JAMB 1982 Past Questions – Geography
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
1. In the area covered by the contour map above, six men stand in various places. Which of the men at
J, K, L, M and N will NOT be able to see the man at X? (Assume that there is no vegetation cover; contours are in metres). The man at
A. J B. K C. L. D. M. E. N.
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. In the tropical latitude, warm ocean currents wash the western sides of continents B. In the middle latitudes, warm ocean currents wash the western sides of continents C. In the higher latitudes, warm ocean currents wash the western sides of continents D. In the tropical latitudes, cool ocean currents wash the western sides of continents E. In the higher latitudes, cool ocean currents wash the eastern sides of continents..
3. In which ONE of the following sections of a hillslope would you expect the soil to be deepest and most moist? The
A. footslope B. midslope C. summit D. upper slope E. fall slope.
4. A volcanic eruption is most likely to be violent when
A. volcano is near the sea B. neck of the volcano is sealed by a plug C. lava is viscous D. lava reaches the surface through a fissure E. volcano is below an ocean.
5. Poorly drained soils are good for the growth of
A. oil palm B. sugarcane C. cocoa D. rice E. maize.
6. Which of the following factors CANNOT be used to explain the nature and pattern of distribution of savannah vegetation in Africa?
A. grazing B. bush burning C. crop cultivation D. seasonal rainfall E. temperature.
7. Which of these is NOT a weathering process?
A. The removal of regolith under the influence of weather B. The alteration of calcium carbonate in rocks to calcium bicarbonate C. The breakdown of rocks by plant roots D. The formation of clay minerals from feldspars in granites E. The disintegration of rocks by the freeze-and -thaw action.
8. What is the approximate height of the location marked X?
A. 360 metres B. 375 metres C. 380 metres D. 390 metres F. 395 metres.
9. The length of the main road to the nearest kilometre is
A. 7 kilometres B. 10 kilometres C. 12 kilometres D. 14 kilometres E. 20 kilometres.
10. Name the feature crossed by the footpath between points Y and Z.
A. Spur B. Wind gap C. Gorge D. Dry valley E. Ridge.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
11. What is the size, in square kilometres, of the area covered by the map?
A. 64.0 sq. km B. 62.0 sq. km C. 58.0 sq km D. 55. 0 sq. km F. 51.0 sq km
12. What is the average gradient of the slope marked G-H?
A. 1:32 B. 1:34 0.1:36 D. 1:38 E. 1:40
13. A map measures 10cm by 6cm. if the map is enlarged such that its area is 240 sq. cm, the map is enlarged
A. twice B. thrice C. four times D. five times E. six times.
14. Which of the following statements is true of the Sahara Desert, the Arctic and sub-Arctic regions of North America?
A. The areas are inhabited by primitive hunters and traders B. These areas have the world’s largest known deposits of crude oil C. Population is found in isolated oases and along the river valleys D. The environment is very harsh for both man and animal E. The inhabitants belong to the oldest races in the world.
15 The major mountain belts of the world were produced through
A. wind erosion B. glacial activity C. volcanic activity D. folding E. river deposition
16. Which of the following statements best describes the weathering process known as exfoliation?
A. The chemical alteration of rock minerals on taking in water B. The peeling away of rocks in thin layers C. The dissolution of basic minerals by carbonic acid D. The addition of oxygen to mineral elements to form oxides E.The disintegration of foliated rocks.
17. Which of the following instruments is used in measuring wind speed?
A. Wind vane B. Barometer C. Cup anemometer D. Hygrometer E. Speedometer.
18. Which of the following features is NOT commonly associated with a river at the floodplain stage?
A. Ox-bow lakes B. Meanders C. Levees D. Knickpoint E. Braided channel.
19. The ‘Mediterranean type’ of climate refers to
A. short wet summer, dry winter, mean temperature above 20°C and precipitation about 1,000 mm per year B. wet winter, dry summer, temperature varies from about 6C in winter to about 20°C in summer and precipitation ranges between 700 and 1,000 mm per year C. short wet summer, prolonged dry winter and precipitation is about 500 mm per year D. dry and wet climate; temperature around 20°C and precipitation ranges between 1,000 and 2,000 mm per year E. precipitation all the year round. (about 1,000 mm per year) with a peak in winter, warm summer (20-26°C) and mild winter (6-10°C).
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
20. A river deposits its load of sediment if the
A. quantity of water in the river increases B. river flows from a mountain area onto a plain C. river enters a gorge D. velocity of the river increases E. river approaches as waterfall.
21. In which vegetation zone. is Abuja, the new Federal Capital, located?
A. Southern Guinea savannah B. Sahel savannah C. Northern Guinea savannah D. Tropical rain forest E. Montane grassland. 22. Which of these statements is NOT true of the great circle?
A. The equator is a great circle B. The great circle is the largest circle one can draw on a sphere C. The great circle is the path of the shortest distance over the earth’s surface between two points D. Each meridian is a great circle E. All great circles bisect the earth.
23. Which of these best explains the rapid rise in world population during the twentieth century?
A. Large scale migration of people B. Decline in death rates C. Increase in world food production D. Improvement in transportation which enables food to be moved from surplus to deficit areas E. Rapid rate of urbanization.
24. Which of the following areas is subject to frequent earthquakes?
A. The Canadian Shield B. Northern Australia C. North West Africa D. South Africa E. The Sahara Desert.
25. Within the last few years Alaska, Mexico and the North Sea have become important in the production of
A. coal B. petroleum C. phosphate D. gold E. uranium.
26. The direct flight from town X on longitude 420 30’E to town Y on longitude 50E takes 41/2 hours. If an aeroplane leaves town X at 10.00 a.m local time, what will be the local time in town Y when it arrives there?
A. 2.30 p. m B. 10.00 a.m C. 12 noon D. 7.30 a.m E. 2.00 p.m.
27. Examples of folded structures in Africa include the Atlas Mountains, the Cape Ranges and the
A. Akwapim Hills B. Jos Plateau C. Ruwenzori D. East Africa Rift E. Adamawa Highlands
28. How is the mean annual rainfall of a given place calculated using records for 35 years?
A. by summing the yearly average rainfall figures and dividing by 35 B. by summing the yearly total rainfall figures and dividing by 35 C. by summing the yearly total rainfall figures for 35 years and dividing by 12 D. by finding the average between the figures for the wettest and the driest years and multiplying by 35 E. by plotting the rainfall figures on a graph and finding the midpoint.
29. The three leading manufacturing countries of the world are
A. Japan, USA and Italy B. USA, Britain and Hong Kong C. Japan, Western Germany and Britain D. China, Japan and Brazil E. Japan, USA and Western Germany.
30. Ivory Coast has become famous in recent years for its modern agricultural development projects especially in respect of
A. poultry farming and cattle ranching B. cocoa and fruit growing C. fish and poultry farming D. oil palm and vegetable growing E. fruit and flower growing.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
31. In which of the following vegetation types do you expect to find reindeer?
A.Mediterranean B. Temperate evergreen C. Tundra D. Tropical monsoon E. Temperate grassland.
32. Which of the following is the main export from Uganda?
A. Jute B. Banana C. Tobacco D. Sisal E. Coffee.
33. Tropical cyclones arise in the belts of the
A. doldrums B. westerlies C. trade winds D. polar winds E. monsoon winds.
34. Which ONE of the following regions has the world’s largest potential water power resources, but has the least developed water power?
A. Africa B. Canada C. South America D. Scandinavia E. Australia.
35. The dominant pattern of seasonal labour migration in West Africa is from
A. the interior to the coastal belt B. the coastal belt to the interior C. east to west D. west to east E. the middle belt to the north and south
36. Which of the following factors best accounts for the sparse population of the interior parts of Kenya and Tanzania?
A. very high wildlife population B. the rift valleys are rugged and uninhabitable C. the people are nomads D. The soil and climatic conditions are unfavourable E. many hectares of land are under reserve.
37. The two major air masses affecting the climate of West Africa are the
A. harmattan wind and the south-west monsoon B. south-west monsoon and the tropical maritime C. tropical continental and the tropical maritime D. tropical continental and south-west monsoon E. warm equatorial and the tropical maritime.
38. Which of the following shipping routes carries the world’s heaviest ocean traffic?
A. Mediterranean-Suez Canal-Indian Ocean B. Western Europe-Caribbean C. Eastern North America – Western Europe D. West Coast United States – Panama Canal E. Western Europe-Southern Africa – Australia
39. Which of these three West African countries have economic deposits of iron ore?
A. Nigeria, Mali and Upper Volta B. Niger, Mali and Mauritania C. Nigeria, Guinea and Sierra Leone D. Mali,Senegal and Sierra Leone E. Liberia, Sierra Leone and Togo.
