JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Geography
JAMB 1980 Past Questions and Answers
Study the map provided and answer questions 1-5
1. The ground distance along the river from the confluence of Rivers Obe and Opi to the bridge across River Obe is 5.5 kilometres. What is the scale of the map in Representative Fraction?
A. 1: 10000 B 1:50000 C. 1:100000 D. 1:500 000 E. 1: 1 000 000.
2. The true bearing, to the nearest degree, of the highest peak in the mapped area from the centre of the bridge across River Obe is
A. 1190 B. 239° C. 2490 D. 3191 E. 3391.
3. Ketegi settlement is typically a
A. scarpfoot settlement B. foot-hill settlement C. wet-point settlement D. dry-point settlement E. confluence settlement.
4. The feature running across the middle of the mapped area from N.W to S.E, on which most of the settlements are located, is a (an)
A. ridge B. hill C. escarpment D. knoll E. cuesta.
5. Which of these is NOT a likely reason why the only road on the mapped area runs along the elevated feature?
A. It was built to avoid the !ow, floodable region B. The road reduced to a minimum the cost of building bridges and culverts across the streams C. The major settlements are on the elevation and the road connects them D. The elevation is relatively a low one and so does not constitute an obstacle to road construction E. There is no other place through which the road could pass except on the elevation.
6. A ship’s radioed message on the high sea at 5.45 p.m was heard at Abidjan (50W) at 11.15 a.m on the same day. Find the position of the ship
A. 90°E B. 92° 30’E C. 95°E D. 97°30′ E E.100°E.
7. What feature would you associate with a rejuvenated river?
A. A waterfall B. A delta C. A meander D. Sand deposits E. A wide U-shaped valley.
8. Identify the shaded natural region in the diagram
A. Tropical monsoon B. Equatorial C. Hot desert D. Mediterranean E. Tropical savannah.
9. The intensity of the sun’s heat is not much in polar regions because
A. the earth is flat at the poles B. the atmosphere is thick at the poles C. the atmosphere is thin at the poles D. the angle of insolation is low E. the angle of insolation is high.
10. Which of the following best interprets the scale 1 cm represents 1km?
A. 1:50000
B 
C. 1:12 000
D. 1/80 000
E. 1: 100 000.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
11 Which of the following is a correct pair?
A. Glacier! Erratic boulder B. Desert/Cavern C. Limestone/Pass D. Mountain/Stalagmite E. River/Cut-off.
12 Which of the following rocks is composed of the skeletons of microscopic sea plants and animals?
A. Sandstone B. Slate C. Chalk D. Clay E. Granite.
13. Which of the following is the appropriate shape of the section from A to B?
14 Annual rainfall is low and erratic. The vegetation is scanty. Although temperature is generally high, yet the daily range of temperature is very high. Which of the following is the climatic type described above?
A. Monsoon B. Mediterranean C. British type D. Hot cool temperate continental E. Hot desert
15 Rain falls mainly during the warm summer months. Summer temperature rarely exceeds 18.3°C. Annual rainfall is often below 125cm. Which of these crops is most unlikely to do well in the area described above?
A. Wheat B. Cotton C. Oats D. Rice E. Rye.
16 Which of these industries is usually located at the source of its major raw materials?
A. Cement manufacturing B. Brewing C. Textile manufacturing D. Stone dressing E. Shoe manaufacturing.
17 Which one of the following states of Nigeria is a major cotton producer?
A. Kano B. Borno C. Bendel D. Bauchi E. Benue.
18 Which one of the following states of Nigeria is a major kolanut producer?
A. Rivers B. Ogun C. Kwara D. Bendel E. Plateau.
19 Nigeria’s new Federal Capital Territory shares boundaries with four states. What are these states?
A. Benue, Kwara, Niger and Kaduna B. Kano, Kaduna, Niger and Kwara C. Plateau, Kwara, Niger and Kaduna D. Gongola, Bauchi, Kwara and Niger E. Niger, Benue, Kwara and Kano.
20 Which are the three main export crops of Uganda?
1. Bananas 2. Coffee 3. Cotton 4. Groundnuts 5. Sugar 6. Cassava 7. Tobacco
A. 1 & 5 & 7
B. 2&3&7
C. 2&4&5
D1&6&7
E. 3&4&6.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
21 Explain the increasing importation of food to West African countries
A. Bad soils which cannot produce enough food B. Progressive neglect of food production C. Unfavourable climates for enough food production D. Too large populations which cannot be satisfied locally E. People’s love for imported foods.
22 Which of the following is the least important reason for promoting manufacturing industries by West African nations?
A. To reduce dependence on agriculture B. To earn more foreign exchange C. To raise the level of employment D. To increase productivity at the national level E. To produce locally everything needed.
23 Which of the geographical reasons below least supports the existence of ECOWAS?
A. The countries in the community are contiguous B. It has an internal market of about 160 million people C. The peoples are of the same racial group. D. The products are complementary E. The countries in the community share similar physical characteristics.
24. What can be inferred from the histogram ?
A. There was a steady growth of capital formation in the period B. Capital formation in the last two years exactly equalled those of all previous years combined C. At the end of the period, Nigeria had become self-sufficient D. Nigeria experienced serious economic problems during the period E. Nigeria is one of the richest countries in Africa.
25. Dodoma is to Tanzania as…….is to Nigeria
A. Lagos B. Abuja C. Port-Harcorut D. Ajaokuta E. Warn
26. What is the cause of the double rainfall maxima in southern Nigeria?
A. Land and sea breezes B. Nearness to the Atlantic Ocean C. Overhead sun at the Tropic of Cancer D. North and south movement of overhead sun E. Overhead sun on the equator.
27. Textile industries in Nigeria are characterized by the following features except one. Which is it?
A. