
A. Kio B. Enso C. Nina D. Ned
3. Roads and settlements are restricted in the area because of the
A. steep hill slopes B. mining activities C. presence of many rivers D. predominance of footpaths.
4. The bearing of the end of the secondary road at Ned from the road junction at Gag is approximately
A. 80° B. 170° C. 260° D. 350°
5. The approximate elevation of the spot height indicated on the eastern peak is
A. 725m B, 715m C. 710m D. 695 m.
6. The technique that would produce the most accurate contoured map of a small area is
A. prismatic compass survey B. land-use survey C. plane-table survey D. chain survey.
Use the histogram below to answer questions 7 and 8
7. The modal temperature for the town is
A. 23°C B. 25°C C. 29°C D. 30°C.
8. The annual range of temperature for the town is
A. 7°C B. 17°C C. 23°C D. 30°C.
A direct natural consequence of drought is
A. famine and starvation B. high mortality rate in livestock C. drying up of most water sources D. change in the chemical property of soils.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 10 and 11
10. The feature is a product of
A. glacial erosion B. wind abrasion C. water erosion D. wind deposition
JAMB 2000 Past Questions – Geography
11. The landform is a
A. yardang B. zeugen C. mesa and butte D. rock pedestal.
12. The most common tree in the desert is the
A. date B. acacia C. pine D. larch.
13. The most obvious physical feature that distinguishes undisturbed mature soil from an immature soil is the
A. humus content B. layered profile C. nutrient status D. topsoil texture.
14. The direction of flow of ocean currents is determined mainly by the
A. rotation of the earth and land and sea breezes B. shipo of the continents and the temperature of the continental interior C, prevailing winds and the rotation of the earth D. depth of the ocean and the amount of fresh water inflow.
15. The medium class of layered cloud which brings continuous rain, snow or sleet is the
A. altocumulus B. altostratus C.stratocumulus D. nimbostratus.
16. The biodiversity of an ecosystem may be reduced through the
A. extinction of plant species B. removal of a single animal C. introduction of a new plant D. trapping of a single fish.
17.A soft, black opaque carbonaceous rock that can be used to make pencils is
A. lignite B. graphite C. lead D. coal.
18. The vegetation that is characterized by tall trees, climbing plants and creepers in the Amazon is called
A. pampas B. veldt C. selvas D. steppes.
19. One predominantly temperate grain that is being cultivated in some tropical areas today is
A. sorghum B. barley C. maize D. wheat.
20. The scientist who propounded the theory of continental drift was
A. Alfred Wegener B. William Davis C. Arthur Holmes D. Francis Bacon.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions – Geography
21. A sedimentary rock formed only in seas and oceans in warm tropical and subtropical environments is
A. shale B. limestone C. sandstone D. mudstone.
22. Exfoliation and rock disintegration are weathering processes only found in the
A. tundra region B. savannah region C. desert region D. Mediterranean region.
23. An area of the world that is likely to have 24-hour sunshine on July 15 of any year is the
A. Horse latitudes B. Southern polar area C. Equatorial area D. Northern polar area.
24. Where winds are onshore, warm ocean currents will bring a type of rondition to the coastland that is
A. cool and dry B. warm and wet C. cold and wet D. hot and dry.
25. The speed of the wind is usually measured by
A. an anemometer B. a speedometer C. an arrow D. a wind vane,
26. Acid lava is rich in
A. magnesium B. aluminium C. silica D. silver.
27. The live commentary of a football match which started at 4.00 p.m at a place on longitude 15°E will be received by a listener in a town on longitude 160°W at
A. 6.20 a.m same day B. 4.20 am same day C. 1.40 a.m next day D. 3.40 a.m next day.
28. During winter, the Eskimos live in
A. tents B. tunnels C. caves D. igloos.
29. Johannesburg, Jos and Galhtvare are similar in that they all
A. act as nodal towns B. have population of over a million C. grew because of the presence of minerals D. act as commercial centres.
30. The shaduf method of irrigation was first practised in
A. Egypt B. Ghana C. Sudan D. Niger.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions – Geography
31. Dairy farming is most notable in
A. Egypt B. Denmark C. Japan D. China.
32. The least of the factors to be considered in the location of industries is
A. raw materials B. transport C. markets D. climate.
33. The rise in the population of an area can be measured easily by
A. multiplying the natural increase by the net migration B. subtracting the natural increase from the net migration C. adding the natural increase to the migration D. dividing the natural increase by the net migration.
34. Transportation is an important economic activity because it
A. promotes diffusion of innovation and ideas B. facilitates urban-rural migration C. promotes the health of national population D. helps to achieve economic independence.
35. Which of these sets enhances nucleation of rural settlements?
A. Several sources of water and wet points B. Narrow valleys and rugged highlands, C. Fertile broad plains and natural harbours D. Dissected plains and wet intersections.
36. The movement of a group of people from a village to an irrigation project area may be described as
A. urban-urban migration B. rural-urban migration C. urban-rural migration D. rural-rural migration.
37. The most important factors influencing the distribution of population in the world are
A. climate, relief, soils and mineral resources B. climate, industrial activities, soils and tourism C. climate, soils, agriculture and cultural activities D. relief, industrial activities, agriculture and mineral resources.
38. The most dreaded pest in the Cotton Belt of the U.S.A is the
A. weaver bird B. beetle C. boll-weevil D. white ant.
39. The Benguela current is to Namibia what the Canaries current is to
A. Kenya B. Angola C. Mozambique D. Mauritania.
40. The two prominent highlands at the Nigeria-Cameroun border are
A. Mambila and Oban B. Mandara and Alantika C. Udi and Shebshi D. Jos Plateau and Kukuruku.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions – Geography
41. An important mineral deposit in South Africa which has attracted a large number of white settlers is
A. iron in Durban B. copper in Cape Town C. gold in Witwatersrand D. aluminium in Johannesburg.
42. The prosperity of Kenya depends upon the cultivation of
A. coffee, sisal and rice B. coffee, cocoa and rice C. coffee, rubber and maize D. coffee, maize and sisal.
43. One major feature of manufacturing in West Africa is that the industries
A. are evenly spread over major towns B. produce mainly for domestic market C. are capital intensive D. have wide markets for their products.
44. The most important 3ir masses which affect the climate of Nigeria are the
A. tropical maritime and tropical sea and land breezes B. tropical maritime and the equatorial westerlies C. tropical maritime and the tropical continental D. tropical maritime and the polar continental.