40. Which of these best accounts for the decline in railway transport in Nigeria in the last two decades?
A. Competition from air transport B. The inefficiency of the railway administration C. Competition from road transport D. The slow speed of the trains E. The decline in agricultural exports.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
41. Which of the following is NOT true of most developing countries?
A. They depend essentially on agricultural production B. They have the highest level of agricultural productivity C. The rate of population growth is among the highest in the world D. The proportion of the population involved in primary activities is higher than those of developed countries E. The proportion of the population engaged in tertiary activities is less than those of developed countries.
42. In terms of both the area of land cultivated and the volume of production, the most important cereal crop in Nigeria is
A. maize B wheat C. guinea corn D. millet E. rice.
43. The major areas of mixed farming in the world are also areas of
A. dense population and numerous large urban centres B. sparse population and dispersed rural settlements C. dense population with a high percentage of vegetarians D. low arable crop production E. severe soil erosion.
44. Which ONE of the following areas is an important wet season grazing area for Fulani cattle?
A. Benue Valley B. Niger Valley C. Borgu Game Reserve D. Jos Plateau E. Yankari Game Reserve.
45. In Nigeria, landforms of volcanic and intrusive structures can be seen near each other in one of the following areas. Which one?
A. The Afemai Hills B. The Idarire Hills C. The Cross – River Plains D. The high plains of Hausaland E. The Jos Plateau
46. The commonest means of transporting logs from the forest to the mills and markets throughout the world is by
A. trucks B. transcontinental railroads C. floating along waterways D. special narrow gauge railroads E. boats.
47. Towns in developing countries today are growing very rapidly, mainly through
A. an increasing birth rate B. a decreasing death rate C. migration from rural areas D. influx of refugees from guerrilla wars E. migration to rural areas.
48. The following major dam projects are located in Nigeria. Identify them
A. Kainji, Tiga, Bakolori and Akosombo B. Kainji, Bakolori, Shiroro and Tiga C. Shiroro, Aswan, Kariba and Kainji D. Kainji, Tiga, Kariba and Akosombo E. Aswan, Tiga, Akosombo and Kariba.
49. Which of these is NOT characteristic of the tropical rain forest?
A. There is a great variety of trees present B. Many of the trees have large buttresses C. The trees are usually arranged in layers D. There are many climbing plants E. Epiphytes are rare.
50. The world’s richest fishing grounds are to be found
A. in river estuaries B. on the continental shelves C. in coral seas D. in fjord coastlines E. on the deep sea platforms.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers Geography ANSWERS
1.E 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.10 10.D 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.B 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.A 25.B 26.A 27.A 28.B 29.E 30.B 31.C 32.E 33.A 34.A 35.A 36.B 37.C 38.E 39.C 40.C 41.B 42.A 43.A 44.A 45.C 46.A 47.C 48.B 49.E 50.B
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers – Economics
1. Economics is a science which deals basically with
A. the factors of production B. allocation of scarce resources C. oil exportation D. the gross domestic product (GDP) E. national income.
2. Economists speak about ‘opportunity cost’ when a person
A. has the opportunity to attain a high degree of cost minimization B. has to forego one thing in order to have another C. can equate his fixed costs with his variable costs D. is able to run his business without much expenditure E. has to maximize utility in order to maintain a high standard of living
3. To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a country’s population, one has to know the country’s annual birth rate and
A. the size of that country B. the rate of immigration into that country C. the population census of that country D. the annual death rate E. the gross domestic product (GOP) of that country.
4. We can classify the people of Nigeria into three broad age groups: Group One, 0 -15 years; Group Two, 16 – 64 years; Group Three, 65 years and above. Group Two is the most important economically because
A. It is the dependent population of Nigeria, economically B. all students in Nigeria are In this group C. more than 50% of all Nigerians are in this group D. it is the most expensive group of the economy E. it is the productive group of the economy
5. In the study of economics, land, labour, capital and entrepreneur are referred to as factors of production. These factors produce commodities only if they are
A. profitable to the production process B. purchased for the purpose of production C. combined in the production process D. provided adequately for the production process E. brought into the factory
6. The supply of and demand for goods and services are influenced by the
A. supermarkets B. entrepreneurs C. mechanism of the law D. mechanism of equilibrium E. price mechanism
7. The control price for a carton of beer in Nigeria is N720. But a carton of beer is sold in parts of the country for as much as N 15.00. The cause of this exorbitant price is that
A. there is a Government ban on the importation of beer B. beer. distributors want more profit C. Nigeria is a large country D. middlemen hoard beer E. the demand for beer exceeds \ the supply
8. Most firms are financed by share capital. The shares which do not carry any fixed rate of dividend are known as
A. debentures B. preference shares C. ordinary shares D. participating preference shares E. old shares
9. A firm whose costs of production decrease as it continues to increase its output is said to be enjoying
A. profit maximization B. large-scale production C. a windfall D. government subsidies E. economies of scale
10. Who controls a limited company?
A. The general manager B. The managing director C. The owner of 51% of the shares D. The board of directors F. The government
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
11. The National Electricity Power Authority (NEPA) is a
A. public limited company B. public liability company C. private authority D. public corporation E. Federal Government authority
12. Which one of the following functions of banks in Nigeria is reserved to the Central Bank?
A. Accepting deposits B. Serving as agents for payments C. Issuing bank-notes D. lending to customers E. Purchasing or selling of stock exchange securities
13. The difference between visible exports and invisible imports of a country, in money terms, is known as the
A. balance of trade B. balance of payments C. terms of trade D. foreign reserves E. special drawing rights (SDR)
14. The main economic goal of ECOWAS is the attainment of
A. regional free trade B. multilateral trade C. bilateral trade D. economic self-reliance E. the economic emancipation of Africa.
15. Taxes which are levied on a person’s expenditures are known as
A. purchase tax B. sales tax C. direct tax D. poll tax E. income tax
16. Some of the major problems hindering economic development in West Africa are in the area of electricity supply, communications, education and health. These items are known in economics as
A. development projects B. infrastructural facilities C. monoculture D. capital investment E. superstructure
17. The equilibrium market price is determined at a point where
A. consumers can buy all they desire B. sellers can dispose of all their wares C. the price is moderate D. quantity consumers desire equals’ quantities sellers offer E. sellers and buyers are not quarrelling
18. The sloping downward of the demand curve implies that
A. an increase in price leads to an increase in quantity demanded B. an increase in price leaves the quantity demanded unchanged C. a decrease in price leads to a decrease in quantity demanded D. a decrease In price leads to an increase in quantity demanded E. suppliers respond by offering less commodities for sale
19. If AC =Average Cost of production, TC = Total Cost of production, VC – Variable Cost of production, FC = Fixed Cost of production, Q = Quantity of goods produced then.
A. ACTC;TC=VC+FC
B.AC(TC);TC=VC+FC
C.AC=]. TC=(VC)(FC)Q Q
D.AC=TC – FC; VC=TC-AC
E. AC = TC; TC= VC+ACQ
20. Population growth can be calculated as
A. Birth rate + death rate + migration rate + immigration rate B. Birth rate – death rate + migration rate – immigration rate C. Birth rate + death rate – migration rate + immigration rate D. Birth rate – death rate – emigration rate + immigration rate E. Birth rate – death rate
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
21. Retailers are greater In number than wholesalers because
A. retail business may not be registered incorporated B. retail business requires less expertise C. retailers deal with final consumers D. all wholesaler businesses are large enterprises E. all retail businesses are small enterprises
22. The purpose of import duties does NOT include the
A. generation of revenue for government B. protection of domestic industries C. promotion of international trade D. conservation of foreign exchange earnings E. control of consumption pattern
23. The chief sources of Federal Government revenue in Nigeria are
A. Import duties, petroleum import tax, profit tax, royalties and government dividends B. personal income tax, excise tax and vehicle licenses C. export duties, personal income tax and royalties D. property income, sales tax and excise tax E. import duties, sales tax and poll tax
24. Functions of commercial banks do NOT include
A. lending with interest charges B. carrying out transactions on behalf of customers C. expansion of money supply D. keeping of security documents for customers E. printing of currency
25. Monetary policy does NOT involve
A. increasing the import duties B. buying or selling treasury bills by the Central Bank C. printing of more currency notes D. increasing or decreasing cash reserve ratio by the Central Bank raising the
level of interest.
For questions 26 and 27, consider the information below about the Nigerian economy
| Share of gross national product (GNP) | Share of total employment | Growth rate of output | |
| All agriculture | 40% | 70% | 3% |
| Industry and mining | 30% | 10% | 10% |
| Trade and services | 30% | 20% | 5% |
26. What is the growth rate of GNP?
A. 18% B. 10% C. 6.7% 0.5.7% E. 4.1%
27. What is the growth rate of employment?
A. 18% 8.10% C. 6.7% D. 5.7% E. 4.1%
28. In an economy, if the proportion of people who are below 18 years is 40% and those above 60 years is 30%, what would this imply? The
A. dependency ratio is high B. population is optimum C. ratio of females to males is high D. population is growing at less than equilibrium E. population is growing according to Malthus theory
29. Which is considered the most effective tool by which the Central Bank of Nigeria can control the activities commercial banks?
A. Open market operation B. Reserve requirements C. Bank rate D. Directives E. Special deposits
30. One of the ways by which Government derives revenue from industrial enterprises in West Africa is
A. tariff B. excise duties C. poll tax D. import duties E. community tax
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
31. What is the most important factor influencing the location of the iron and steel industry at Ajaokuta?
A. Availability of labour in the area B. Access to transport facilities C. Nearness to raw materials D. Availability of power
E. Nearness of Technical and Engineering School.
32. A good measure of the standard of living usually used for international comparison is
A. gross national income (GNB.net national income (NNI) C. gross national product (GNP) D. gross domestic product (GDP) E. per capit income (PC])
33. A commodity can be sold for two or more different prices if it is
A. produced or sold by oligopoly B. sold in a perfect market C. produced or sold by monopsony D. produced or sold by monopoly E. produced or sold by perfect competition
34. The PAYE (Pay As You Earn) in Nigeria is an example of
A. indirect tax B. progressive tax C. regressive tax D. community tax E. flat rate tax
35. In the diagram on page 11, which of the following is NOT likely to be a factor causing the change from S 1 to S2?
A. An imposition of a unit tax on maize B. A decrease in the supply of labour C. An increase in the price of other input D. An increase in the price of maize E. Unfavourable weather conditions
36. If income rises from N200.00 to N250.00 and the amount spent on good X falls from N30.00 to N28.00, then good X
A. an income elastic good B. a normal good C. an inferior good D. demand elastic E. supply elastic
37. Which is NOT responsible for the decline in food production in West Africa?
A. Neglect of agriculture by many people B. Drift of young people from rural to urban areas C. Influence of weather and climate D. Many of the countries do not face balance of payments problems E. Lack of good prices for agricultural products on the farm
38. The most dominant economic activity which employs if largest number of people in West Africa is
A. manufacturing B. transport C. government D. agriculture E. the petroleum industry
39. Public enterprises are supported on the grounds that they are undertaken for
A. increasing profit of the private sector B. reducing the burden of the private sector C. improving the welfare of the people D. earning profit for if people E. earning profit for the Government.
40. In this table, the marginal cost of the 3rd unit of output is
| Units of output | Table cost | |
| 1 | 20 | |
| 2 | 32 | |
| 3 | 42 | |
| 4 | 48 | |
| 5 | 1 50 |
A. 12 B. 6 C. 10 D.2 E
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers
41. Full equilibrium under perfect competition requires that
A. MC = MR and AC =AR B. MCMR but AR>AC C. MR=MC= AIR =AC D.TR>TCE. MR = M
42. Oligopoly means
A. large number of sellers in the market B. single seller in the market C. few sellers In the market D. few buyers in the market E. single buyers the market
43. Price discrimination can be described profitably by a monopolist when the elasticity of demand for his product
A. elastic in both markets B. unitary elastic in both markets C. inelastic in both markets D. elastic in one mark and inelastic In the other E. unitary elastic in none of the markets.
44. Demand for money for speculative purposes means
A. buying goods and services whose prices have rise B. keeping money for unforeseen expenditure C. buying financial assets because of possible gains D. buying re estate E. keeping money for a rainy day.
45. If the Central Bank intends to increase the money supply through open market operations then it will
A. sell securities in the open market B. buy securities in the open market C. issue more currency notes D. withdraw money supply from the market E. print more demand deposits.
46. When the import of a commodity is limited to a definite quantity by using a trade control method, this is known
A. tariffs B. quotas C. exchange control D. devaluation E. revaluation
47. Balance of payments of a country explains the overall position of
A. current account of the balance of payments B. capital account of the balance of payments C. both the current and capital account D. position of the balance of trade E. visible and invisible trade
48. All of the following EXCEPT ONE are normal functions of the Marketing Boards in Nigeria
A. Price stabilization B. Efficient marketing of agricultural crops C. Provision of funds for building access roads D. Development of the agricultural industry E. Establishment of agro-allied industries
49. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Economic Community of West African States?
A. Sierra Leone B. Sudan C. Gambia D. Nigeria E. Guinea
50. In Nigeria, a balance of payments deficit can be solved by all of the following EXCEPT
A. imposing import bans on some commodities B. imposing import duties C. drawing down on external reserves D. purchasing foreign exchange from foreign countries E. devaluation of the currency
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers Economics ANSWERS
1. B 4 E 7. E 10. D 13.B 16. B 19. A 22. C 25.A 28. A 31. C 34. B 37. D 40. C 43. D 46. B 49. B
2. B 5.C 8. C 11. D 14.A 17. D 20. D 23. A 26.A 29. B 32. E 35. D 38. D 41. E 44. C 47, C 50. D
3. D 6.E 9. E 12. C 15.A 18. D 21. B 24. E 27.A 30. B 33. D 36. C 39. C 42. C 45. B 48. C
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Government
1. Universal suffrage means
A. adult participation in politics B. giving voting rights to women above the age of 21 C. property ownership D. citizens who understand why they vote E. the right of qualified adults to vote
2. In the parliamentary system of government, executive powers are vested in
A. the President B. Parliament C. the Party in government D. the Cabinet E. a few powerful men in the country.
3. In a federal system, powers that are allocated to both Central and State Governments are called
A. exclusive B. concurrent C. arbitrary D. copyrights E. residual.
4. in a democracy, political power is exercised by
A. the majority B. the literate public C. the few wealthy D. one person E. the monarchy
5. The purpose of registration before elections is to
A. know the total population of a country B. know the names of all taxable adults C. know the number of people that support each political party D. guard against fraud at elections E. identify citizens and non-citizens of a State
6. In a parliamentary system of government, the head of government is usually
A. the head of state B. selected from the upper chamber C. a graduate of a university. D. the Prime Minister E. elected by the whole country.
7. In the presidential system in Nigeria, the Chief Executive remains in office for
A. a period of eight years B. a fixed term C. as long as he enjoys popular support D. two terms E. a period of six years.
8. The idea of democracy as a system of government was inherited from
A. The U.S.A. B. Italy C. England D. Greece E. China.
9. We say that a Constitution is rigid if
A. the sources are too many B. the Constitution is foreign C. it has no chapter on human rights D. the provisions are too detailed E. the process of changing it is too cumbersome.
10. All of the following are obligation of citizens EXCEPT
A. giving money to beggars B. obedience to laws C. voting D. payment of taxes E. loyalty to the nation.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Government
11. Which of the following terms is different from the others?
A. Totalitarianism. B. Fascism. C. Dictatorship. D. Authoritarianism. E. Constitutionalism.
12. Anonymity of the civil servant means that civil servants must
A. serve any government impartially B. be politically neutral C. have job security D. avoid nepotism and favouritism E. not receive the credit or blame for any good or bad policy.
13. A court order directing a detainee to be brought to court is called
A. referendum B. summons C. injunction D. habeas corpus E prerogative.
14. To say that a country has a multi party system means that
A. there are only two political parties in existence B. only two parties can contest elections C. the Constitution recognizes more than one party D. more than one party should form the government at a time E manifestoes of all political parties are the same.
15. Pressure groups are important because they
A. enjoy publicity B. manage political crises for their members C. sponsor candidates for election D. represent groups who may otherwise be ignored E. are not interested in the welfare of the State.
16. A constituency is the same as
A. a local government area B. a region in federal system of government C. an electoral district D. any large town where people vote E. the ward
17. In the British parliamentary system, if parliament passes a vote of no confidence in the government, the Prime Minister A. must change some ministers B. can ask the Queen to resign D. and his cabinet may feel obliged to resign E. can dissolve the opposition party.
