JAMB 1994 Past Questions – GEOGRAPHY
JAMB 1994 Past Questions and Answers
1. The length of the main road from Robo junction to Oseb junction is approximately
A. 6.5 km B. 7.5 km C. 8.5 km D. 9.5 km
2. The relative relief of the area is slightly above
A. 75m B. 105m C. 485m D. 575m
3. The major human activity in the area is probably
A.farming B. fishing C. lumbering D. ranching
4. The feature marked Y is best described as
A. valley B. spur C. gap D. pass
5. The roads in the area run mainly along
A. steep slopes B. hilltops C. gentle slopes D. watersheds
6. Which of the following scales would allow the greatest amount of detail on a map?
A. 1: 20 B. 1: 50 C. 1: 500 D. 1: 2,500.
Use the chart below to answer questions 7 and 8
7. If the total population of the city is 500,000, what is the population of ward 4?
A. 150,000 B. 125,000 C. 100,000 D. 75,000.
8. An alternative graphic method that can be used to depict the same information is the
A. dot map B. proportional circle C. divided rectangle D. choropleth.
9. A map drawn to a scale of 1: 180,000 is reduced three times. What is the scale of the new map?
A. 1: 60,000 B. 1: 90,000 C. 1: 360,000 D. 1: 540,000.
10. The captain of a ship in the mid sea observed that it was local noon as he was listening to 08.00 hrs BBC world news. On which longitude was his ship?
A. 60°E B. 60°W C. 120°E D. 120°W.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – GEOGRAPHY
11. Sedimentary rocks are easily recognized in the field because they
A. form rounded hills B. are faulted C. form vertical columns D. occur in layers.
12. At which of the following latitudes would you expect more than 24 hours of continuous sunshine or darkness at a particular time of the year?
A. 401N and S B. 50°N and S C. 601N and S D. 70°N and S.
13. Which of the following sets of rocks is organically formed?
A. Rock salt, breccia and conglomerate B. Clay, mudstone and sandstone C. Peat, chalk and limestone D. Grit, coal and shale.
14. Which of these sets of rivers enter the sea through estuaries?
A. The Thames, Zaire and Plate B. The Plate, Ganges and Columbia C. The Nile, Rhine and St. Lawrence D. The Zaire, Thames and Niger
15. Which of the following landforms originates from aeolian erosion?
A. Wadi B. Deflation hollow C. Sand dune D. Playa.
16. The circulation of ocean currents is
A. clockwise both in the northern and southern hemispheres B. anti-clockwise both in the northern and southern hemispheres C. anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere D. clockwise in the northern hemi-sphere and anti-clockwise in the southern hemi-sphere.
Use the graph below to answer questions 17 and 18
17 What climatic type is illustrated in the graph?
A. Montane B. Equatorial C. Mediterranean D. Monsoon.
18 The annual range of temperature as shown in the graph is approximately
A. 4°C B. 8°C C. 24°C D. 28°C.
19 Seasons are recognized within the tropics primarily on the basis of
A. air masses B. temperature C. rainfall D. evaporation.
20 A major feature of the tropical continental climates is the
A. relatively low annual range of temperature B. regular and reliable rainfall C. excess of evaporation over rainfall D. excess of rainfall over evaporation.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – GEOGRAPHY
21 The most dominant pair of active factors affecting plant growth is
A. soil and fauna B. climate and soil C. climate and topography D. topography and man.
22 The major constituents of a typical soil are
A. gravel, sand, silt and clay B. mineral matter, organic matter, air and water C. stone, mineral matter, pore spaces and micro-organism D. calcium, magnesium, potassium and sodium.
23 In humid areas, farmers add lime to the soil to
A. facilitate the absorption of nutrients B. encourage the development of green leaves C. act as fertilizer D. reduce acidity.
24 Which of the following trees is most suitable for pulp and paper production?
A. Obeche B. Ebony C. Spruce D. Mahogany.
25 A sharp decrease in the population of herbivores in an ecosystem is likely to lead to
A. an increase in the amount of rodent cover B. a decrease in the population of rodents C. an increase in the population of rodents D. a decrease in the population of saprophytes.
26 Urban centres are best distinguished from rural settlements by their
A. morphology and location B. population and function C. site and function D. morphology and demography.
27 The population size of any place is best determined by
A. the level of industrialization and the standard of living of the people B. natural change and migration C. census and vital registration D. its migration and employment indices.
28. A broad-based population pyramid is composed mainly of
A. old dependents B. young dependants C. active inhabitants D. more males than females.
29. In which of the following regions is the high population density due to industrial development?
A. China B. The Nile Valley C. Java D. The Rhur Valley.
30. Which of the following sets of cities has been developed specifically as the seat of government?
A. Abuja, Chicago and Brasilia B. New Delhi, Abuja and Calcutta C. Chicago, New Delhi and Abuja D. Canberra, Brasilia and Abuja.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – GEOGRAPHY
31. Dispersed rural settlements are most likely to be found in areas with
A. abundant agricultural land and good surface drainage B. limited agricultural land and poor surface drainage C. a large agricultural population and restricted accessibility D. a small agricultural population and poor surface drainage.
32. The most important factors that have promoted urbanization in Africa during the 20th century are
A. industrial development, decolonization and modern transport development B. modern transport development, commerce and industrialization C. trade, improved rural conditions and industrialization D. decolonization, poor rural conditions and commercialization.
33. Subsistence farming is characterized by
A. dominance of cash crops, low capital input and dependence on simple tools 3. dominance of food crops, small holdings and family labour C. dependence on family labour, small holdings and market orientation D. dependence on simple tools, labour intensity and high capital input.
34. The major areas of mixed farming in the world are also areas of
A. sparse population with low arable crop productions B. dense population with a high percentage of farmers C. dense population and a large number of urban centres D. sparse population and dispersed rural settlements.
35. Specialized cultivation of grapes is associated with
A. Mediterranean regions B. cool temperate climates C. montane climates D. monsoon regions.
36. Plantation agriculture may be described as a system characterized by
A. small-scale production, heavy mechanization and industrial crops B. heavy mechanization, food importation and subsistence crops C. large-scale production, monoculture and central management D. labour specialization, market dependence and poor capital base.
37. A type of industry that is carried on usually at or near the residence and based largely on native skills and simple technology is referred to as a
A. local industry B. light industry C. consumer industry D. cottage industry.
38. A major limiting factor to the development of industries in the developing countries is
A. low level of capital formation B. high population growth rate C’shortage of raw materials D. unfavourable climate.
39. In which of the following countries have many railway lines been closed down as a result of a decline in their competitiveness?