45. The low rainfall along Cape Three Points in Ghana is due to the
A. upwelling of cold water B. sparse vegetation C. prevalence of south west winds D. upwelling of warm water.
46. In Nigeria, continentality poses the greatest hindrance to economic development in the
A. Niger Delta B. Niger Benue Trough C. Cross River Basin D. Chad Basin.
47. In Nigeria, the dominant trees of the Guinea Savannah include
A. isoberlinia, obeche and locust bean B. isoberlinia, shea butter and silk cotton C. acacia, dum palm and silk cotton D. locust bean, oil bean and acacia.
48. From its source to its mouth, the River Niger passes through
A. Mali, Guinea, Niger and Nigeria B. Guinea, Mali, Togo and Nigeria C. Guinea, Mali, Niger and Nigeria D. Mali, Niger, Guinea and Nigeria
49. An environmental hazard which occurs slowly and unnoticed in the oil-producing region of the Niger Delta of Nigeria is
A. erosion B. pollution C. flood D. subsidence.
50. One basic mineral that is common to Sokoto, Ewekoro, Calabar and Nkalagu is
A. coal B. marble C. limestone D. gypsum.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions – Geography ANSWERS
1.A 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.B 10.B 11.D 12.B 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.A 21.A 22.C 23.D 24.B 25.A 26.C 27.13 28.D 29.C 30.A 31.B 32.D 33.C 34.A 35.C 36.D 37.A 38.C 39.D 40.B 41.C 42.D 43.B 44.C 45.C 46.D 47.B 48.C 49.B 50.C
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Economics
1. A central argument of cardinal utility is that utility is
A. psychological B. measurable C. ranked D. intangible.
2. In a capitalist economy, the economic problem of what goods to produce is decided mainly by
A. shadow prices B. profit level C. a central planner D. relative prices.
Use these diagrams to answer questions 3 and 4.
3. Commodities I and II are in
A. competitive supply B. substitute supply C. joint supply D. derived supply.
4. The supply of commodity II increasing from S1S1 to S2S2
A. moves the price below OP2 B. leads to a fall in price from OP1 to OP2 C. increases the price from OP2 to OP1 D. moves the price to OP1
Use the following information to answer question 5 and 6
When commodity X sold for N25 per unit, 50 units commodity Y were purchased. With an increase the price of commodity X to N50 per unit, the demand for commodity Y fell to 20 units.
5. Determine the cross elasticity of demand
A. 1.7 B 0.6 C. -0.6 D. -1.7
6. The two commodities can be classified as
A. complimentary B. durable and non-durable C. intermediate ar final D. substitutes.
7. I What and how much will be produced? II. How will it be produced? Ill. For whom will it be produced IV. How much will be exported and consumed?
From the above, identify the combination of basic resource allocation questions in economic analysis.
A. I, II and Ill B. I, II and IV C. I, Ill and IV D. II, Ill and IV
8. In the diagram L1 L1 and L2L2 are budget lines.L1, L2 and L3 are indifference curves. Which points are optimal?
A. U and W. B. V and W. C. U and Z D.Y and Z.
Use the histogram below to answer questions 9 and 10.
9. If the pass mark was 40, how many students passed the examination?
A. 100 B. 120 C. 160 D.200
10. How many students took the examination?
A. 280 B.240 C.200 0.80
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Economics
11. Economics can be defined as
A. reduction in spending in the face of competing alternatives. B. the study economic aggregates like inflation and national income C. economic behaviour of small units like the household and the firm. D. allocation of resources to alternative uses.
12. Which of the following is an example of derived demand?
A. Tax relief B. Wage increase C. Labour D. Entertainment.
13. At the point where marginal revenue of a monopolist is equal to zero, its total revenue will be
A. falling B. maximum C. equal to zero D. rising.
Use the table below to answer questions 14 and 15.
| Variable Factor | Total Product | Marginal Product |
Average Product |
| 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 |
| 2 | 6 | 5 | 3 |
| 3 | 24 | 18 | 8 |
| 4 | 48 | X | 12 |
| 5 | Z | 25 | 14.6 |
| 6 | 93 | 20 | Y |
14. The average product Y is
A.15.5 B.14.6 C.12.0 D.8.0
15. The marginal product X is
A. 18 B. 20 C. 24 D. 25
16. In a price-taking firm, the portion UT above is the firm’s
A. average revenue curve B. tong-run average cost curve C. demand curve D. supply curve.
17. The short-run equilibrium Ina perfectly competitive market requires that
A. marginal cost and marginal revenue be equal B. marginal cost be equal to total revenue C. costs are mutually determined by buyers and sellers D. the marginal cost curve cuts the total cost curve
18. The condition for equilibrium price and quantity under perfect competition is
A. MC = AR= TR B. NIC=AR= C. TC=AR=P D. MC=AR=TC
19. The firm whose sales and total revenue of the commodity as given in the table is
| Quantity of | Total Revenue from sales |
| commodity sold | of commodity |
| 43
44 |
N225.00 N233.00 |
| 45 | N238.00 |
A. a monopoly B. a monopolistic, competitor C. an oligopolist D. perfect competitor.
20. If a total cost curve is plotted, marginal cost can’t illustrated by the
A. straight line from the origin to if mid-point of the curve B. U-shaped curve cutting if total cost curve at its lowest point. C. slope of if tangent to the curve at any given output D. straight line cutting the curve at its highest point.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Economics
21. In a small scale business, the fixed cost is N5 000.00 variable cost is N15 000.00 and the output is 500 unit. What will be the unit cost of the goods?
A. N20.0 B. N40.00 C. N80.00 D. N400.00
22. External diseconomies of scale result from excessive growth of
A. external factors B. some sectors of the industry C. the whole industry D. internal factors.
23. In a free market system, trading can only take place when the
A. equilibrium price is attained B. market is not working efficiently C. price of a commodity tends to attract consumers D. consumer sovereignty is lacking.
24. A well conducted census is important for
A. effective defence B. good economic planning C. effective revenue generation D. optimum population.
25. Increased output will cause farmers’ revenue to decrease when market demand is
A. elastic B. perfectly elastic C. unitary elastic D. inelastic.
26. Industries contribute to national economic development because they
A. employ an increasing number of labour B. utilize local raw materials C. provide recreational facilities D. use modem machines which replace human labour.
27. One problem in the marketing of agricultural products in Nigeria is
A. the seasonal nature of the commodities B. high price of the commodities C. inadequate storage facilities D. the changing tastes of consumers.
28. The Nigerian economy is monoculture because government revenue is derived mainly from
A. agriculture B. crude oil C. coal D. manufacturing.
29. A primary industry is concerned with
A. clearing and cultivation of land only B. the operation of small scale enterprises C. the economic activities of primary producers D. extraction of resources in their raw state.