18 Which of these is NOT method of election?
A. Co-option B. Second ballot C. Proportional representation D. Primary election E. Simple majority.
19. An unwritten Constitution is one where
A. no part of the Constitution is ever written down B. whole Constitution is not contained in anyone document C. the Constitution is based on the wishes of the Prime Minister D. the Constitution is based on what the Head of State demands E. the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Government
20. A body of people and institutions that make and enforce laws for a particular society is called
A. government B. dictatorship C. anarchy D. totalitarianism E. democracy.
21. The idea of putting everyone under two levels of government at the same time is called
A. dual policy B. dual mandate C. dual citizenship D. federalism E. nationalism.
22. A Constitution refers to
A. any written legal document B. basic rules for conducting the affairs of any organization C. the doctrine that the power of government must be limited D. rules adopted in legislative procedures E. the separation of powers.
23. One of the fundamental features of capitalism is
A. that the major factors of production are privately owned B. the predominance of the public sector in the economy C. the elimination of all forms of competition D. the rule of the few E. the entrenchment of social rights.
24. A federal system of government is one in which
A. power is concentrated in the hands of one of the government B. subordinate units of government exercise sovereign power C. the state governors can sue the central government D. power is shared between the central government and local governments E. power is shared between the central
and state governments.
25. The membership of pressure groups is limited because they
A. pursue specific and narrow objectives B. are mainly concerned with public interests C. promote other people’s interests D. are not friendly E are not patriotic.
26. The O.A.U. was founded to
A. effect an immediate political union of African States B. end colonialism in Africa by 1970 C. promote the unit and solidarity of African States D. create a common market in sub-Saharan Africa E. prevent other regional groups from being set up in Africa.
27. Under the present Local government system in Nigeria, local councils get the bulk of their finances from
A. rates and taxes B. State governments C. the Federal government D. self-help schemes E. fines and penalties by the courts.
28. The United Nations Organisation was founded to
A. end the Second World War B. end the Nigerian Civil War C. promote world peace D. co-ordinate the activities of all its members E. co-ordinate the activities of regional organisations.
29. Before it became effective, the 1979 Constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria was finally approved by
A. the Nigerian Labour Congress B. the Nigerian Assembly C. the Supreme Military Council D. a referendum E. all adult
voters in Nigeria.
30. Bye-laws are usually made and enforced by
A. State governments B. trade unions C. local authorities D. the Chief Inspector of Police E. the Senate.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Government
31. The Organisation of Africa Unity was set up in
A. 1960 B. 1957 C. 1963 D. 1975 E. 1979.
32. One of the earliest political institutions set up in the Colonial period to allow for local participation in politics was the
A. Supreme Military Council B. Legislative Council C. Federal Executive Council D. Wilink’s Commission E. Public Service Commission.
33. The Nigerian 1979 Constitution gives the right to vote to
A. every resident alien in Nigeria B. every Nigerian child C. all Secondary School children D. all Nigerians below the age of seventeen E. all Nigerians of eighteen years and above.
34. The Nigerian 1981 Revenue Allocation Act entitled the local governments to
A. 20 percent B. 12 percent C. 31 percent D. 58.5 percent E. 10 percent.
35. The Nigerian Federal Legislature is
A. bicameral B. unicameral C. called the House o’ Assembly D. called the House of Representatives E. the Senate.
36. Ghana was led into independence by
A. Dr. J.B. Danquah B. Dr. Kwame Nkrumah C. Dr. K.A. Busia D. Mr. Akuffo Addo E. Mr. Krobo Edusei.
37. Which of the following was the last Constitution formulated for Nigeria without Nigerian participation?
A. The Clifford (1922) Constitution B. The Richards (1946) Constitution. C. The Macpherson (1951)Constitution. D. The Lyttleton
(1954) Constitution. E. The Independence Constitution.
38. Which of the parties listed below was founded by Herbert Macaulay in 1923?
A. The Nigerian Youth Movement. B. The Action Group. C. The Northern Peoples Congress. D. The Nigerian National Democratic Party. E. The National Council of Nigerian Citizens.
39. In which of the following institutions does the 1979 Constitution of Nigeria provide for the representation of traditional rulers?
A. The Senate. B. National House of Chiefs. C. The Population Bureau. D. Council of States. E. National Economic Council.
40. The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of
A. ECOWAS B. the O.C.A.M. C. the Commonwealth D. the O.A.U. E. the United Nations.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Government
41. Where is the administrative headquarters of ECOWAS?
A. Lome B. Accra C. Abidjan D. Lagos E. Cotonou .
42. Under the 1979 Nigerian Constitution, State Electoral Commissions are to conduct
A. gubernatorial decisions B. elections into State Houses of Assembly C. local government elections D. all elections E. presidential elections.
43. The body whose responsibility it is to recruit the senior staff of local government councils in Nigeria is the
A. public Service Commission B. State Ministry of Local Government C. Emirate or Council of Chiefs D. President E. local
government council.
44. The Richards Constitution in Nigeria provided for the
A. House of Chiefs in the Western Region B. unofficial majority in the Legislative Council C. appointment of Nigerians as Chief Judges D. House of Chiefs in the Eastern Region E. banning of the Trade Union movement.
45. Which of the following countries operates a single party system?
A. Ghana. B. Nigeria. C. Tanzania. D. Uganda. E. France.
46. The main function of the Legislative Council in British Colonial West Africa was to
A. advise the Governor on policy B. make the law C. execute the law D. interpret the law E. act as a disciplinary body for the civil servants.
47. The Judicial organ of the United Nations is the
A. Security Council B. Trusteeship Council C. International Court of Justice D. General Assembly E. European Court.
48. Which of the following countries has the right to veto the decision of the Security Council?
A. Australia. B. Switzerland C. China D. Canada E. Japan.
49. The primary function of the Economic and Social Council of the U.N. is to
A. improve the social relationship between the U.S.A. and the Soviet Union B. maintain world peace and security C. assist in the development of member states D. lift customs barriers between petroleum producing and non-petroleum producing countries E. encourage trade between Third World and European countries.
50. Which of the following countries voted ‘no’ in the referendum conducted by France in 1958? A. Ivory Coast. B. Togo.
C. Cameroon. D. Republic of Benin. E. Guinea.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Government ANSWERS
1. E 4. A 7. B 10. A 13. D 16 C 19. B 22. B 25. A 28.0 31. C 34.E 37. B 40. E 43. A 46. A 49. C
2. D 5. D 8. D 11. E 14. C 17. D 20. A 23. A 26. C 29 C 32. B 35.A 38. D 41. C 44. B 47. C 50. E
3. B 6. D 9. E 12. E 15. D 18.A 21. B 24. E 27. C 30.D 33. E 36.13 39. D 42. C 45. C 48. C
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Physics
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Physics
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Physics
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Chemistry
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Chemistry
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Chemistry
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Biology
1. A population is defined as the collection of
A. similar organisms that are found in the same habitat B. similar organisms that breed in the same habitat C. similar organisms that interbreed freely in the same habitat D. similar organisms that eat the same food E. Different organisms in the same habitat.
2. Which of these combinations is common to plant and animal cells?
A. Centriole, middle lamella, golgi bodies, mitochondria B. Cytoplasm, sap vacuole, starch grains, leucoplasts. C. Plasma membranes, chromosomes, nitochondra, lysosomes D. Nucleus, nucleolus, cellulose cell wall, nucleolus E. Cytoplasm, centriole, cellulose cell wall, nucleolus.
3. Which of these animals is NOT metamerically segmented?
A. Tapeworm B. Earthworm C. Centipede D. Crayfish E. Shark.
4. Some of the major elements required by plants are
A. Potassium, nitrogen, phosphorus, sodium, calcium B. Nitrogen, phosphorus, molybdenum, sodium, calcium C. Potassium, phosphorus, molybdenum, sodium, calcium D. Potassium, nitrogen, iron, sodium, calcium E. Potassium, nitrogen, phosphorus, silicon, calcium
5. In human reproduction, the zygote formed as a result of fertilization gets attached to the wall of the uterus. The process is called
A. sexual reproduction B. cohesion C. pregnancy D. implantation E. viriparity.
6. Kwashiorkor is caused by severe deficiency of
A. water B. oil C.drugs D. proteins E. sugars.
7. An homoiothermic animal kept in a room where the temperature is lower than the body temperature may loose heat by four physical processes. Which of the following processes is NOT connected with body temperature regulation?