A. South Africa B. Australia C. USA D. India.
40. The list of exports from Japan to Nigeria is likely to include
A. motor vehicles, television sets and coal B. wrist watches, chemicals and crude oil C. motor vehicles, cameras and industrial machines D. television sets, iron ore and computers.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – GEOGRAPHY
41. The main hydrological centre in Nigeria is the
A. Jos Plateau B. Western Uplands C. 6;u Plateau Eastern Highlands.
42. The highest landforms in Nigeria are developed on
A. sandstones B. granites C basalts D. shale.
Use the map below to answer question’s 43 and 44
43. The area shaded and marked Q is well known for its
A. oil palm forests B. ‘crude oil C. swamp rice D. ginger plantations.
44. Which important mineral is exploited at the pie marked X?
A. Tin ore B. Iron ore C. Limestone D. Gold
45. A system of continuous cultivation based on intensive use of manure is widely practised in the
A. Kano close-settled zone B. Chad Basin C. Niger Valley D. Jos area.
46. The veldt is a temperate grassland found in
A. South Africa B. Australia C. South America D. Eurasia,
47. An African country seeking to reduce unemployment through industrialization will most likely encourage
A. capital – intensive industries B technology-intensive industries C. small-scale industries D. labour intensive industries.
48. Agricultural productivity is low in Tropical Africa because of
A. sparse population and shortage of labour B. poor soil and unfavourable climate C. low technology and, land fragmentation D. low demand and lack of credit’ facilities.
49. The greatest problem facing lumbering in Tropical Africa s that the
A. trees are often buttressed at the base B. trees do not grow in pure stands C. further expansion of sawmills is not viable
D. demand is low.
50. The !and-locked countries in West Africa are
A. Republic of Benin, Mauritania and Niger B. Togo, Ghana and Chad C. Mali, Burkina Faso and Niger D. Mali. Chad and Senegal.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – GEOGRAPHY ANSWERS
1.A 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.A 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.A 11.D 12.D 13C 14.A. 15.B 16.D 17.D 18.A 19. C 20.C 21.B 22.B 23.D. 24.C 25.A 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.D 30.D 31.A 32.C 33.B 34.C 35.A 36.C 37.D 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.A 42.B 43.A 44.B 45.A 46.A 47.D 48.C 49.B 50.C
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Economics
1. The basic economic problems. of the society include
A. what to produce, how and for whom B. how to produce and sell C. scarcity, when to produce and how D. scarcity, for whom to produce and where Z
2. Opportunity cost is an economic concept which describes the
A. monetary equivalent of the utility of a commodity B. amount of time or money invested on a commodity C. sacrifice made for the satisfaction of a want D. cost of retaining and optimum level of production of commodities.
3. If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 and the investment expenditure changes from N 100 million to N 140 million in a given economy, find the level of equilibrium in the given economy, using the formula
K= 1 ÷ 1 – MPC
(K = Multiplier; MPC = Marginal Propensity to Consume)
A. N20 million B. N40 million C. N80million D. N200 million
4. The circular flow of income defines the
A. relationship between ends and means in the economic system B. allocation of income to various members of the household C. flow of goods, services and money among the various macro- sectors of the economy D. micro-economic relationships in economic analysis.
5. The necessity of choice is due to the fact that
A. human wants are insatiable B. consumers like to maximize satisfaction C. resources are abundant D. consumers are selective
6. The diagram represents a production function. At which of the points does diminishing returns set in?
A. I B. J C. K D. L
7. In a mixed economy decisions to produce are taken by
A. men and women acting in their own best interest B. the government acting in the interest of the country C. the market women, the labour unions and the employers association D. private individuals, organizations and the government
8. Every economy requires an accurate censure because it assists in
A. solving inflation problem B. providing a sound framework for policy formulation C. stimulating economic activities in the national economy D. solving unemployment problem.
9. The population of country X in 1990 was 35 million. The births were 450,000 while it recorded 210,000 deaths. If in the same year, its immigrants were 20,000 and 10,000 of its citizens left the country, calculate the total population of the country at the end of 1990.
A. 24,250,000 B. 25,350,000 C. 34,750,000 D. 35,250,000
10. If the actual population in a country is less than the optimum population, then
A. it is desirable to have a larger population B. it is necessary to have an improved technology to sustain the population C. it is desirable to have a smaller population D. the available resources are inadequate to sustain the population
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Economics
11. Unemployment can be reduced by
A. restricting the productive base of the economy B. adopting capital-intensive techniques of production C. adopting labour-intensive techniques of production D. adopting a mixture of labour and capital-intensive techniques of production
12. If the economy of the country is operating at X, the implication is that
A. the productive capacity is being fully utilized B. the productive capacity is not being fully utilized C. too little of consumer goods is being produced D. there is a disequilibrium between the production of capital and consumer goods
13. When the Total Product (TP) is at maximum point, the Marginal Product (MP) and the Average Product (AP) respectively are
A. zero and decreasing B. decreasing and zero C. negative and decreasing D. both at their maxi-mum
14. In the long run, all production factors are
A. fixed B. semi-fixed C. variable D. semi-viable
Production possibility curve of country Y
15. A company’s expenditure on raw materials is regarded as
A. explicit cost B. implicit cost C. prime cost D. average cost
16. The basic relationship between the cost of production and the market price of any commodity in the short run is that the market price
A. always reflects the cost of labour B. reflects the variable, but not the fixed cost of production C. does not rise above variable cost D. is determined by the cost of production and the current rate of inflation
17. A firm determines its profits when it studies its
A. Marginal Cost B. Average Cost C. Total Cost D. Average Cost relative to price in the market
18. An increase in the supply of labour in a factory while other things remain equal will lead to
A. an increase in the wage rate and an increase in the number of people employed B. a decrease in the wage rate and a decrease in employment C. an increase in the wage rate and decrease in employment D. a decrease in the wage rate and an increase in employment
19. A demand which is positively related to price is true of
A. normal goods B. giffen goods C. ostentatious goods D. capital goods
Use the table below to answer questions 20 and 21
Price in(N) Q.DD Q.SS
10 50 450
20 150 350
30 250 250
40 350 150
20. What is the equilibrium quantity?
A.50 B.250 C.350 D.450
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Economics
21. Above the equilibrium point, a further rise in price tends to
A. increase demand and restrict supply B. restrict demand and restrict supply C. increase demand and decrease supply D. decrease demand and increase supply
22.
Price (N) Q-Sold
5 15
5 16
5 17
5 18
From the table, marginal revenue is
A. N 5 B. N 6 C. N 8 D. N 10
23. Elasticity of demand is an effective tool in the hand of a producer in that it enables him
A. raise his profits and lower his costs B. discourage buyers from cheating C. determine what he will produce D. set his price to maximize his profit
24. Cross elasticity of demand can be mathematically expressed as the
A. percentage change in quantity of commodity X / percentage change in quantity of commodity Y
B. percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price
C. percentage change in quantity demanded of commodity X /percentage change in price of commodity Y
D. percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in income
25. The basic idea behind brand differentiation under an imperfect market arrangement is to
A. stimulate demand for rival products B. create demand for the particular product C. enable the product to penetrate the market D. enable the product to compete with others
26. In the long run, a firm in a perfectly competitive market will make
A. normal profit B. abnormal profit C. marginal profit D. no profit
27. Output restriction, fixing of prices, creating obstacles to free entry into the market are features of
A. pure monopoly B. perfect competition C. monopolistic competition D. monopolist competition
28. A major shortcoming of the sole proprietorship form of business is lack of
A. working capital B. patronage C. continuity D. market
29. In the event of liquidation of a private limited liability company, the shareholders’ liability is limited to their total
A. income from all sources B. family assets C. collateral offered for bank loans D. investment in the company
30. The major factor that causes fluctuations in the supply of agricultural produce is
A. high price B. pests C. weather variations D. rural-urban migration.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Economics
31. The system of agricultural practice which involves hunting, gathering and growing of food crops for family consumption only is described as
A. peasant agriculture B. plantation agriculture C. co-operative farming D. subsistence farming
32. What is the term used to describe a policy aimed at promoting the local production of goods which are usually Imported?