30. The age distribution of a country’s population determines the
A. male-female ratio B. total age of all working class adults C. ratio of the dependent to the working group D. percentage of married women.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Economics
31. The slow pace of industrial growth in Nigeria can be attributed to
A. inadequate infrastructural facilities B. inadequate number of unskilled labour C. lack of raw materials D. overdependence on the oil sector.
32. A distinguishing characteristic of cooperative societies is that voting power depends on the
A. number of shares held B. equality of members C. status of the member D. managements decision.
33. As a producers’ association, the OPEC expects its members to maintain production where marginal cost is
A. greater than price B. equal to average cost C. equal to price. D. less than price.
34. The concept of privatization presupposes
A. indigenization B. market price C. efficiency D. foreign trade.
35. Two principal ways by which banks can lend money to their customers are through
A. loans and discounting bills B. loans and overdrafts C. overdrafts and cheques D. overdrafts and treasury bills.
36. Which of the following is used for measuring national income?
A. Income, output and expenditure B. Import, expenditure and output. C. Output, income and wages. D. Export, import and output.
37. A persistent rise in the general level of prices implies
A. an increase in some prices B. a one-time rise in prices C. that the higher the price level, the more the value of money D. a steady fall in the purchasing power of money.
38. Public debt is composed of
A. internal debts and World Bank loans B. internal and external debts C. money owed to local and foreign contractors D. loans granted by IMF and ADB.
39. A country exporting mainly primary products and with a high percentage of her labour force in agriculture is said to be
A. developing B. developed C. underdeveloped D. poor.
40. A capital market differs from the money market in that in the former.
A. loan sought is long term B. loan repayment is guaranteed C. loan sought is short term D. the percentage of interest charged is more.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Economics
41. In the diagram below, if W1 , W2, W3 and W4 are different wage rates, the minimum wage rate is
A. W1 B. W2 C. W3 D. W4
42. The major function of the wholesaler to his customers is
A. providing transport facilities B. offering personal services C. stocking a variety of goods D. breaking of bulk.
43. An aspect of taxation that involves normative economics is the
A. tax rate B. fairness of the tax C. effect on incentive to work D. tax burden.
44. Exclusions that make Gross National Product a poor measure of welfare are
A. government purchases B. government military out-lays C. housewives’ services D. wages and-salaries.
45. Firms continue to employ workers until the wage rate equals the
A. marginal revenue product of labour B. average product of labour C. total product of labour D. sum of marginal revenue and average rev-enue of labour.
46. An increase in money supply, other things being equal, will
A. increase money demand B. reduce income C. ensure trade balance D. lower interest rates.
46. A major effect of a long distribution chain is
A. scarcity of commodities B. high retail prices C. low retail prices D. low producer earnings.
48. If the United Kingdom buys gold for £6.0 an ounce and Nigeria buys the same ounce for N500, what will be United Kingdom’s exchange rate with Nigeria?
A. £0.12 = Ni .00 B. £0.11 = N1.00 C. £0.06 = N1.00 D. £0.05 = N1.00.
49. Being a member of the OPEC, Nigeria is in a favourable position to
A. export her crude oil B. control world crude oil prices C. borrow money from members D. reap the benefit of a cartel.
50. A country’s import price index by 1995 was 50 and her index of export price was 70. Calculate the terms of trade.
A. 20% B.71% C.120% 0.140%
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Economics ANSWERS
1.B 4 B 7. A 10. A 13. A 16. B 19. A 22. A 25. A 28. B 31. A 34. C 37. D 40. A 43. C 46. A 49. D
2.B 5.A 8. B ii. D 14. A 17. B 20. B 23. A 26. B 29. D 32. B 35. B 38. B 41. B 44. C 47. B 50. D
3.B 6.D 9. A 12. C 15. C 18. D 21. B 24. B 27. C 30. C 33. D 36. A 39. A 42. D 45. A 48. A
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Government
1. Pressure groups harmonize different individual concerns through interest
A. articulation B. mobilization C. manipulation D. aggregation.
2. A referendum is a device to ensure that
A. elections are free and fair B. legislators vote to resolve contentious issues C. decisions are effected with the consent of citizens D. bye-elections are held to fill vacant positions.
3. The main function of public opinion is to
A. change the policy of government B. support the policy of government C. indoctrinate the people D. provide direction for public policy.
4. Which of the following electoral bodies in Nigeria conducted elections from 1979 to 1983?
A. Federal Electoral Commission. B. National Electoral Commission. C. National Electoral Commission of Nigeria. D. Independent National Electoral Commission.
5. Constitutionalism refers to the
A. amendment of an existing constitution B. process of drafting a constitution C. process of operating a constitution. D. adherence to a constitution.
6. A characteristic of public opinion is that it is
A. static B. dynamic C. positive D. negative.
7. The act of removing an elected official by the electorate is referred to as
A. impeachment B. consensus C. recall D. plebiscite.
8. Under a presidential system of government, the legislature and the executive are
A. elected separately to an unfixed term B. appointed at the same time to an unfixed term. C. appointed by the judiciary to a fixed term D. elected separately to a fixed term.
9. Citizenship refers to the
A. legal status of a member of a state B. indigenous member of a state C. highest position in a state D. social status of a person in a state.
10. The civil service cadre responsible for the general supervision and control of ministries is the
A. executive B. administrative C. professional D. clerical.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Government
11. The rule of law is a cardinal principle associated with
A. communist systems B. federal systems C. feudal systems D. democratic systems.
12. A disadvantage of the one-party system is that it
A. emphasizes political differences B. makes accountability difficult C. negates freedom of association D. delays decision-making.
13. The main attributes of a state are
A. government, the police and the armed forces B. population, territory, government and sovereignty C. federal, state and local governments D. the press, the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.
14. The Supreme Court, through its interpretations of the constitution, is a
A. guardian of freedom B. participator in the politics of the state C. protector of the state D. preserver of the status quo.
15. Separation of powers is a principle which enables each arm of government to
A. probe one another B. carry out its constitutional functions C. moderate the scope of the constitution D. overlap the functions of the other.
16. Coalition government arises when
A. one of the parties has a majority in parliament B. the ruling party is defeated in parliament C. no party has a majority in parliament D. two or more parties co-operate to pass a bill in parliament.
17. One of the central tenets of the fascist doctrine is that the leader is
A. subordinate to the laws of the state B. subordinate to the norms of the society C. weak relative to the constitution D. supreme relative to the constitution.
18. A typical form of delegated legislation is
A. bye-law B. decree C. gazette D. acts of parliament.
19. One of the major sources of a constitution is
A. opinion poll B. judicial precedence C. political debate D. executive order.
20. One main weakness of a unitary system of government is that
A. it is run as a single entity B. the constitution can be amended easily C. carpet-crossing and opposition are made difficult D. it facilitates the domination of minority groups.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Government
21. How many states were created in Nigeria in 1967?
A. 4 B. 12 C.19 D.21
22. In Nigeria, the Local Government Service Commission is set up by the
A. local government chairmen B. federal government C. local government councils D. state government.
23. The day-to-day operation of public corporations is the direct responsibility of the
A. board of directors B. union workers C. management D. supervising ministry.
24. The Nigerian Public Complaints Commission as the Ombudsman suffers most from
A. manipulation by political office holders B. lack of power to enforce its decisions C. too many complaints to handle effectively D. poor knowledge of the workings of the public service.
25. In the 1930s, the political movement that challenged the NNDP domination of Lagos politics was the
A. AG B. NCNC C. NPC D. NYM.
26. Federalism was introduced in Nigeria under the
A. Lyttelton Constitution B. Macpherson Constitution C. Richards Constitution D. Independence Constitution.
27. Military intervention in Nigeria arose from
A. international pressures for change B. perceived incapacity of civilians to govern C. military corporatism and egocentrism D. civilians’ desire to give up power.
28. Residual powers in the 1979 Constitution of Nigeria were vested in the
A. local and state governments B. local governments C. state governments D. federal government.
29. Regional consciousness in Nigeria was introduced by the
A. Richards Constitution B. Lyttelton Constitution C. McPherson Constitution D. Clifford Constitution.
30. The General Purpose Committee of the local government functions as a
A. committee for awarding contracts B. body responsible for supervising self-help projects C. cabinet of the local government D. committee of the local government on public relations.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Government
31. The political party with the widest spread of membership in Nigeria during the Second Republic was the
A. GNPP B. UPN C. NPP D. NPN.
32. A characteristic of most pre-colonial governments in Nigeria is that they
A. had no clear separation of powers B. had no defined functions C. performed only executive functions D. observed independence of the judiciary.
33. Under the Independence Constitution of Nigeria. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe was
A. Head of State B. Lieutenant-Governor C. Governor-General D. Prime Minister.
34. Which of the following contributed greatly to the introduction of the Clifford Constitution?
A. Nigerian National Democratic Party. B. National Congress of British West Africa. C. Lagos Youth Movement. D. Nigerian Youth Movement
35. Nigeria observed the principle of collective responsibility between
A.1960 and 1966 B. 1979 and 1983 C. 1985 and 1993 D.1993 and 1999.
36. Which of the following world powers was the first to come to Nigeria’s aid during the civil war?
A. Germany B. USA C. USSR D. Britain.
37. Nigeria’s quest for a leadership role in Africa hinges principally on her
A. military might B. size and population C. generosity. D. economic strength.
38. In 1999 the African Economic Community Treaty was signed in
A. Lome B. Addis Ababa C. Abuja D. Tripoli
39. The foreign policy thrust of the Babangida administration was
A. military aggression B. economic diplomacy C. war against narcotics D. African interest.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Government
40. Nigeria’s relations with African countries are underscored by her policy of
A. non-alignment B. political diplomacy C. peaceful co-existence D. afro centrism.
41. The first African Secretary-General of the United Nations is
A. Boutrous Boutrous – Ghali B. Joe Garba C. Ibrahim Gambari D. Kofi Annan.
42. The Technical Aid Corps scheme in Nigeria aims at strengthening relations with
A. African countries B. countries in the Northern Hemisphere C. countries in the Southern Hemisphere D. West African countries.
43. Prior to the formation of the OAU in 1963, Nigeria identified with the
A. Brazzaville Group B. Casablanca Group C. Libreville Group D. Monrovia Group.
44. Nigerians opposed the Defence Pact with Britain at independence because it
A. was forced on Nigeria by Britain B. was of no benefit to Nigeria C. offended their pride at independence D. was very ambiguous.
45. The two leaders that played the most prominent roles in the formation of the ECOWAS were
A. Gowon and Eyadema B. Kounche and Senghor C. Kerekou and Tubman D. Acheampong and Jawara.
46. The Secretary-General of the OAU is appointed by the
A. Council upon the recommendation of the Assembly B. Assembly upon the recommendation of the Council C. Defence Commission upon the recommendation of the Secretariat D. Council upon the recommendation of the Secretariat.
47. One of the principal objectives of the OPEC is to
A. determine oil prices in the international market. B. harmonizes the oil policies of member countries. C. discipline erring oil-producing countries D. assist non-oil-producing, developing states.
48. The charter of the United Nations was drawn-up in
A. New York B. San Francisco C. Washington DC D. Los Angeles.
49. The approval of budgetary and financial matters in the United Nations is the responsibility of the
A. Security Council B. Trusteeship Council C. General Assembly D. Economic and Social Council.
50. How many countries constitute the Economic Community of West African States?
A. 11 B. 13 C. 15 D. 16
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Government ANSWERS
1. D 4. A 7. C 10. B 13. B 16 C 19. B 22. B 25. D 28.0 31. D 34.B 37. B 40.A 43. D 46. B 49. C
2. C 5. D 8. D 11. D 14.A 17. D 20.A 23. C 26.A 29A 32.A 35.A 38. C 41.A 44. B 47. B 50. D
3. D 6. B 9. A 12. B 15. B 18.A 21. B 24. B 27. B 30.B 33.C 36.C 39. B 42.A 45.A 48. B
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Physics
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Chemistry
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Biology
1. A characteristic of vertebrates that is unique to mammals is
A. the presence of pentadactyl limbs B. the possession of scrotum C. parental care D. pulmonary circulation.
2. The most recently evolved structure in animals is the
A. feather B. cilium C. scale D. hair.
3. The order in which organic evolution has progressed in plants is
A. thallophyta, schizophyta, bryophyta, pteridophyta and spermatophyta B.bryophyta, pteridophyta, spermatophyta, thallophyta and schizophyta C. pteridophyta, spermatophyta, thallophyta, schizophyta and bryophyta D. schizophyta, thallophyta, bryophyta, pteridophyta and spermatophyta.