A. Radiation B. Sweat C. Evaporation D. Conduction E. Convection.
8. Which of these food chains is NOT possible in a forest?
A. Diatom – fly – toad – snake B. Fly – toad – snake, hawk C. Leaves – antelope – man – lion D. Leaves – caterpillar – bird – lion E. Leaves – goat – man – lion
9. If a tall man (TT) marries a dwarf woman (tt) and they have four male children, the offspring will be
A. all short B. three short and one tall C. two short and two tall D. one short and three tall E. all tall.
10. A married couple have 10 children and they are all girls. Which of the following is the CORRECT explanation?
A. The woman is incapable of producing male children B. The man’s sperms are very weak C. The man is not athletic enough D. The Y component of the man’s sex chromosomes was always involved E. The X component of the man’s sex chromosomes was always involved.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Biology
11. If a 26 year old blind man married a young one-eyed woman and they had four children, how many of them would be blind like their father?
A. All B.3 C.2 D. 1 E. None.
12. The glottis is the opening which leads to the
A. oesophagus B. larynx C. nostrils D. Pharynx E. mouth.
13. A tapeworm has no alimentary canal because
A. it is autotrophic B. it does not feed C. it has no enzymes D. its body absorbs digested food E. the suckers on the scolex suck blood.
14. A grasshopper respires by means of its
A. lung-books B. gills C. lungs D. antennae E. tracheal tubes
15. An onion bulb stores its foods in the
A. stem B. leaves C. roots D. cotyledon E. branches
16. Roots of plants are normally
A. positively phototrophic D. negatively geotrophic C. negatively hydrotrophic D. positively hydrotrophic E. negatlively chemotrophic.
17. The main function of the swim-bladder is for
A. swimming B. detecting sound C. buoyancy D. breathing E. reproduction
18, Which of the following pairs are the products of sucrose hydrolysis?
A. Glucose + glucose B. Fructose + fructose C. Glucose + fructose D. Galactose + glucose E. Fructose + galactose.
19. Which vertebra has a projection called odontoid process?
A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic D. Lumbar E. Caudal
20. Refrigeration as a method of food preservation has ONE of the following characteristics
A. kills all the bacteria B. kills most of the bacteria C.makes the bacteria inactive D. dried food E. hydrolyses food.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Biology
21. Treatment of a poor soil with lime supplies
A. sulphur B. calcium C. phosphorus D. sodium E. nitrogen.
22. In the enzymic reactions, starch -> sugar amylase. Starch is referred to as the
A. substrate B. product C. enzyme D. enzyme – substrate complex E. reaction mixture.
23. ONE of the major causes of haemophilia is lack of
A. fibrinogen B. amylase C. white blood corpuscles D. red blood corpuscles E. plasma.
24. In man, identical twins occur when
A. an ovum is fertilized by a sperm and then divides into two, each forming a separate embryo B. an ovum is fertilized by two sperms and then divides into two, each forming an embryo C. two ova are fertilized at the same time, each forming an embryo D. two ova are fertilized by a single sperm, each forming an embryo after fertilization E. one ovum first divides into two and each half is fertilized by a sperm before developing into an embryo.
25. The parts of the mammalian eye that strongly bend light rays are the
A. cornea and the lens B. cornea and aqueous humour C. cornea and vitreous humour D. lens and aqueous humour E. lens and vitreous humour
26. Which of these statements is NOT true of insects?
A. They are arthropods B. Their bodies are divided into three distinct regions of head, thorax and abdomen C. Their thorax comprises three segments, only two of which bear a pair of appendages each D. Respiration is by means of trachea E. They undergo metamorphosis.
27. When an operculate fish breathes, it takes in water through the
A. mouth and also passes it out through the same way B. mouth and passes it out through the operculum C. operculum and passes it out through the mouth D. operculum and passes it out through the nostril E. nostrils and passes it out through the operculum.
28. Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells?
A. Meristematic B. Xylem vessels C. Cambium D. Mesophyll E. Palisade.
29. External ears of mammals consist of A. pinna and tympanum B. pinna only C. auditory meatus pinna D. auditory meatus and pinna E. auditory meatus and tympanum.
30. Any dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a
A. capsule B. aggregate fruit C.legume D. schizocarp E. follicle.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Biology
31. Which of the following is NOT function of mammalian blood?
A. Engulfing bacteria B. Production of hormones C. Transporting urea D. Distribution of heat E. Transporting glucose.
32. The maize grain is regarded as a fruit and not a seed because
A. it has a coleorhiza B. it has a coleoptile C. of the relatively large endosperm D. there is the remains of a style E. of the relatively small sculellum
33. Which of these parts of the mammalian ear is directly concerned with the sense of balance?
A. Cochlea B. Eustachian tube C. Ear-drurn D. Pinna E. Semicircular canals
34. When freshly tapped palm wine was kept overnight, it was found to be more alcoholic. This effect must have been due to
A. the addition of saccharin B. the addition of sugar C. the addition of whisky or local gin D. some complex hydrolysis reaction E. anaerobic respiration of an organism
35. If a farmer left his land uncultivated for five years before returning to it, he must be practising
A. modern agriculture B. strip cropping C. contour ridging D. crop rotation E. the bush fallow system.
36. A pyramid of numbers can be defined as
A. the number of plants and animals in ecosystem B. an arrangement of organisms according to their habitat. C. the numerical relationships of a food chain D. the number of plants and animals in a population. E. the total number of species and genes in a community.
37. In man, spermatozoa are never found in the
A. testis B. urethra C. epididymis D. prostate gland E. vas deference
38. Which of the following statements is TRUE of inhalation of air by man?
A. The ribs are not raised B. Diaphragm is raised C. Intercostal muscles relax D. Pressure of the thoracic cavity increases E. Size of thoracic cavity increases.
39. If the gall bladder of a man is removed by surgery, which of the following processes will be most seriously affected?
A. Digestion of fats and oils B. Formation of urea C. Digestion of starch D. Conversion of proteins E. Storage and release of urine.
40. Flat worms and roundworms are said to be invertebrates because
A. they are small animals B. they can live inside the vertebrates C. some of them are unicellular D. they have no backbones E. they are parasitic.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Biology
41. Where is energy produced in a cell?
A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Lysosomes D. Chloroplast E. Mitochondria
42. In which part of a leguminuous plant can you find bacteria like Azotobacter
A. Spongy mesophyll of leaf B. At the internodes D. In nodules E. Palisade mesophyll of leaf.
43. Which of the following is NOT associated with excretion in mammals?
A. Glomerulus B. Urea C. Faeces D. carbondioxide E. Bowman’s capsule.
44. The three blood vessels that supply the mammalian alimentary canals are
A. segmented artery, hepatic artery a coeliac artery B. coeliac artery, anterior mesenteric artery and posterior mesenteric artery C. coeliac artery, segmental artery and hepatic artery D. hepatic artery, anterior mesenteric artery and posterior mesenteric artery E. hepatic portal vein, anterior mesenteric artery and posterior mesenteric artery.
45. In Fig.1 the structure labelled X is the
A. cellulose cell wall B. plasma membrane C. nuclear wall D. mucilage wall
46. Which of the parts are used to recognize the bone in
Fig. 2? A. land 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 5 D. 1,2 and 6 E.4 and 5
47. In an epigeal germination, it is the
A. epicotyl that elongates fast B. hypocotyl that elongates fast C. hypogeal that elongates fast D. plumule that elongates fast E. roots that elongates fast.
48. The mammalian pancreas is involved with the
A. digestion of food only B. digestion and absorption of food C. digestion of food and regulation of blood sugar D. digestion of food, production of hormone and the regulation of blood sugar E. digestion of food and the production of insulin.
49. When a person with blood belonging to group 0 has lost much blood due to an accident, he can be given blood belonging to
A. group 0 only B. group A only C. group AB only D. group A and 0E. group AB and 0
50. The absence of stomata shows that a leaf may be
A. from a floating plant B. from a submerged. plant C. variegated D. from a terrestrial plant E. from a parasitic green plant.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answers for Biology ANSWERS.
1.A 4.A 7. E 10.E 13. D 16.D 19.D 22.A 25.E 28.B 31.B 34.E 37.D 40.D 43.C 46.E 49.A
2.C 5.D 8. E 11.E 14. E 17.C 20.C 23.A 26.C 29.D 32.D 35.E 38.E 41.E 44.B 47.B 50.B
3.E 6.D 9. D 12.B 15. 18.C 21.B 24.A 27.B 30.D 33.E 36.C 39.A 42.D 45.D 48.D
Mathematics
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
English
COMPREHENSION: Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
Olumba removed a small black amulet from his neck and substituted a bigger one. The former was for general protection at home, the latter for protection and luck whilst travelling. Ready at last he picked up his machet and headed for the chief’s house with Ikechi behind him.
Olumba walked ahead looking upwards as usual. Just what he was searching for in the sky Ikechi couldn’t tell. Perhaps his shortness accounted for this habit since he often had to look up into the faces of his taller companions. what he lacked in height he made up in solid muscle and he looked strong. His wrestling pseudonym was Agadaga, a name which meant nothing but which somehow conveyed an impression of strength.
Eze Diali, the chief began, I have learnt that poachers from Aliakoro will be at the Great Ponda tonight. There is no doubt that they will try to steal from the Pond of Wagada which as you know is rich in fish. Our plan tonight is to bring on or more of these thieves home alive and ask for very large ransoms, this line of action will have two effects. Firstly, it will prove our charges of poaching against the people of Aliakoro, and secondly, the payment of very large ransoms would be a deterrent. We need seven men for this venture. I call for volunteers.
‘Who will head this party?’ the chief asked, looking round. Chituru, one of the elders, said: ‘Eze Diali, let us not waste time, Olumba is the man for the job. We all know that he has led many exploits like this one.’
We still need six men eze Diali said, Eager youths came surging forward. Their well-formed muscles rippled as they elbowed one another. It was difficult to choose.
‘I suggest Olumba should choose his men. He knows the boys very well and his judgement should be reliable.’ It was Wezume, another village elder, who spoke.
1. Olumba wore -amulets because he
A. was superstitious B. was a strong and fearless fighter C. wanted to please his wife D. wanted to instil fear in Eze Diali, the chief E. believed in their power of protection.
2. Olumba looked upwards because
A. he was searching for something in the sky B. this was his usual practice C.he was short and often had to look up D. he lacked height E. his wrestling pseudonym was Agadaga.
3. ‘Poaching’ means
A. stealing B. cracking eggs C. fishing D. demanding ransoms from Aliakoro E. deterring thieves
4. The chief called the meeting because
A. he wanted volunteers to go to Aliakoro B. he wanted to announce the fact that there would definitely be preachers from Chiolu at the Great Ponds that night C. he want to ask for very large ransoms because the people of Chiolu needed money for fishing D. the elders had devised a plan to prevent the poaching E. seven men were needed to bring seven thieves home.
5. Why was Olumba chosen?
A: In order not to waste time. B. Because his nickname conveyed an impression of strength. C. His amulets for luck were stronger than anyone else’s in the village. D. He had caught thieves alive before E. The passage doesn’t say.
In 1968, Nigeria was the world’s biggest producer of groundnuts (averaging 712,600 tonnes a year), the second producer of cocoa (203,600 tonnes) after Ghana, the fourth producer of tin (13, 264 tonnes) and the biggest producer of columbite. Oil palm, growing wild and in plantations in the south, supplied half the world’s exports of palm kernels (407,200 tonnes) and seventy-per cent of the world’s export of palm oil (152,700 tonnes). Nigerian forest covered some 310,800 square kilometres and produced about 1.132 million cubic metres of timber a year, for export as logs, sawn timber or plywood sheets. Rubber was grown by peasant farmers and, increasingly in plantations; and was partially processed in local factories. The ancient livestock industry of the north still supplies the whole country. About a million cattle are slaughtered annually, and the trade is now being modernised and expanded. As a by-product of the northern livestock industry, there is an old and valuable trade in hides and skins. As a matter of fact the type of skin inaccurately called moroccan leather comes from Nigeria.
6. According to the passage, Nigeria used to be the world’s biggest producer of
A. groundnuts B. palm oil C. rubber D. groundnuts and Columbite E. palm kernels, groundnuts and cocoa.
7. Select the statement supported by the passage.
A. Ghana produced more cocoa than Nigeria. B. oil palms and timber were Nigeria’s most important exports. C. The most important industry in Nigeria was the livestock industry, D. Nigerian forest covered 310,800 square kilometres and produced about 1 .132 million cubic metres of timer a year E. Oil palms and rubber trees are always grown in plantations.
8. Indicate which statement is not supported by the passage.
A. Columbite and groundnuts were Nigeria’s most important exports: B. In 1968, 814, 400 tonnes of palm kernels were exported. C. Nigeria supplied more than half the world’s palm oil. D. Timber constituted a major export in Nigeria. E. ‘Moroccan leather’ is incorrectly named.
9. Timber can be made into
A. Columbite B. plywood sheets C. hides D. leather E. concrete floors.
10. The last sentence implies that
A. there are several types of leather, one of which is moroccan leather’B. moroccan leather is insufficiently named C. a new type of skin D. the type of skin known as moroccan leather comes from Nigeria E. the type of skin called moroccan leather is correctly named.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
I was on top of one of my palm trees yesterday, tapping the tree and collecting the wine for the morning, where I saw two soldiers at the foot of the trees. They made signs at me, so I concluded that they wanted my palm wine. On descending from the tree I gave them the wine to sample, as is customary. Not only did they drain all the wine in the calabash, they said they had come to conscript me into the army I asked them whether they wanted me or somebody else, and they said they had come for me. I asked them whether an enemy sent them or they came on their own. To cut it short, they said I was wasting their time as they had to catch twenty men that day. Only a foolish man willingly disobeys armed soldiers. I told them I had something very important to say.
‘Say it, then, one of them cut in impatiently, looking at his watch. It was approaching midday, by which time it was considered unsafe to drive around in a car for fear of enemy planes which had learnt to strike individual vehicles on the highway.
‘Yes, what I want to say is simple,’ I said. ‘My first son, the boy who should have succeeded me when I die, joined the army voluntarily and with my full backing. He was a brilliant boy, always first in his class. He was in his last year at school when the war began. He was killed. The two children who came after him are girls. The next boy is still in primary school. If he were old enough, I would have asked him to join the army, not minding the fact that my first son’s head had already been sacrificed to the same war. For no person who breathes will say that he has no part in this war. ‘But let me add this, if this war has reached the stage when a man of my age is given a rifle by force and sent to the war front, then the time has come for you to blow the whistle and end the war. That is all I want to say!’
11. The narrator is a
A. farmer B. tapper C. wanderer D. copper E. friend of the soldiers.
12. The soldiers had come to
A. visit the man B. drink his palm wine C. tell him about the way D. force him into the army E. warn him about the enemies.
13. The army was short of personnel because the soldiers
A. were looking for new recruits B. had lost the war C. had suffered heavy losses D. could not find people willing to sign on E. had to recruit twenty men
14. The man would have sent his boy in the primary school to the army to show that
A. he supported the war effort B. he wasn’t afraid to fight C. the war concerned everybody alive D. the war could still be won E. his first son’s death meant nothing to him.
15. From the man’s concluding statement, you can infer that
A. the war had to, be brought to an end B. old men should not fight C. whistles should be blown D. only young men should fight. E. war is immoral.
After many weary weeks of marching, Nzinga and her attendants arrived at the white walls of Luanda. The guards at the city gates led them through the winding streets and up to the governor’s palace a pompous courtier, sweating and dirty in his thick clothes, ordered them to wait amongst a crowd of people who had come to beg favours of the governor. Nzinga waited patiently, ignoring this insult to her royal dignity. She knew that her chance would come. The hot sun beat down on the white walls of the palace, yet Nzinga stood straight and proud as the crowd of Portuguese merchants mopped their sweating faces with damp lace handkerchiefs.
Much later the courtier came back. He knocked on the floor with his staff, then announced in a loud voice, his Excellency Joao Correia de Souza, the Governor in Angola. of His Most Royal and Catholic Majesty, the King of Portugal! The tired soldiers stood to attention and the courtiers and merchants bowed.
Nzinga became very impatient. Was she to stand here like a servant all day, waiting for this man to, make up his mind up her? She stepped forward, walked into the middle of the room and faced the governor. The guards and courtiers were so surprised that they could do nothing but gasp in amazement at this boldness.
Well, murmured one of the merchants to his neighbour. ‘Now she will learn what trouble is Don Joao will be very angry. It is an insult to his dignity.’