A. Deregulation B. Import substitution C. Tariff reduction D. Backward integration
33. Labour-intensive strategy of industrialization emphasizes the use of
A. steam energy in the process of production B. manual method of production C. synthetic raw materials D. hydro-electric power
34. Petroleum is the mainstay of the Nigerian economy because it is the
A. main foreign exchange earner B. greatest employer of labour C. greatest contributor to the growth of agriculture D. source of high income for its workers
35. An indigenous company wholly owned by the federal government of Nigeria which currently engages in prospecting for oil is
A. the Nigerian National oil Company B. Peak Petroleum Industries Nigeria Limited C. Nigeria Exploration and Production Company D. the Nigerian National Petroleum Corporation
36. An increase in both the legal reserve ratio and discount rate has the effect of
A. increasing the quantity of money in circulation B. decreasing the quantity of money in circulation C. increasing the value of money D. decreasing the value’ of money
37. Inflation in the Nigerian economy may be fueled by increase in
A. the dollar price of crude oil B. the sale of company shares C. government expenditure D. sale of government bonds
38. Gresham’s law in economics shows that
A. good money drives out bad money B. bad money drives out good money C. the value of money varies inversely with the price level D. gold must be available to maintain the value of paper money
39. Monetary policy aimed at reducing demand-pull inflation in the country may be carried out through
A. increase in taxation of private companies, public corporations and private individuals B. increase in cash reserve ratio of commercial banks and the sale of government securities C. decrease in government expenditure on education D. direct price control in the market place
40. Progressive tax structure is designed to
A. take more from the income of the poor B. take more from the income of the rich C. take equal proportion of income from both the rich and the poor D. reduce the problems emanating from tax imposition
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Economics
41. Taxes and government expenditures are instruments of
A. monetary policy B. tax policy C. economic policy D. fiscal policy
42. The national income of a country indicates that the gross national income was N17,700 million and gross domestic product was N16 800 million. The difference of N900 million represents
A. debt repayments B. investments abroad C.net income from abroad D. capital consumption
43. If national income rises by 6% and population rises by 3% per capital income will
A. rise by percent B. fall by 3 percent C. fall by 6 percent D. rise by 3 percent
44. One of the ways by which the government can speed up economic development is through the
A. increase in consumption pattern of the people B. encouragement of saving, investment and equitable distribution of goods and services C. increase in the rate of population growth so as to ensure that the country has a large labour force D. encouragement of importation of raw materials to produce consumer goods
45. A sustained increase in the production of goods and services in a country is called economic
A. development B. growth C. diversification D. planning
46. One of the techniques for rectifying a deficit balance of payment is
A. import promotion B. devaluation C. physical intervention D. borrowing from abroad.
47. The main objective of the Economic Community of West African States is to
A. establish a West African Development Bank B. create a West African army C. introduce a common currency for the sub-region D. promote the free movement of persons, goods and services Within the sub-region
48. In international trade, shipping and other freight charges are treated as
A. invisible items B. unilateral transfers C. capital transactions D. autonomous capital transactions
49. A situation in which a commodity is sold abroad below its cost of production in the home country is known as
A. dumping B. counter trade C. bilateral trade D. trade liberalization
50. The borrowing rights of a member country of the International Monetary Fund are determined by
A. the seriousness of the country s economic problems B. its balance of payments position C. its quota to the Fund D. the size of gold reserve.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Economics ANSWERS
1.A 4 C 7. D 10. A 13. A 16. B 19. A 22. A 25.B 28. C 31. D 34. A 37. C 40. B 43. D 46. B 49. A
2.C 5.A 8. B 11. C 14. C 17. D 20. B 23. D 26.A 29. D 32. B 35. D 38. B 41. D 44. B 47. D 50. C
3.D 6.B 9. D 12. B 15. A 18. D 21. B 24. C 27.A 30. C 33. B 36. B 39. A 42. C 45. B 48. A
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Government
1. A society that is politically organized under a government is called a
A. sovereign state B. community C. national state D. polity.
2. Political power is naked force when it is exercised without
A. set objectives B. state apparatus C. governmental legitimacy D. sovereignty.
3. The major difference between a state and a nation is that the latter presupposes a
A. heterogeneous population B. homogenous population C. well-defined territory D. more organized system.
4. The principle of judicial independence makes sense only when judges
A. have freedom to try any case B. are themselves above the law C. have permanent tenure of office D. can join any political party of their choice.
5. A federal system of government has the following three advantages
A. economics of scale, uniform development and political unity B. economics of scale, uniform development and strong army C. strong army, greater security and economics of scale D. economic co-operation, uniform development and greater security.
6. Constitutionalism means
A. promotion of the constitution B. respect for the constitution C. electoral processes based on the constitution D. voting rules and regulations.
7. Switzerland is often cited as a classic example of a country with a
A. unitary constitution B. quasi-unitary constitution C. federal constitution D. confederal constitution.
8. What is the major distinguishing characteristic between flexible and rigid constitutions?
A. Manner of documentation B. One is unwritten C. Amendment procedure D. Degree of legality.
9. Which of the following best defines democracy?
A. Government based on virtuous principles and laws B. Government based on the spirit and letter of the constitution C. Government based on the free consent of the governed D. Government which recognizes and respects human rights as enshrined in the constitution
10. An economic system in which the major means of production are owned and controlled by a few individuals is called
A. socialism B. communism C. communalism D. capitalism.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Government
11. The essence of checks and balances is to
A. enhance the functioning of government and prevent arbitrary use of power B. ensure that people have their own rights C. make sure that power is not delegated to other bodies or individuals D. prevent political parties from putting pressure on government.
12. The power of a Head of State to dissolve the legislature and order a general election is usually associated with the
A. presidential system of government B. monarchical system of government C. parliamentary system of government D. unitary system of government.
13. Accountability in public office means that officers shall
A. keep proper account of state finances B. render good account of their activities C. not accept bribes and gratification D. declare their assets periodically.
14. The act of bringing a legislative session to an end only for business to continue later is called
A. adjournment B. prorogation C. resolution D. abrogation
15. Which of the following violates the principle of the rule of law?
A. Arbitrary increase of prices by trades B. Criticism of government actions by the press. C. Arbitrariness of government policies D. Arbitrariness of individuals in the society.