4. Coelom is absent in the class of animals termed
A. molusca. B. coelenterata C. arthropoda D. reptilia.
5. Which of the following features are all associated with monocots?
A. Fibrous root system, branched network of veins and one seed leaf B. One seed leaf, petals in threes or groups of threes and parallel venation of leaves C. Fibrous root system, two seed leaves and floral parts in trees D. One seed leaf, net veined leaves and petals in trees multiples of tree.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 6 and 7
6. The part labeled ll is the
A. fore wing B. thorax C. silk thread D. anchor.
7. The part that will develop into an organ for feeling is labelled
A. I B. II C. Ill D. IV.
8. The set of fins that controls steering, balancing and change of direction and pitch in fish is
A. dorsal and anal B. caudal and dorsal C. pectoral and pelvic D. anal and pelvic.
9. Peripheral arrangement of vascular tissue in dicots is a characteristic of the internal structure of the
A. leaf B. petiole C. root D. stem
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Biology
Use the diagram below to answer questions 10 and 11
10.. The gas occupying the space labelled I is
A. carbon(LV) oxide B. nitrogen C. oxygen D. hydrogen.
11. The substance labelled II originates from
A. Ill and IV B. I and IV C. IV only D. Ill only.
12. The greatest amount of energy will be obtained by the oxidation of 100k of
A. meat B. biscuits C. sugar D. butter.
13. Bacteria in the large intestine of man are important in the
A. digestion of vegetables B. synthesis of Vitamins K and B2 C. synthesis of vitamins A and D D. absorption of water.
14. The production of violet colouration, when dilute NaOH solution is added to a solution of food substance, followed by of 1% CuSO4 solution while shaking indicates the presence of
A. fats B. carbohydrates C. protein D. reducing sugar.
15. The chamber of the mammalian heart with the thickest wall is the
A. right ventricle B. left ventricle C. right auricle D. left auricle.
16. Serum differs from blood plasma because it
A. contains blood cells and fibrinogen B. contains soluble food and minerals salts C. lacks blood cells and albumin D. lacks blood protein and fibrinogen.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 17 and 18
17. In mammals, reabsorption of salt takes place in
A: I B. II. C. III D. IV.
18. The parts labelled I and 11 make up the
A. glomerulus B. Bowman’s capsule C. Malphighian body D. Convoluted tubules.
19. The scapula and the ischium are part of the
A. pectoral girdle B. appendicular skeleton C. pelvic girdle D. hind limb.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Biology
Use the diagram below to answer questions 20 and 21
20. The fruit represented is mainly dispersed by
A. animals B. wind C. water D. birds.
21. The part labelled II is the
A. endocarp B. pericarp C. mesocarp D. epicarp.
22. For growth to occur in organisms, the rate of
A. anabolism must exceed that of catabolism B. catabolism must exceed that of anabolism C. food storage must be low D. food storage must be high.
23. The part of the brain that controls body posture in mammals is the
A. thalamus B. cerebrum C. spinal cord D. cerebellum.
24. The inner ear contains two main organs, namely the
A. eardrum and eustachian tube B. oval window and ossicles C. cochlea and semi-circular canals D. pinna and cochlea.
25. Short-sightedness can be corrected by lenses which are
A. convex B. concave C. piano-.convex D. biconvex
26. In which part of the human body does the secretion of the growth hormone occur?
A. gonads B. waist region C. neck region D. head region.
27. Which of the following growth activities in plants is brought about by gibberreflins?
A. rapid cell division B. trophic response C. main stem elongation D. cell elongation
28. The legs and beak of an egret resemble those of the heron because they
A. occupy similar niche B. are both birds C. both feed on fishes D. occupy the same trophic level.
29. Which of the following are adaptations of animals to aquatic habitats?
A. gills, scaly skin and lungs B. lateral line, streamlined bodies and lungs C. gills, streamlined bodies and lateral line D. gills, streamlined bodies and spiracle.
30. The factors that determine the distribution of vegetation Zones are
A. temperature, light, air and humidity B. light, humidity, air and mist C. temperature, light, rain and humidity D. humidity, snow, frost and dew.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Biology
31. In a food chain, each succeeding level in a forward direction represents
A. an increase in the number of individuals B. an increase in the biomass of individuals C. a decrease in the number of individuals D. a gain in the total energy being transferred.
32. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to soil nitrogen for plant use by
A. nitrification and combustion B. putrefaction and lightning C. combustion and putrefaction D. lightning and nitrification.
33. Which of the following is an adaptation of forest species?
A. few stomata B. thick bark C. reduced leaves D. buttress roots.
34. An ecological succession often leads to
A. an unstable community B. a decrease in species diversity C. an increase in species diversity D. the dispersal of species.
35. 1. High birth rate and high immigration rate II. Low birth rate and high Immigration rate Ill Low mortality rate and low emigration rate IV High mortality rate and high emigration rate. Which combination of the above can cause rapid overcrowding in climax biotic communities and human settlements?
A. II and III B. I and IV C. I and Ill D. I and II
36. The disaster that would have the least destructive impact on animal life and balance in nature is
A. chemical pollution B. forest fires C. grasshopper pests D. oil spillage
37 In an experiment to estimate the volume of air in a soil sample using a measuring cylinder, it was found that initial volume of water = p cm3. Volume of soil before mixing with water = q cm3. Final volume of water after adding soil = r cm3
From the data above, which of the following deductions is correct?
A. r = p+ q B. r> p+q C. r < p+q D. q = r p
Use the graph below to answer questions 38 and 39
38. The range at which soil essential elements concentration is recorded for optimal plant growth is marked
A.l B.11 C. Ill D. IV.
39. The soil becomes toxic to plants when the concentration of its essential elements is in the range labelled
A. I B. II C. Ill D. IV
40. The pollutants that contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer in the atmosphere are
A. chlorofluoro carbons B. oxides of sulphur C. oxides of carbon D. radioactive materials.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Biology
41. Blood grouping in human beings is derived from combinations of
A. two different alleles B. three different alleles C. four different alleles D. two different genes.
42. A cross between an albino female and a genetically normal male will result in offsprings that are
A. all albino B. half albino and half normal C. all genetically normal D. all phenotypically normal.
43. The surest way to combine the best qualities of both parents in the offspring is by
A. selective breeding B. inbreeding C. cross-breeding D. pure breeding.
44. Examples of water-borne and sex-linked diseases are
A. dracunculiasis and haemophilia B. cholera and gonorrhoea C. typhoid and syphilis D. taeniasis and malaria.
45. Which of the following structural features are adapted for uses other than water conservation?
A. feathers in birds B. scales in animals C. spines in plants D. succulent stems.
46. A certain savanna grasshopper changes colour from green during the rainy season to black during the dry season and black after the dry season bush fires. The reason for these colour changes is that the
A. grasshopper is getting older B. grasshopper is avoiding predation C. environmental temperature is changing D. grasshopper is frequently moulting.
47. In a group of male Agama lizards, the one with the brightest head colour is the
A. largest B. youngest C. oldest D. dominant.
48. Complex social behaviour and organization are found mostly in
A. birds B. insects C. reptiles D. mammals.
49. The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by
A. Gregor Mendel B. Jean Lamarck C. Hugo de Vries D. Charles Darwin.
50. The older fossil-bearing rocks, in contrast to the more recent ones, are more likely to contain
A. animal rather than plant remains B. flowering plants rather than mosses C. invertebrates rather than birds D. reptiles rather than fishes.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions Biology ANSWERS
1.C 4. B 7. A 10.C 13. B 16. A 19. B 22. A 25. B 28. C 31. C 34. C 37. D 40. D 43. C 46. B 49.A
2.D 5. B 8. C 11.D 14. C 17. C 20. C 23. D 26. D 29. C 32. D 35. D 38. C 41. C 44. A 47. C 50.A
3.D 6. C 9. C 12.D 15. B 18. C 21. C 24. C 27. D 30. C 33. B 36. C 39. D 42. B 45. D 48. D
Mathematics
English
COMPREHENSION:
Read the passages, I, II and Ill carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE I
You would think that the common cold should be easy enough to study, but it is not so easy as it looks. Colds often seem to spread from one person to another, so it is often assumed that the cold must be infectious, but there are some puzzling observations which do not fit in with this theory. An investigator in Holland examined some eight thousand volunteers from different areas and came to the conclusion that in each group the colds all appeared at the same time transfer of infection from case to case could not account for that. Yet at the Common Cold Research Unit in Salisbury the infection theory has been tested out; two series of about two hundred people each were in LG one with salt water and the other with secretions from known cold victims. Only one of the salt-water group got a cold, compared with seventy-three in the other group.
In the British Medical Journal the other day, there was a report of a meeting, The Common Cold – Fact and Fancy’, at which one of the speakers reported a study of colds made in Cirencester over the last five years. Three hundred and fifty volunteers had kept diary records of their colds and on an average each had seven every year, with annual morbidity of seventy days. So nearly one-fifth or our lives is spent in more or less misery, coughing and sneezing. Some widely held beliefs about the common cold have turned out not to be true. It seems that old people are just as liable to colds as the young. Sailors in isolated weather ships have just as many colds while on board, and not in contact with the outside world as when on shore. It is a truism that common illnesses pose more problems than the rare. The rare disease is by comparison much easier to handle. There are not so many cases and all of them have been intensively studied. Someone has read up all the literature about the disease and published a digest of it. There will be more facts and fewer fancies.
Miles Howard: ‘The Spectator’
1. From the information in the passage, there is evidence
A. for the theory that the common cold is indeed infectious. B. that old people are immune against the common cold. C. against the theory that the common cold is infectious. D. that medical reports are silent on facts about common colds.
2. According to the writer, some widely held beliefs about the common colds are
A. irreconcilable B. fallacious C. inevitable D. societal.
3. The Cirencester volunteers kept a record of their colds through
A. the British Medical Journal B. personal diaries C. morbidity rates. D. temperature recordings.
4. A rare disease can be more easily dealt with than the common cold because.
A. medical experts are fed up with the rampant cases of common colds. B. common colds are easily not the province of the orthodox medical experts. C. people easily develop resistance to the common colds. D. adequate research exists to uncover facts about such rare diseases.
5. Which of the following statements can be implied from the passage?
A. The origin of colds is inconclusive. B. people catch more colds in warm weather. C. People catch more colds in winter. D. People catch colds equally in warm and cold weather.
PASSAGE II
Young men have strong passions, and tend to gratify them indiscriminately. Of the bodily desires, it is the sexual by which they are most swayed and in which they show absence of self-control. They are changeable and fickle in their desires, which are violent while they last, but quickly over: their impulses are keen but not deep-rooted, and are like sick people’s attacks of hunger and thirst. They are hot-tempered and quick-tempered, and apt to give way to their anger; bad temper often gets the better of them, for owing to their love of honour they cannot bear being slighted, and are indignant if they imagine themselves unfairly treated. While they love honour, they love victory still more, for youth is eager for superiority over others, and victory is one form of this. They love both more than they love money, which indeed they love very little, not having yet learnt what it means to be without it. They look at the good side rather than the bad, not having yet witnessed many instances of wickedness. They trust others readily, because they have not yet been cheated. They are sanguine; nature warms their blood as though with excess of wine; and besides that, they have as yet met with few disappointments. Their lives are mainly spent not in memory but in expectation, for youth has a long future before it and a short past behind it: on the first day of one’s life one has nothing at all to remember, and can only look forward. They are easily cheated owing to the sanguine disposition just mentioned. Their hot tempers and hopeful dispositions make them more courageous than older men are; the hot temper prevents fear, and the hopeful disposition creates confidence; we cannot feel fear so long as we are feeling angry, and any expectation of good makes us confident.
Aristotle’s Youth and Old —Age, p. 197
6. The writer says that young people are optimistic in their dealings with people because they are
A. steadfast B. discreet C. reckless D. courageous.
7. The expression, ‘not in memory but in expectation’, as used in the passage, implies.
A. past, not present B. innocence, not experience C. future, not present D. hopelessness, not hopefulness.
8. According to the passage, young men are
A. active and restive .until they satisfy their desires. B. hot-tempered when they are hungry or thirsty C. indignant and fickle in satisfying their sexual desires D. violent when they have sexual desires.
9. The analogy between young men and sick people is that
A. they are apt to give way to anger B. they are easily controlled by hunger and thirst. C. they are easily swayed by emotions D. their emotions are active but short-lived.
10. The statement, ‘nature warms their blood as though with excess of wine’, as used in the text, means
A. respond with suspicion and alertness B. move with care and self-control C. behave shamelessly like a drunkard D. act with considerable confidence and trust.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
Time was when boys used to point toy guns and say ‘Bang!’. Now, they aim real guns and shoot one another. Nearly 4,200 teenagers were killed by firearms in 1990. Only motor vehicle accidents kill more teenagers than a firearms and the firearms figures are rising. The chance that a black male between ages of 15 and 19 will be killed by a gun has almost tripled since 1985 and almost doubled for white males, according to the National Centre for Health Statistics.
Who could disagree with Health and Human Services Secretary, Donna Shalala, when she pronounced these statistics ‘frightening and intolerable?’ In the shameful light of this ‘waste of young lives’ in Ms. Shalala’s words, an often-asked question seems urgently due to be raised again: Would less violence on television – the surrounding environment for most children and young adults – make violence in actual life less normal, less accepted, less horrifying?
It may be difficult to prove an exact correlation between the viewer of fantasized violence and the criminal who acts out violence after turning off the set. But if the premises of education is granted— that good models can influence the young —then it follows that bad model can have equivalent hurtful effect. This is the reasonable hypothesis held by 80 percent of the respondents to a recent Times Mirror poll who think that violent entertainment is ‘harmful’ to society.