‘What do you mean by this?’ asked the governor when he had recovered from his sUrprise. ‘Who are you? Come, woman, state your business!’
But Nzinga was not afraid. In a clear, calm voice she answered him. ‘My first business is a chair,’ she said. The governor laughed. ‘What do you mean? he asked.
‘You are seated,’ she replied, ‘And you are only a governor, a slave of your king. I am a princess and men do not sit where I stand. I will state my business seated!’ –
The governor was too surprised to, speak. The courtiers looked at each other in amazement, for not one of them would have dared speak to, the governor in that way, at last the governor recovered him. ‘Ridiculous!’ he shouted. ‘State your business, woman, and state it standing!’
But Nzinga had learned the strength of her enemy. She knew that she was already winning this contest of wills. Whatever happened now, this man would not think that she had been sent by a beaten people to beg for favours. Without another word, she turned and made a sign to her maid. When the girl came to her, Nzinga ordered her to kneel down. Then with a flash of triumph in her eye, Nzinga sat down on the girl’s back. Nzinga got her treaty. Pride in herself and in her people had saved the day far Mbundu.
16. What was the first insult to the princess’ dignity?
A. Being greeted by a pompous courtier, sweating and dirty. B. Being ordered to wait amongst a crowd of people. C. Not being given a lace handkerchief to map her face D. Staying surrounded by tired soldiers and merchants. E. The courier mistakenly thinking she had come to beg favours of the Governor.
17. Who did Nzinga want to, see?
A. The Governor of Africa. B. The King of Portugal C. Luanda D. Joao de Souza E. The Royal Majesty.
18. Why did Nzinga became very impatient? Because
A. she was made to wait to seethe governor B. she had to wait in the rear, instead of the middle of the room C. she was told she was an insult to Don Joao’s dignity D. she was not offered a chair E. men were sitting in her presence.
19. Why were the courtiers amazed? .
A. None of them would have dared to speak to the Governor like she did. B. Nzinga made the governor too surprised to, speak C. Nzinga showed she feared nobody. D. Because Nzinga wanted to, sit down. E. because Nzinga dared to sit down in the presence of the governor.
20. This story shows that
A. the legend of Queen Nzinga is true B. Nzinga was brazen C. Nzinga was a proud and fear less woman D. Nzinga knew how to act and speak in frOnt of colonialists E. the Mbundu people were proud to make Nzinga a queen after this incident.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
Professor Ikin emerged from the charm incident a changed man. During the preceding months when his wife had talked persistently about Dr. Okoro and his American friends he had paid little heed to her. He assumed that nagging was her way of life. Dr. Okoro did not constitute a threat to him; they were not in the same department so, they could not be competing with him. He was an Associate Professor Okoro had only just become a Lecturer Grade II. If he had yielded to his father’s pressure to marry early, he might have produced a child as old as Dr. Okoro. Two members of the Provisional Council had intentionally dropped broad hints that he was lined up to take over from Dr. Wilson as Vice-Chancellor. He did not need to take any more notice of Dr. Okoro’s attitude towards him than a cow takes notice of a fly perching on its back.
It was true Dr. Okoro got on well with the Americans who happened to be at the helm of the affairs of Songhai. But what could they do for him? At best, in the teeth of strong opposition from all quarters, they could make him a Senior Lecturer. Even that would require the approval of the Provisional Council, and Okoro should not take for granted that half the members would not accept him as a child born today who would attain full maturity tomorrow. Professor Ikin knew what displeased the Americans about him – it was his lack of a Ph.D., but he hoped that over the years they would learn to judge a man by what he produces rather than by the degrees he has accumulated. If they did not, it was just too bad because only an earthquake could move him away from Songhai at such a crucial stage of its development.
21. From this passage it is clear that Professor Ikin
A. loves his wife very dearly B. doesn’t value what his wife says C. hates his wife D. does not trust his wife E is not a serious man.
22. Dr. Okoro cannot be seen as a threat to Professor Ikin because
A. he is very junior to professor Ikin in the university hierarchy B. because a cow does not take notice of a fly perching on its back C. Professor Ikin is old enough to be Dr. Okoro’s father D. a Doctor is inferior to a Professor E they do not teach the same subject.
23. Professor [kin is hopeful of advancement because
A. he is much older than Dr. Okoro B. Dr. Wilson is retiring C.he is influential in the Provisional Council D. he received prior information of his possible appointment as Vice Chancellor E. he is a Professor.
24. Despite the fact that the Americans like Pr. Okoro, he may not be made a Senior lecturer because
A. the Americans are not influential B. Professor Ikin is opposed to him C. there will be opposition from all quarters D. he would be judged by his qualifications E. he may be considered inexperienced.
25. The Americans are displeased with Pr ssor Ikin because
A. he hates Dr. Okoro B. he does not like his wife C. they see him as not sufficiently academically qualified D. they only like people who worship them E they are at the helm, of affairs at Songhai.
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
Fill the blank spaces with the most appropriate of options A-E
26. Monisola is sure to pass in September. She …..hard since the beginning of this term.
A. had been working B. was working C. is working D. would work E has be :m working.
27. Will you know if that dog is …..? He just lost a brown and black one.
A. Adebowale’s B. Adebowales’ C. Adebowale’s own. D. the Adebowales E the Adebowale’s.
28. The old shoemaker at the corner of our street is …..so I hoped you will patronise him.
A. mine shoemaker B. a tight friend C.a good customer D. my customer E a close friend.
29. The students in my junior class seem to have performed …..they did last year.
A. as brilliant as B. more brilliant than C. as brilliantly as D. brilliant than E. same brilliant as.
30. Afterthe 1980 Ogunpa floods, our association received many letters from those adversely affected and we resolved to …..
A. assist them B. invite them C. respond them D. pity them E query them.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
31. Jane and Jarawa love …..very much.
A. themselves B. each other C. one another D. theirselves E each others
32. I shall travel to Lagos by …..next week.
A. air or with lorry B. aircraft or by road C. airways or by bus D air or by road E. flight or by bus.
33. You can never get …..with stealing the presidential jet. You will be caught.
A. by B. away C. bye D. free E scot free.
34 She got into trouble because she refused to listen to the …..given by her friends and relatives.
A. many of the advice B. series of advices C. pieces of advices D. advice E lots of advices.
35 The armed robber stabbed the driver …..the back.
A. in B. on C. at D. inside E. by.
36. I …..him before he came into the room.
A. have seen B. have not C. used to see D. see E had seen
37. 1 am disappointed …. the way you conducted yourself at the party.
A. by B. for C. due to D. at E according to.
38. You can go on; I …..what you are saying.
A. am understanding B. may be understanding C. was understanding D. will be understanding E understand
39. When we were coming back from the picnic last Friday, there …. on Eko Bridge.
A. were many traffics B. was much traffic C. were plenty traffic D. were lots of traffic E was a few traffic.
40 I have refused to give him my pen because I don’t want him to …..it again.
A. loss B. loose C. lose D. lost E. lend.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
41 We were all delighted when the beautiful lady in our house …..a bouncing baby boy.
A. delivered B. born C. brought forth D. gave birth to E gave bath to.
42. Always remember to …..the light before leaving the room.
A. put off B. blow out C. off D. put out E switch off.
43. I’m sorry I can’t go to the theatre with you as I have …. to do.
A. many works B. a work C. plenty work D. much work E. lots and lots of works.
44. The wicked boy threw a stone at the bird smashing …..two legs.
A. its B. it’s C. it D. is E its’.
45. When the policemen received …. about the hide-out of the armed robbers, they went there in full force to arrest them.
A. full informations B. all the necessary informations C. some informations D. an information E full information.
46. On such an important …..all the guests were expected to be at their best.
A. occassion B. occasion-C. ocason D. ocasion E. occason.
47. Chike, who plays in the first eleven, is an expert :…. dibbling.
A. for B. by C. at D. with Eon.
48. Musa asked Asmau what she …..since, he last saw her.
A. has been doing B. had been doing C. has done D. was doing E might be doing
49. The violent storm that occurred on Easter Monday destroyed many houses and caused …..in Lagos generally.
A. heavy damages B. much damage C. several damages D. plenty damage E many damages.
50. Would you mind …..the door, please?
A. to shut B. to be shutting C. shutting D. to have been shutting E. to have shut.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
51. The angry woman shouted and cursed in language …..shocking for words.
A. very B. far C. so D. quite E too.
52. The evidence of all the accused persons …..by the Judge sitting at No.2 Assizes last week.
A. were disbelieved B. was disbelieved C. is disbelieved D. are disbelieved E has been disbelieved.
53. There are puddles in the road. it …..
A. rains B. will be raining C. had to rain D. must rain E. must have been raining.
54. By next-June he …..four novels.
A. will write B. is writing C. will have written D. had written E. has written.
55. Do come tonight, but don’t expect me to speak to you because I …..an interesting programme on television when you arrive:
A. am watching B. watch C. watched D. shall be watching E have watched.
56. ….. any good films lately?