16. An electoral system which restricts voting rights to only male adults is termed
A. popular franchise B. male suffrage C. adult suffrage D. Limited franchise.
17. Which of the following best represents duties and obligations of governments?
A. Respect for national symbols. B. Provision of public utilities C. care of public property D. obedience of laws.
18. An electoral process in which candidates for elective offices are selected by party members is known as
A. primary election B. electoral college C. direct election D. preferential voting.
19. The principle whereby a legislator’s tenure is abruptly brought to an end by his constituency is known as
A. rejection B. reference C. recall D. return.
20. One of the main functions of a political party is
A. political evaluation B. interest aggregation C. political accountability D. interest determination
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Government
21 . Which of the following traditional Nigerian societies practised the systems of checks and balances?
A. Tiv B. Yoruba B. Hausa D. lgbo.
22. In terms of administrative structure, which of the following sets of pre-colonial Nigerian political system does NOT match?
A. lgbo and Tiv B. Benin and lgbo C. Sokoto and Oyo D. Benin and Sokoto.
23. Nationalist activities were earlier in British than in French West Africa because the
A. French West Africans were not interested in having self-government B. British colonialists were no longer interested in governing their acquired territories. C. French administrative policies did not allow for political agitation D. nationalists in British West Africa
were more united than their French counterparts.
24. In British West Africa, the elective principle was first introduced in
A. Nigeria B. Ghana C. Sierra Leone D. The Gambia
25. A thorny issue during the 1957/58 Nigerian constitutional conferences was the
A. leadership of the first post independence government B. problem of ethnic minorities C. control of the Mid-West by the West Region D. status of Lagos
26. In the 1963 Constitution, there was separation of powers between the
A. president and the Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces B. executive and the legislature C. Head of State and President D. Head of Government and the Head of State
27. A major feature which differentiated the 1963 and 1979 constitutions was that in the former
A. ministers were appointed from the National Assembly B. ministers were appointed from outside the National Assembly C. the
Prime Minister was elected by the whole country D. the National Assembly comprised the Senate and the House of Assembly.
28. A court order compelling the executive or its agencies to produce an unlawfully detained person is called a write of
A. mandamus B. subpoena C. habeas corpus D. injunction.
29. The primary function of the Armed Forces of Nigeria is to
A. promote and protect the security of the nation B. protect the Head of State and Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces of the nation C. protect the citizens against corrupt and oppressive politicians D. project the country’s image by participating in peace-keeping operations.
30. Which organ was enshrined in the 1979 Constitution to protect public servants from political interference and arbitrary dismissal?
A. Public Complaints Commission B. Code of Conduct Bureau C. Federal Judicial Service
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Government
Commission D. Federal Civil Service Commission.
31. The political party that replaced NNDP before independence was
A. NYM B.NCNC C.UNCP D.AG.
32. Apart from discussing the draft of the 1979 Constitution, what was the major pre-occupation of the Constituent
Assembly in 1978
A. Revenue allocation B. Sharia issue C. Formation of political party D. Election of a president.
33. The first minority state to be created in Nigerian federation was
A. Benue – Plateau B. Cross River C. Kwara D. MidWest.
34. One major constraint on the smooth operation of federalism in Nigeria is the
A. lack of an acceptable revenue allocation formula B. inability to conduct a successful census C. High cost of administration D. frequent change of government.
35. One of the basic differences between ministries and public corporations is that while ministries are
A. run on rules, public corporations are not B. wholly owned by the government, public corporations are owned by both government
and individuals C. not important in developmental process, public corporations are.
36. Privatization and commercialisation of public enterprises in Nigeria will lead to further entrenchment of
A. socialism B. capitalism C. welfarism D. fascism.
37. The 1979 Local Government Reform has
A. reduced political corruption at the local level B. resulted in accelerated development in the rural areas C. created more autonomy for local administration D. reduced the political roles of traditional rulers
38. The Babangida Administration’s Transition to Civil Rule Programme officially started in
A 1992 B. 1990 C. 1987D.1985
39. A major negative impact of military intervention in Nigerian politics is the
A. politicization of the military B. domination of the economy by foreign powers C. poor performance of the military in foreign peace-keeping operations D. neglect of the welfare of military personnel.
40. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new Federal Capital was headed by
A. Graham Douglas B. Mamman Nasir C. Rotimi Williams D. Akinola Aguda.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Government
41. The term, comprador bourgeoisie has been used by scholars to describe
A. foreign businessmen in Nigeria B. foreign diplomats working in Nigeria C. Nigerian businessmen who represent foreign interests D. Nigerian contractors to foreign government.
42 Which of the following countries is closely associated with the development of Ajaokuta Steel project?
A. U.S.A. B. Germany C. India D. Russia
43. The Foreign Affairs Minister who advocated the Concert of Medium Powers’ was
A. Prof. Ibrahim Gambari B. Major General Joe Garba C. Alhaji Rilwanu Lukman D. Prof. Bolaji Akinyemi.
44. Which of the following reasons best explains why Nigeria, during the First Republic, could not pursue an independent foreign policy?
A. The numerous differences among the ethnic groups B. Lack of political ideology C. Nigeria was a non-aligned country D. Nigeria’s economy was dependent on the Western countries.
45. The British Prime Minister who opposed the cancellation of Nigeria’s debt was
A. Margaret Thatcher B. Edward Heath C. John Major D. Harold Wilson.
46. Which of the following African countries received Nigeria’s assistance to fight her war of independence in 1975/76?
A. Namibia B. Angola C. South Africa D. Mozambique
47. Which Nigerian was the Executive Secretary of the ECA?
A. Chief Emeka Anyaoku B. Prof. Adebayo Adedeji C. Chief Matthew Mbu D.Alhaji Abubakar Alhaji
48. Nigeria was regarded as a ‘Frontline State’ because
A. assisted liberation struggle in Southern Africa B. assisted ECOMOG troops in Liberia C. sent troops for peace-keeping in Somalia D. sent policemen to Namibia
49. The major strategy used by OPEC to influence oil price is by
A. determining the quantity of oil to be produced at any given period B. influencing buyers at the international market to buy at high prices C. allowing member countries to produce at their discretion D. increasing the supply of the commodity.
50. The Gulf War of 1990 is an indication that the U.N.O. is unable to
A. ensure free world trade B. stop colonialism C. control armament D. ensure permanent world peace
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Government ANSWERS
1. C 4. A 7. D 10. D 13. B 16 D 19. C 22. B 25. B 28.B 31. B 34.A 37. D 40. D 43. D 46. B 49.A
2. D 5. A 8. C 11.A 14.A 17. B 20. B 23. C 26. D 29A 32.A 35.0 38. C 41. C 44. D 47. B 50. D
3. B 6. C 9. C 12.0 15. C 18.A 21. B 24.A 27.A 30.A 33. D 36.13 39.A 42. D 45.A 48.A
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Physics
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Chemistry
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Biology
1. The membrane surrounding the vacoule in a plant cell is called the
A. plasmalemma B. tonoplast C. nuclear membrane D. endoplasmic reticulum.
2. The smallest living organisms which share the characteristics of both living and non-living matter are
A. bacteria B. fungi C. viruses D. protozoa
3. Green plants are distinguished from other living organisms by their ability to
A. make use of water B. make use of oxygen C. respond to sunlight D. manufacture their own food.
4. The soil swallowed by the earthworm to form the worm-cast is grouped up in the
A. clitelium B. prostomium C. mouth D. gizzard.
5. Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups?