Witness enough mimed shootouts, see enough ‘corpses’ fall across the screen, and the taking of a human life seems no big deal. Even if a simple casual relationship cannot be established between watching violence and acting it out, is not this numbed sensitivity reason enough for cutting back on the overkill in firm and TV?
From: The Christian Science Monitor, April 16- 22, 1993, p.20, CSPS, Boston, MA, USA.
11. From the passage, it can be inferred that since 1985
A more black males between the ages of 15 and 19 have been getting killed by guns B. more white than black males have been getting killed by-guns. C. more black males between the ages of 15 and 19 have been killing one another with gun D. more black than white males have been killing one another with guns.
12. In Secretary Donna Shalala’s view, the situation depicted by the statistics is
A. disturbing and conducive B. topical and intimidating. C. tense and reassuring D. alarming and unbearable.
13. The writer says ‘the firearms figures are rising’ because
A. more teenagers are now getting killed by firearms than by motor vehicle accidents. B. more teenagers now carry firearms than used to be the case. C. more teenagers are now getting killed by firearms than used to be the case D. firearms now have figures that are terribly high.
14. What will actually be proved ‘if the premise of education is granted’?
A. Violence on television encourages violence in real life. B. Good models can influence the young. C. Entertainment on television is harmful to society. D. The viewer of fantasized violence is the criminal who acts out violence.
15. The writer uses ‘ numbed sensitivity’ to refer to
A. heartlessness on the part of actors B. deadening of the capacity to feel C. objectionable behaviour D. unreasonable violence.
PASSAGE IV
The passage has gaps numbered 16 to 25. Immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.
With the most profound respect to the members of the Senate, I do not think that it is within the competence of that ….. 16 …….. [A. executive B. administrative C. legislative D. Judicial] body to pass a motion to. ….. 17 …… [A. order B. enforce C. modify D. nullify] the executive action of the President. The Senate is ….. 18 ….. [A. an arm B. a portion C. a wing D. an anchor] of the National Assembly. But it is not by itself alone the National Assembly. One can imagine the confusion which would be created if the ….. 19 ….. [A. Executive council B. Judiciary C. House of Representatives D. National Assembly] were to take a view diametrically opposed to that reflected in the Senate resolution. The strongest objection to the action of the Senate in passing the resolution is he fact that it constituted itself the . . . .20…. [A. litigant B. attorney C. defendant D. plaintiff] as well as the judge of the constitutionality of the action of the President. The function of the Senate is to… .21 . . .[A. compose B. enact C. create D. annul] laws. But the Senate has no authority or . . . .22 …..[ A. might B. dynamism C. strength D. power] to control the President in the exercise of his . . . .23…. [A. executive B. authoritative C. official D. judicial] powers. It cannot by a mere resolution or motion give any directive to the President regarding the exercise of his powers nor can it undo what the President has done in the exercise of those powers. The only way in which the exercise of the powers of the President can be… .24… .[A. standardized B. regulated C. modified D. ordered] isby … 25…. [A. a decree B. a motion C. an act D. a bill] of the National Assembly.
Adapted from the Guardian of July 8, 1999, p.8
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
LEXIS, STRUCTURE AND ORAL FORMS
In each of questions 26 to 47, fill each gap with the most appropriate option from the list provided.
26. The man declared his intention from the ….. [A. outset B. inset C. onset D. offset].
27. The loquacious young lad reeled off all the names of the players …… [A. off head B. at hand C. off hand D. at heart].
28. Without our relentless campaigns, we might ….. [A. never had been B. never have been C. have never be D. be never] sure of victory in the race for the National Assembly.
29. The Governor rejected the bill and withheld his ….. [A. access B. accent C. assent D. ascent].
30. The new school is not provided with ….. [A. an equipment B. enough equipment C. equipments D. enough equipments] for science practicals.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
31. We are all hungry; we ….. [A. didn’t have B. haven’t had C. never had D. hadn’t had] anything to eat since morning.
32. Audu fought with his …… [A. elder B. older C. senior D. bigger] brother.
33. llesa witnessed the largest …… [A. turn-out B. turnover C. turn-on D. turn-around] of writers at any convention in recent times.
34. Our culture does not allow one to ….. [A. cut off B. cut in C. cut of D. cut on] when an elderly person is speaking.
35. I like the character that played the role of a political ….. [A. turnedcoat B. torncoat C. thorncoat D. turncoat] at the last convention of our party.
36. The Dark Continent was an.. ..[A. abuse B. enigma C. eclectic D. epithet] for Africa.
37. There are several… .[A. lamb B. sheep C. ewe D. goat] in the farmyard.
38. The Team Manager told us that the race could only be won by the ….. [A. flat-footed B. fore-footed C. bare-footed D. swift-footed].
39. You can travel on your own ….. [A. can’t you B. isn’t it C. wouldn’t you D. shouldn’t you]?
40. He arrived …… [A. timely B. late C. in time D. with time] to see his family leave for the countryside.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
41. The politicians were ….. [A. eclipsed B. marooned C. ridiculed D. ostracized] by the press.
42. Much as I would love to visit him, I’m afraid ….. [A. I can’t B. I can’t be able C. I won’t D. of visiting him].
43. Raffle draws like gambling often end in a……[A. lost B. lose C. loss D. loose] for me.
44. To check desertification in the and zones…..[A. drought-effective B. drought-resisting C. drought-resistant D. drought proof] trees should be planted.
45. All the traders in the market saw the woman buy [A. off B. out C. over D. up] the imported suits.
46. The warring factions need words of …….[A. advise B. advises C. advice D. adverse]
47. There are many…..[A. faces B. styles C. moods D. facets] to her personality.
In each of questions 48 to 52, choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the-one represented by the letters underlined.
48. thunder A. defer B. prefer C. confer D. differ
49. pleasure A. plenary B. pleat C. jeopardy D. pliable
50. tear (noun) A. wear B. care C. dare D. here
51. air A. hear B. her C. fire D. heir
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
52. btA. glory B. bought C. board D. go
In each of questions 53 to 56, select the words that has the same pattern of stress as the given word.
53. EDUCATION A. duplicity B. conjectural C. economics D. elaborate
54. HONOURA. human B. hyena C. humane D. hotel
55. ENORMOUS A. interest B. stupidly C. character D. solution.
56. QUALITYA. accepted B. bachelor C. guarantee D. relation.
In questions 57 and 58, identify the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
57. A. legislate B. navigate C. envelop D. liberate
58. A. discourse B. intimate C. accelerate D. integral.
In questions 59 and 60, identify the word that has the stress on the second syllable
59. A. always B. result C. reproduce D. understand.
60. A. yesterday B. tomato C. photograph D. tranquil.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
In questions 61 – 62, choose from the options the word that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the letters underlined.