A. You would like to see B. Have you seen C. Are you going to see D. Would- you see E. You are seeing.
57. His hair needs …..A. to cut B. to have cut C. being cut D. to be cutting E. cutting.
58 …..fewer strikes since the profit-sharing schemes were introduced.
A. There have been B. There are C. There were D. There are going to be E. There was.
59. Everybody hates …..kept waiting.
A. be B. being C. to be D. for being E. in being.
60. I am not used to …..on the left.
A. drive B. having driven C. driving D. have driven E. being driving.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
61. What made you …..that
A. have said B. to say C. saying D. said E. say.
62. F: Can I clean this old engine in the sitting room? – T: 1 would rather …..it in the garage.
A. you cleaned B. you are cleaning C. you clean. D. you will clean E. didn’t clean.
63. Radium …. Maria Sklodowska-Curie.
A. discovered B. is discovering C. has discovered D. was discovered by E. had been discovered by
64. His English was so good that he …..for an Englishman.
A. took B. is taken C. was taken D. has taken E. is taking.
65. If you …..me that you had run out of petrol, I would have given you some.
A. were to tell B. tell C. have told D. would tell E. had told.
66. X: How do you want to be paid – in cash or by cheque? Y: They asked him …..in cash or by cheque
A. how he wanted to be paid B. whether he wanted to be paid C. how he wants the money D. how to pay E. how did he want to be paid
67. S: I translated the story into Hausa for him. T: You ……have translated. He knows Hausa very well.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. can’t D. wouldn’t E. couldn’t.
68. Can you buy African souvenirs in any other shops? OR: ….. can you buy African souvenirs?
A. What place B. Which place C. Where D. Where else E. Wherever.
69. Put …..your watch, it is half an hour fast.
A. away B. up C. on D. forward E. back.
70. You look very tired, a cup of tea will …..you some good!
A. make B. do C. give D. set E. put
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
71. When he was knocked on the head, he fell to the ground …..
A. collapsed B. fainted C. unconscious D. conscious E. noisily
72. There was a loud bang……we thought it was the television, but it wasn’t.
A. at last B. at first C. at least D. at the moment E. at present.
73. Plans for a rise in production …..through when a strike started.
A. went B. came C. set D. carried E. fell.
74. She used to be very untidy but she has grown …..it now.
A. out of B. from C. -without D. away with E. by.
75. In the past 20 years, many patients …..by the doctors in the specialist hospital.
A. are treated B. were loved to treat C. have been treated D. treated E. have treated.
76. The catering manageress saw to it that the morning meal ……by 07.00 hours every day.
A. is prepared B. used to prepare C. has been prepared D. was prepared E. use to be prepared.
77. It …..so hard that all the cars have stopped moving.
A. rains B. will rain C. is raining D. was raining E. might rain.
78. When next I come to see you, you …..in your new home.
A. are already living B. will already be living C. will already live D. will have lived E. have already been living.
79 …..to your birthday party in September?
A. May I come B. Will I come C. Would I come D. Might I come E. Shall I come
Choose the word or phrase from options A-E which has the nearest meaning to underlined word or words in each sentence
80. The minister hit on a plan to retain his post after many months of lobbying.
A. beat a plan B. drew up a plan C. discovered a plan D. selected a plan E. designed a plan.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
81. The students decided to go without breakfast in order to save money for the needy. They decided to
A. travel and leave their breakfast at home B. go outside for breakfast C. go for lunch rather than breakfast D. forego breakfast E. reject breakfast.
82. Ekwensi’s account with the Naira Bank is, in the red. His account
A. was written in red ink B. is overdrawn C: is in danger D. is special E. is heavy.
83. He is traveling tomorrow.
A. He may travel tomorrow. B. He will travel tomorrow. C. He has to travel tomorrow. D. He should travel tomorrow. E. He can travel tomorrow.
84. He should be able to do it alone.
A. He would be able to do it alone. B. He ought to be able to do it alone. C. He may be able to do it alone. D. He has to be able to do it alone. E. He will do it alone.
85. He will smoke continuously when he is depressed.
A. He smokes continuously whenever he is depressed’. B. He intends to smoke continuously whenever he is depressed. C. He wishes to smoke continuously when he is depressed. D. He may smoke continuously when he is depressed. E. He can smoke continuously whenever he is depressed.
86. Shade is to come home tomorrow.
A. Shade is planning to come home tomorrow. B. Shade may come home tomorrow C. Shade wants to come home tomorrow. D. Shade is expected to come home tomorrow. E. Shade wishes to come home tomorrow.
87. John must be happy today.
A. lam sure John is happy today. B. John is happy today. C. I hope John is happy today
D. It is possible John is happy today. E. John may be happy today.
88. You can talk to her.
A. You are permitted to talk to her. B. You must talk to her. C. You might talk to her. D. Nothing prevents you from talking to her. E. A & D
89. The General promised the soldiers would go back to the barracks.
A. barricade B. army C. military training school
D. soldier’s quarters E. civilian quarters.
90. My mother has refused to come to live in Lagos because she prefers the tranquil life in the village to the hurly burly of the city.
A. tree B. prosperous C. peaceful D. decent E. happy.
91. Most of the time my Boss tells cock and bull stories.
A. costly B. unreasonable C. clever D. untrue E. funny.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer
92. My friend will hate his uncle for ever because he left him in the lurch in his hour of need.
A. abandoned him B. punished him C. disrespected him D. disinherited him E. despised him.
93. When you go to a foreign country to study, you will discover that life is not always a bed of roses:
A. as pleasant as one thought B. a bed without roses C. an unmitigated disappointment D. as expected E. uncomfortable.
94. A lorry larger than an elephant was stuck on the bridge
A. as large as an elephant B. carrying an elephant C. that looked like an elephant D. with elephantiasis E. of enormous proportions.
95. There is an end-of-session party tonight, but Sola hasn’t finished her term paper. She’s unlikely to come.
A. I doubt whether she will come. B. She will likely come. C. It isn’t unlike her to come. D. She doesn’t like coming to parties E. There is a small possibility that she might come.
96. Never in the history of human conflict has so much been owed by so many to so few.
A. Many people owed much money at the end of the war. B. A handful of people saved the lives of a nation. C. A few people did a lot of things gratis D. This conflict caused the largest ransom ever demanded. E. Very little was owed by anyone to anybody.
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word in each sentence.
97. While most of our recently elected legislators are living a life of affluence and ostentation, the vast majority of those who elected them into office are unhappy.
A. influence B. pleasure C. poverty D. happiness E. consequences.
98. It is generally believed that misers are not loved by many.
A. spendthrifts B. spenders C. hoarders D. savers E. thieves
99. My brother’s primary school foundation was solid and this affected his secondary education
A. sound B. sordid C. shaky D. weak E. uneventful.
100. Politicians and holders of political appointments are generally assumed to be cunning.
A. kind B. straightforward C. generous D. even-handed E. sly.
JAMB 1982 Past Questions and Answer Mathematics ANSWERS
1.E 6.D 11.B 16.B 21B 26.E 31.B 36.E 41.D 46.B 51.E 56 B 61.E 66.A 71.C 76.D 81.D 86.D 91.D 96B
2.B 7.A 12.D 17.D 22.A 27.A 32.D 37.D 42.E 47.C 52.E 57.E 62.A 67.B 72.B 77.C 82 B 87.A 92.A 97.C
3.A 8.B 13.D 18.B 23.D 28.E 33.B 38.E 43.D 48.B 53.A 58.A 63.D 68.D 73.E 78.B 83.B 88.E 93.A 98.A
4.D 9. B 14.C 19.C 24.E 29.C 34.D 39.B 44.A 49.B 54 C 59.B 64.C 69.E 74.A 79.A 84.B 89.D 94.E 99.C
5.D 10.A 15.A 20.C 25.C 30.A 35.B 40.C 45.E 50.C 55.D 60.C 65.E 70.B 75.C 80.C 85.A 90.C 95.A 100.B