A. Bacteria -> ferns – –> algae —-> mosses -> seed plants B. Bacteria -> ferns > mosses -> algae > seed plan C. Bacteria > algae > mosses – > fern > seed plants D. Bacteria mosses > algae ferns > seed plants
6. In Amoeba, osmoregulation is carried out by the
A. pseudopodium B. food vacuole C. contractile vacuole D. nuclear
Use the diagram below to answer questions 7 and 8
7. The parts used for feeding is labelled
A. I B. J. C. K D. L
8. The mouth part of the insect is adapted for
A biting and chewing, B. sucking chewing C. biting and sucking D. piercing and sucking.
9. Which of the following combination differentiates a bony fish from a cartilaginous fish? I Presence of gills 11 Absence of gift slits Ill Possession of bony skeleton IV Possession of laterally compressed body V Possession of dorso.-ventrally compressed body
A. I, II and Ill B. Ill and IV C. II, Ill and IV D. II, III and V.
10. Which is the most important adaptation of a bony fish life in water?
A. The possession of a streamlined shape B. The presence of overlapping scales C. The covering of the body by thin film of slime D. The possession of caudal fin.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Biology
Use the diagram below to answer questions 11 and 12
11. Which of the labelled parts allows for efficient absorption of water and minerals?
A. I B II C. Ill D. IV.
12. Starch is usually stored in the part labelled
A. I B. II C. I D. IV.
13. The failure of transport and respiratory systems in plants as well as the presence of reddish colour in stems and leaves result from the deficiency of
A. magnesium B. nitrogen C. potassium D. phosphorus.
14. The dental formula 13I3Cl/1pm414m213 is that of a
A. goat B. rabbit C. man D dog.
15. The nitrifying bacteria, nitrosomonas, convert ammonia to
A. nitrites B. nitric acid C. nitrates D. nitrous oxide.
16. The activity of ptyalin is likely to decrease with an increase in the concentration of
A. oxygen B. starch C. protein D. acid.
17. The phloem parenchyma is sometimes used for
A. food storage B. supporting the stem C. production of the sieve tube D. transporting water
18. The process by which a red blood cell placed in distilled water absorbs water until it bursts and releases its
contents into the surrounding is known as
A. osmosis B. plasmolysis C. turgidity D. haemolysis.
Use the diagram below to answer questions l9 and 20
19. The most appropriate title for the set up is
A. quantitative measurement of respiration in plants and animals. B. measurement of respiratory rates in living organisms C. comparison between photosynthesis and respiration D. comparison of respiratory rates in plants and animals.
20. The part labelled J is called
A. porosimeter respiratory rates in plants and animals. B. potometer C. manometer D. auxanometer
21. A circulatory system that does not allow mixing of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood in mammalian heart is referred to as
A. open B. haemocoelic C. single D. closed
22. Which of the following waste products in plants is excreted through the stomata and lenticels?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Alkaloids C. Tanninsm D. Anthocyanins
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Biology
Use the diagram below to answer questions 23 and 24
.
23. The vertebra illustrated is
A. lumbar B. thoracic C. caudal D. cervical.
24. The neural arch is labelled
A. I B. II C. Ill D. IV.
25. In animals, meiosis comes
A. after fertilization B. after every mitotic division C. before fertilization D. before every mitotic division
26. The fleshy base of a flower to which the different floral parts are attached is known as
A. calyx B. sepals C. thalamus D. hypothalamus.
27. When a short-sighted person views a distant object without spectacles, the P image is formed
A. on the retina B. in front of the retina C. behind the retina D. on the blind spot.
28. The graph shows the relationship between the body and atmospheric temperatures for dog and lizard. What Is the most appropriate deduction that could be made from the graph?
A. Lizards are more likely to survive hazards than dogs B. Both animals maintain a constant body temperature C. The dog’s
body temperature is independent of the external temperature D. The lizard’s body temperature varies with that of the dog.
29. The part of the brain that controls heart beat and breathing is the
A. olfactory lobe B. cerebellum C. cerebral hemisphere D. medulla oblongata.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Biology
Use the list of ecological constituents below to answer questions 30 and 31
1 .Mango 2. Spear grass 3. Goat 4. Sheep 5. Temperature 6. Beans 7. Rock 8. Water
30. Items 1-4 can be regarded as
A. a population B. a community C. an ecosystem D. a niche
31. The physical factors are represented by
A. 1,5,6 B. 4. 5, 7 C. 5, 7, 8 D. 6, 7, 8.
32. Which of the following sets is made up of decomposers?
A. Rhizopus, earthworm and protozoa B. Mushroom, rhizopus and bacteria C. Bacteria, earthworm and nematodes D. Earthworm, sedges and platyhelminthes.
33. The correct order in a food chain involving the organisms (1) Grasses (2) Hawks ( 3) Snakes (4) Grasshopper
(5) Lizard is
A. 1,2, 3, 4, 5 B.5,4,3,2,1 C.1,4,5,3,2 D.3,2,4,5,1
34. The organisms with the least number of individuals in a pyramid of numbers are the
A. secondary consumers B. tertiary consumers C. primary consumers D. primary producers.
Use the list of biomes below to answer questions 35 and 36
1. Desert 2. Rain forest 3. Southern Guinea Savannah 4. Northern Guinea Savannah
35. A biome with a low annual rainfall, few scattered trees within, dense layer of grasses and found in Kano and
Katsina states is
A. 1 B. 2 C.3 D.4 E.5.
36. A biome where there are many cacti and the small mammals undergo aestivation for long periods is
A. 1 B. 2 C.3 D.4
37. Ecological succession ends with the formation of a stable
A. niche B. population C. pioneer community D. climax community.
38. In a drought situation, pants suffer from water stress which could result in
A. reduced biochemical activities B. enhanced chemical activities C enhanced microbial activities D. reduced photropical activities.
39. The water retention capacity of a soil indicates its
A. fertility B. capillarity C. aeration level D. pH level.
40. People who suck petrol with their mouths run the risk of increasing in their blood the concentration of
A. iron B. lead C. calcium D. magnesium.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Biology
41. The differences and similarities among living things account for
A. diversity B. stability C. competition D. evolution
42. People with sickle-cell anaemia have heamogobin
A. S. and are homozygous recessive B.A and are heterozygous recessive C. Sand are heterozygous recessive D. A and are homozygous recessive.
43. In the gene locus for eye colour in humans, the allele for brown eyes is dominant over the allele for blue eyes.
If a Homozygous brown-eyed girl has a brother with blue eyes, what are the likely phenotypes of their parents’
eye colour? (Eye colour is not a sex-linked trait)
A. Both parents have blue eyes B. Their father has blue eyes and their mother has brown eyes C. Both parents have brown eyes D. Their mother has blue eyes and their father has brown eyes.
44. If a woman’s genotype is Tt Qp, Rr. what would be the gene content of her eggs?
A.TQr, tqr B. TQR, tqr C. TqR tQr D.tOr,TQR.
45. The sex-linked defect in which very slight cu produces severe bleeding is known as
A. anaemia B. anorexia C. haemophilla D. haemolysis.
46. A man who has the trait for colour blindness marries a normal woman. What percentage of their children would
be sufferers, carriers and normal respectively?
A. 25%, 25% and 50% B. 25%, 50% and 25% C. 50%, 25% and 25% D. 25%, 37.5% and 37.5%.
47. Breathing root is an adaptation for survival in the
A. mangrove swamp B desert C. arboreal habitat D. savanna.
48. Red colouration on the head of a male lizard helps it to
A. mark its territory B. camouflage in the environment C. secure its mate D. defend itself
49. A phenomenon by which an animal goes into a state of dormancy during the dry season is called
A. hibernation B. aestivation C. incubation D. deactivation.
50. The anatomical evidence usually used in support of the evolutionary relationship among whales, humans, birds and dogs, is the possession of
A. thick skin B. pentadactyl limb C. tail D. epidermal structures.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – Biology ANSWERS
1. 4.D 7.A 10. B 13. C 16.D 19.D 22.A 25.D 28.C 31.C 34.B 37.D 40. B 43.C 46. 49.A
2. C 5. C 8.A 11. D 14. D 17. 20.C 23.B 26.C 29.D 32.B 35.D 38.A 41. D 44.B 47.A 50.B
3. D 6. C 9.A 12. B 15. A 18.D 21.D 24.B 27.B 30.B 33.C 36.A 39.B 42. A 45.C 48.C
Mathematics
English
COMPREHENSION:
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE I
Gossip! Yes, gossip is universal. In some languages, it may have an outright negative connotation but in English, it basically means idle talk; chat about trivial things or matter. When moderate and king, casual talk’ may serve to exchange useful information as a means of updating one’s knowledge. The whole neighbourhood may grow gossipy with who got married, pregnant, died or it may just be a humorous chitchat devoid of malicious intent.
However, idle talk more often than not, degenerates beyond the bounds of propriety and good estate. Facts get embellished, exaggerated or deliberately distorted. Humiliation is made the source of humour, privacy is violated, confident betrayed and reputations injured or ruined. Condemnation takes the place of commendation, murmuring and fault finding are extolled. The end result is like the mud thrown on a clean piece of white cloth. It does not stick but in leaves a dirty and sometimes permanent stain behind. Gossip has been blamed for sleepless night, headache and indigestion. Certainly, it must have caused you some personal anguish at one time or the other, that is someone must at some time have tried getting a knife between your shoulder blades. Negative gossip is almost universally frowned upon. Among the Indians in the United State, gossiping about someone is classified with lying an stealing. Among the Yoruba of Nigeria, the tale bearer is detested and often avoided. Indeed, throughout history, measures have been taken to curb this ‘deadly’ disease. Between the 15th and 18th centuries, the ducking stool was popularly used in England and Germany and later in the United States. The gossip was tied to a chair and repeatedly ducked in water. In modern times, the war against gossiping has also been fought. Rumour control centres has been established to respond to rumours that were potentially harmful to government activities, laws have been even been passed to curb gossip. Nicknames have been given to those who peddle the trade. Ever heard of Amebo!!
Such efforts not withstanding, gossip survives. It is alive and flourishing. Gossip is everywhere. There is neighbourhood gossip, office gossip, shop gossip, party gossip, family gossip, funnily enough, religious gossip. Gossip transcends all cultures, races and civilizations, and it has flourished and is still flourishing at every level of society. Gossip is deeply a part of human nature. Yet gossip is not inherently evil. There is a positive side to casual talk. Knowing where to draw the line between harmless and harmful gossip is the key to avoiding victimizing others and being a victim yourself.
1. Gossip appeals to people because
A. it is entertaining but could be deadly B. human beings take delight in passing and acquiring information. C. it provides avenues for idle talk D. it is not destructive in the type of information passed
2. ‘Grow gossip’ as used in the passage, means the area
A. cultivate and controls gossip B. is a rumour mill C. is ruined by gossip. D. engages in fruitful talk.
3. When gossip degenerates beyond the bounds of proper and good taste; it becomes
A. harmful. B. ruthless. C. irritating. D. astonishing.
4. In the passage, such efforts not withstanding refers to
A. attempts at curbing gossip. B. the establishment of the ducking stool. C. rumour -control centres. D. law enacted against gossip.
5. Which title best sums up this passage?
A. Gossip: A Thing of the Past B. Gossip: A Societal Evil C. Gossip and be damned D. Gossip: The Good and the Bad.
PASSAGE II
In many places in the world today, the poor are getting poorer while the rich are getting richer, and the programmes of development planning and foreign aid appear to be usable to reverse this trend. Nearly all the developing countries have a modern sector, where the patterns of living and working are not only unsatisfactory, but in many cases are even getting worse.
What is the typical condition of the poor in developing countries? Their work opportunities are so limited that they cannot work their way out of their situation. They are under-employed, or totally unemployed. When they do find occasional work, their productivity is extremely low. Some of them have land, but often too little land. Many have no land, and no prospect of every getting any There is no hope for them in the rural areas, and so they drift into the big cities. But there is no work for them in the big cities either — and of course no housing. All the same, they flock into the cities because their chances of finding some work appear to be greater there than in the villages – where such chances are nil. Rural unemployment, then, produces mass migration into the cities. Rural unemployment becomes urban unemployment. The problems can be stated quite simply: what can be done to promote economic growth in the small towns and villages which still contain about eighty to ninety percent of the population? The primary need is workplace, literally millions of workplaces. No one, of course, would suggest that output per worker is unimportant. Bu the primary aim cannot be to maximize output per worker; it must be to maximize work opportunities for the unemployed and the under-employed. The poor man’s greatest need is the chance to work. Even poorly paid and relatively unproductive work is better than no work at all. It is therefore more important that everybody should produce something, than that a few people should each produce a great deal. And in most developing countries, this can only be achieved by using an appropriate intermediate technology.
6. According to the passage, difference between the developing countries and the developed ones is that while the former have
A. a modern sector, the latter do not B. two conflicting sectors, the latter have one C. higher rural unemployed, the latter have higher urban unemployment D. appropriate intermediate technology, the latter adopt inappropriate one
7. Which of the following statements best explains the meaning of the phrase ‘reverse this trend’ as used in the test
A. return to the former state of affairs B. reappraise the programmes C. improve the situation D. make the rich become poor
8. From the way the writer describes the ‘typical condition of the poor in developing countries, one could conclude that
A rural poverty is a disease B. the poor have no hope C. rural poverty is caused by the rich D. the problems of the poor are temporary
9. When the writer says…. literally millions of workplaces, he wants the reader to
A. take the million figure literally B. appreciate the need for numerous workplaces C. realize that the million figure is a mere exaggeration D. appreciate the size of the work force
10. What is the point made by the writer about solving the problem of unemployment in developing countries?
A. use appropriate intermediate technology B. a few people should produce a great deal C. stop migration to cities D. create more workplaces.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
PASSAGE III
Politics in pre-colonial times did not involve the partisan type of electioneering campaign that we now have. The society was ruled by a king or an emir and his traditional chiefs or by the council of elders or clan heads. Where there existed the hierarchical system as in the Yoruba and Hausa kingdoms, succession to the throne was mainly patriarchal, a recorded exception was the case of Queen Amina of the Zazzau Empire who ruled in the 15 century A.D.
A host of unsung and unrecorded women regents and at times women village rulers abound, especially in the present Ondo state where some influential traditional female chiefs and regents still exist. In Ibadan, the famous Efunsetan Aniwura held political as well as economic sway and it took a lot of drive, brain work and political engineering for the then king and his council of chiefs to subdue her. The history of the various towns and villages of the period could boast of such women who were actively engaged in the running of government.
In the Igbo society, a rise to leadership position was through demonstrated ability in fostering societal survival rather than heritage. Women’s voice in the politics of each clan is given focus either through the guild of wives, the guild of daughter, or the market women’s guild. Women, through these organs, could make their feelings known on any issue affecting their community as a whole or females in particular. Thus unpopular edicts or decrees could be revoked or revived as a result of mounted pressure from any of these female associations. No decision was usually taken by the men without prior consultation with the leaders of the women’s groups.
It must however be emphasized that the degree of women participation in politics was yet much limited when compared to that of men.
11. According to the author, electioneering campaign is the approach
A. best used in politic B. used in pre-colonial politics C. for choosing kings or emirs D. currently in use.
12. From the passage, it is obvious that women participated in politics
A. on equal basis with men B. as leader of men C. to a limited extent. D. as chiefs and regents.
13. Political engineering in the passage means
A. playing of politics B. manoeuvering in politics. C. studying of politics. D. steering political events.
14. Which of the following is implied in the passage
A. women are not politicians B. women should be confined to the home C. women are capable of political leadership D. post-colonial politic should not involve women.
15. A suitable title for the passage is
A. Women in politics. B. Champions of women liberation. C. Great women of yesteryears D. Electioneering campaigns.
PASSAGE IV
Use the passage below to answer questions 16 to 26. The passage has gaps numbered 16 to 26. immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.
Two thirds of children in..…16…. [A. industrialized B. socialized C. technological D. modernized] societies no longer have family life. They are virtually abandoned to child-minders from a very tender age. The .. .17... .[A. disregard B. indifference C. alienation D. inattention] from their mothers bring suffering and makes it impossible for them to achieve a healthy social life. The. ...18… [A. development B. increase C. appreciation D. inflation] in the number of suicides, the rates of drug addiction and . …19. . ..[A. delinquency B. irresponsibility C. Satanism D. truancy] among young people may be to a large extent, due to these premature separations which take place before sufficient time has… .20.... [A. matenatized B. occurred C. surfaced D. elapsed] for attachment to develop. This is one of the causes of psychosis in children today, says a psychiatrist who believes that breast-feeding is one of the basic cares which many children of this age are… .21 .... [A. tantalized with B. denied of C. left with D. spared of]. This psychiatrist argues that breast-feeding extends into the world outside the womb, a liquid bond with the inside of the mother’s body; a bond... .22… [A. close to B. the same as C. unrelated to D. irrelevant to] that which the baby had with the placenta inside the uterus. Rhythmic rocking to and fro is ……23.... [A. an elongation B. a demonstration C. a continuation D. a striching] of the movement that the child experienced before it was born. As for the baby’s….24 .… [A. squeezing against B. separation from C. likeness for D. pressure against] its mother’s body it reminds the child of the . . . .25…..[A. reassuring B. uncomfortable C. amusing D. unpleasant] pressure of the uterus, and enables it to ....26…. [A. unearth B. rediscover C. learn D. explore] the rhythms of its mother’s breathing and heartbeat.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
In each of questions 27 to 30, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.
27. Had he come that day, the problem would still not have been solved.
A. He came that day, but the problem was not solved. B. He did not come that day, but he problem was solved C. He did not come that day, and the problem was not solved D. He did not come that day, but his presence would not have solved the problem
28. He is now the megaphone of the people’s oppressors.
A. He now speaks on behalf of the oppressors B. He now wearies the megaphone when the oppressors speak. C. He is now the oppressor with the loudest voice. D. He is the oppressor who now speaks with a megaphone.
29. Here is Mr. Pam the tailor,
A. he is the only person known as Mr. Pam, and he is a tailor. B. he is one of those known as Mr. Pam, and he is a tailor C. he is the only tailor, and he is Mr. Pam D. he is one of many tailors and he is Mr. Pam
30. One of the guarantors shall sign here
A. It is desirable that one of the guarantors signs here B. It is reasonable that one of the guarantors signs here C. It is obligatory that one of the guarantors signs here. D. It is. advisable that one of the guarantors signs here
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
In each of questions 31 to 40, choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the word(s) in italics.
31. The paper carries many humorous cartoons on Saturdays
A. amorous B. grievous C. hilarious D. grave.
32. All through his years in public office, he found his father’s advice invaluable
A. priceless B. hopeless C. worthless D. grave
33. The lecturer was merely obfuscating the issue with his endless examples
A. complicating B. clarifying C. confusing D. summarizing
34. Such measures end up exacerbating the pain
A. aggravating B. increasing C. eliminating D. alleviating
35. In a sentence, there must always be concord between a subject and its verb
A. breach B. departure C. disagreement D. dispute
36. As soon as the headmaster appeared, the chanting resumed
A. immediately B. much later C. soon after D. almost as
37. In the course of the debate, the speakers were advised to summarize their points.
A. argue B. develop C. round off D. round up
38. The elderly often fulminate against the apparent indolence of the young generation.
A protest bitterly about B. complain seriously about C. promote vigorously D. commend warmly.
39. We shall discourage further investment in existing factories
A. productive B. prosperous C. prospective D. precious
40. Nigeria is gradually experiencing economic recession
A. birth B. discovery C. recovery D. destruction
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
In each of questions 41 to 55, choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.
41. We could not put up with his terrible disposition
A. exterminate B. tolerate C. control D. deal with
42. She was taken aback by his attitude
A. delayed B. dragged back C. surprised D. overwhelmed
43. Many would argue that the achievement is commensurate with the effort
A. unexpected in the light of B. funny compared with C. proportional to D. the wrong excuse for
44. They show no finesse in dealing with strangers
A. boldness B. kindness C. tact D. love
45. As a matter of fact, we have been trying to step up production
A. maximize B. decrease C. suspend D. increase
46. Ojo used to play tennis everyday
A. is familiar with playing B. has to play C. was in the habit of playing D. was made to play
47. In his own story, he confirmed that they had been on his tail for quite sometime
A. closely following and watching him B. searching for him C. giving him a tail D. tagging him a talebearer
48. I am surprised to learn that Badmus is an agnostic
A. someone that believes in God B. someone who antagonizes God C. someone who is nonchalant about the existence of God D. someone who does not believe in the existence of God