61. caliph A. opponent B. perhaps C. presently D. powerful
62. thought A. taught B. weather C. theatre D. fate
In each of questions 63 to 78, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics,
63. The officer said that he knew nothing to the detriment of the applicant.
A. background B. disfavour C. damage D. advantage
64. Common sense requires that one should be decorous at formal gatherings
A. courteous B. careful C. impolite D. incurious
65. The string was taut.
A. stretched B. loose C. firm D. tight.
66. The diminutive figure bounces over the tract with, unfathomable lightness.
A. irresistible B. predictable C. invigorating D. impressive
67. The teacher announced that the class would be making a fleeting visit to the zoo.
A. long B. routine C. brief D. guided
68. We intend to make the reception a diurnal event.
A. an annual B. a weekly C. a nightly D. a short.
69. The project is designed to alleviate poverty in the country.
A. exacerbate B. assuage C. eradicate D. tackle.
70. The Permanent Secretary left his job under a cloud
A. with a clear record B. on a sunny day C. in disgrace D. on a cloudy day.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
71. It is surprising that this politician has now turned renegade.
A. militant B. loyal C. quiet D. corrupt.
72. Hypertension is a debilitating disease that everyone should prevent.
A. a horrible B. an enervating C. a mortal 0. an energizing.
73. The striking workers have vowed not to return to work until the decision is rescinded.
A. implemented B. changed C. dismissed D. incorporated.
74. It is rare for a leader and his deputy to see eye to eye
A. reproach each other B. disagree C. be of one mind D. respect each other.
75. I’m not interested in buying that shirt, I think it is overpriced.
A. too expensive B. priceless C. cheap D. overrated.
76. When the driver applied the brakes, they acted up.
A. responded well B. jammed C. were sluggish D. failed
77. Civil engineering is predominantly a male profession.
A. absolutely B. seldom C. essentially D. generally.
78. Despite his laxity in other matters, Ojo’s father drew the line at truancy.
A. rejected B. emphasized C. favoured D. ignored
In each of questions 79 to 95, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
79. Mr. Okon has been described as an eagle-eyed editor.
A. a quick-sighted B. a short-sighted C. a long-sighted D. a clear-sighted
80. The man Was able to persuade his willful and obstinate daughter to follow the career he chose for her.
A. intelligent but arrogant B. hardworking and intelligent C. unyielding and obdurate D. obscure and odious
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
81. That punch by the young boxer proved to be fatal.
A. effective B. belated C. hard D. deadly
82. The Governor told the chief that he was only on a routine tour.
A. working visit and homage B. normal and regular visit C. surprise and impromptu check D. unplanned encounter.
83. The boy was told that he would need several more pints of blood if he was to survive.
A. plenty B. much C. many D. some
84. In spite of her grim situation, the young widow smiled dutifully at the visitor’s pleasantries.
A. unkind comments B. sad stories D. condolence messages D. jocular remarks.
85. The presence of the security men in the area will provide a moment of respite for the residents.
A. enduring reprieve B. temporary relief C. lasting security D. soothing relaxation.
86. Though David’s condition is serious, his life is not in immediate danger.
A. grave B. nasty C. dangerous D. hypertensive.
87. The essay topic is nebulous
A. clear B. incorrect C. vague D. distinct.
88. 1 have always believed that my mother is a very impassioned woman.
A. impartial B. emotional C. impassive D. emotive
89. My father was at the apogee of his career when he was retired.
A. terminal point B. least productive stage C. redundant stage D. highest point.
90. The party gathering was thrown into a state of euphoria after the election result was announced.
A. pleasure B. confusion C. sadness D. excitement.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English
91. The family discussed the crime committed and resolved to nail the lie to the counter
A. defer action on it B. expose it publicly C. bury it in a coffin D. seek more advice
92. The new ruler is big-hearted in his dealings with the people.
A. proud B. cruel C. generous D. soft
93. It is time for all concerned to first pick to pieces the strike action before preferring solutions.
A. embrace joyfully B. critically analyzed C. stop abruptly D. commend highly.
94. Some actions of the Nigerian youth have alienated them from those who were sympathetic to their cause.
A. endeared/kindly B. separated/opposed C. estranged/well disposed D. confronted/ill disposed
95. The Principal told the teacher t o stop browbeating the children.
A. pampering B. caning C. bullying D. deceiving.
In each of questions 96 to 100, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.
96. The politician’s inflammatory remarks were heavily criticized
A. The politician’s provocative remarks were heavily criticized. B. The politician’s tribalistic remarks were heavily criticized. C. The politician’s bombastic remarks were heavily criticized D. The politician’s rude remarks were heavily criticized.
97. The events of last Friday show that there is no love lost between the Principal and the Vice-principal.
A. They dislike each other. B. They like each other. C. They cannot part company. D. They work independently.
98. Though he is our elected representative, he often takes a rather jaundiced view of our problems.
A. He takes a rather hazy view of our problems. B. He takes a sickly view of our problems. C. He takes an unfavourable position concerning our problems. D. He takes a rather forceful view of our problems.
99. If he were here it could be more fun.
A. There was no fun because he was not present. B. He did not show up and so the occasion lacked much fun. C. He was being expected to supply more fun. D. He was expected but did not show up to liven up the occasion.
100.When I visited James I only gave him a congratulatory card on account of his promotion.
A. All l did when I visited James was give him a congratulatory card. B. The only person I visited was James and nobody else C. All I gave James when I visited him was a congratulatory card. D. It was only James that I gave a congratulatory card to.
JAMB 2000 Past Questions English ANSWERS
1.C 6.D 11.A 16.C 21.B 26.A 31.B 36.D 41.C 46.C 51.D 56.B 61.D 66.B 71.B 76.A 81.D 86.A 91.B 96.A
2.A 7.C 12.D 17.D 22.D 27.C 32.A 37.8 42.A 47.D 52.D 57.C 62.C 67.A 72.D 77.B 82.B 87.C 92.C 97.A
3.B 8.A 13.B 18.A 23.A 28.B 33.A 38.D 43.C 48.D 53.C 58.A 63.D 68.C 73.A 78.C 83.D 88.8 93.B 98.C
4.D 9.D 14.A 19.C 24.B 29.C 34.B 39.A 44.C 49.C 54.A 59.B 64.C 69.A 74.B 79.D 84.D 89.D 94.C 99.B
5.A 10.D 15.B 20.D 25.C 30.B 35.D 40.C 45.D 50.D 55.D 60.B 65.B 70.A 75.C 80.C 85.B 90.D 95.C 100.C