49. Although the manager is busy right now, he will be with you presently
A. immediately B. soon C. without delay D. right away
50. The governor’s wife in characteristically simple attire, walked into the hall unnoticed
A. eccentrically B. typically C. consistently D. intrinsically
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
51. After my husband’s popular election, we had to keep open house throughout the weekend
A. entertain every caller B. keep all doors open C. relax security D. give a party
52. Our new vice-chancellor has stepped off on the wrong foot.
A. injured his foot while entering his office B. started off badly C. made a costly mistake D. stepped on the wrong toes
53. The corporate existence of any nation is in jeopardy if her leaders pay lip service to her unity
A. do not promptly pay their taxes B. want to break up the country C. do not dialogue regularly over her unity D. are insincere about the problems of her unity
54. Much to her chagrin, the bridegroom did not turn up for the wedding
A. wonder B. surprise C. disappointment D. depression A
55. Ngozi’s countenance is less gloomy; it would appear as if she is relatively out of the woods.
A. free from difficulties B. just from the forest C. in good condition of health D. out of wants –
In each of questions 56 to 100, fill the gap(s) with the most appropriate option from the list following the gap(s)
56. When I was in the secondary school, my parents were active members of the .…..
[A. Parents-Teachers Association B. Parents Teachers Association C. Parent-Teacher Association D. Parents-Teacher’s Association]
57. The pen which you have just picked up is….
A. Charle’s B. Charles’ C. Charless’ D. Charles]
58. It is clear to me that you won’t visit Okoro this holiday, will you?
[A. yes, I won’t B. yes, I will visit C. no, I won’t D. no, I will not visit]
59. Sa’adatu as well as the maids.
A. like plantain chips B. are liking plantain chips C. is liking plantain chips D. likes plantain chips]
60. Measles.….[A. is B. are C. were D. was] no longer impossible to manage these days
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
61. People dislike Jobe because he is a..…[A. trickery B. trickful C. trick D. trickly young man]
62. If the boys arrived early enough, the match…..[A. would have been played B. will be played C. will have to be played D. would be played]
63. There are. …[A. appendexes B. appendix C. appendices D. appendixes] on spelling and pronunciation at the end of the book
64. She usually works hard; but.. ..[A. at times B. atimes C. attimes D. at time] she could be very lazy.
65. The police…..[A. says they are B. say it is C. say they are D. say it is] happy about the dwindling crime rate
66. The keepers themselves are sometimes…. [A. stinged B. stang C. stung D. sting] by the bees]
67. I now realize I…. [A. had met B. have met C. met D. meet.]
68. The patient was… .[A. operated on B. operated C. operated for D. operated with] by a group of surgeons last week.
69. The old man couldn’t help.. .[A. to laugh B. that he laughed C. laughing D. in laughing] at his grandson’s habbling.
70. A range of options…..A. were made B. is made C. are made D. was made] available to the political parties during the recently concluded elections.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
71. He claimed that Mr. Okoli’s utterance was tantamount to defamation of character, so he sued for… .
[A. damaged B. some damage C. a damage D. damages.]
72. I don’t think he can… .[A. can’t he B. isn’t it C. can he D. don’t]
73. The handset was faulty and so it was impossible to… .[A. get at B. get over to C. get through to D. get on to ] them by phone.
74. To be extravagant is to be… [A. rich B. luxurious C. careless D. wasteful]
75. The president of the union.. .[A. would have left B. is about leaving C. was leaving D. has left] for the airport by the time the riot started.
76. Until his recent experience, Onimisi used to pride himself….[A. on B. by C. about D. for] his fearlessness.
77. The trader…..[A. exhibited B. displayed C. spread D. demonstrated] his wares at the trade fair.
78. Based on the facts before me, I have no alternative… .[A. but B. than C. as D. only] to terminate your appointment.
79. Despite the pressure of work during the week, I shall endeavour to.…[ A. put up an appearance B. put up appearance C. put in an appearance D. put on an appearance] at your wedding
80. The expected guest eventually arrived……[A. in company with B. in company of C. by company of D. accompanied with] his wife
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
81. When we visited him, he offered us a variety of …..[A. hot B. local C. hard D. soft] drinks such as whisky brandy.
82. The exercise will be easily accomplished by the team of members ….. their …. [A. pull/resources together B. pool/ resources together C. pull/ resources D. pool! resources].
83. I have decided to …..[A. abandon B. give up C. discard D. jettison] drinking alcohol for health reasons.
84. I would like to… .[A. accompany B. follow C. escort D. join] my father to Kaduna.
85. One… [A. can’t B. shouldn’t C. need not D. dare not] be too careful these days; times are uncertain and walls have ears.
86. I shall never be so tired…..[A. as not be able B. that I shan’t be able C. and so unable D. such that I will be unable)] to write to you.
87. As you have been here before.. ..[A. it were better you B. it is you who C. you’d better D. you would better] lead the way.
88. My friend… .[A. never saw B. did not see C. had not seen D. had never -seen] me for many years when I met him last week.
89. School buildings that…..in 1950…..[A. were build/are B. were built/are C. were built/is D. are built/are] now uninhabitable.
90. Sixty percent of the unskilled workers… .[A. are retain B. is retained C. were retained D. are retained] yearly by the company.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English
91. Defects like…..in government’s development plans….[ A. this/calls B. these/calls C. this/call D. these/call) for extra vigilance.
92. Most of his personal… .[A. affects was B. affects were C. effect was D. effects were) stolen.
93. Tokyo is one of the most developed. …[A. electronics centre B. electronic centre C. electronics centres D. electronic centres] of the world.
94. The director is to liaise…, the management …. [A. with/in B. in/on C. with/on D. on/with) corporate matters
95. Some motorists….. [A. shuttle along B. shuttle form C. shuttle to D. shuttle between] Sokoto and Kano.
96……[A. Since the cold war is over B. With the cold war is over C. The cold war is over D. That the cold war is over], we can now start meaningful development
97. My.. ..is for you to refuse the… .[A. advise/advice B. advice/advice C. advice/advise D. advise/advise] of the wicked.
98. Go straight down the hill and take the third… .[A. bend B. branch C. junction D. turning] on the left. You can’t miss it. -. —
99. I hereby declare and …..[A. inform B confirm C. affirm D. conform] that to the best of my knowledge, this statement is true in all respects.
100. A citizen in a democracy can…. [A. turn up B. bring out C. bring up D. turn to] the law if he or she wants to correct an injustice.
JAMB 1994 Past Questions – English ANSWERS
l.A 6.B 11.D 16.A 21.B 26.B 31.B 36.C 41.B 46.C 51.A 56.B 61.D 66.C 71.D 76.A 81.A 86.D 91:D 96.B
2.B 7.C 12.D 17.D 22.A 27.C 32.C 37.B 42.C 47.A 52.B 57.D 62.D 67.A 72.C 77.B 82.B 87.B 92.D 97.B
3.A 8.D 13.D 18.B 23.C 28.A 33.B 38.D 43.C 48.C 53.D 58.C 63.C 68.A 73.C 78.B 83.B 88.C 93.C 98.A
4.A 9.B 14.C 19.A 24.A 29.B 34.D 39.C 44.C 49.B 54.C 59.D 64.A 69.C 74.D 79.A 84.A 89.B 94.C 99.C
5.D 10.A 15.C 20.D 25.A 30.C 35.C 40.C 45.D 50.B 55.A 60.A 65.C 70.D 75.C 80.B 85.A 90.B 95.D 100.D
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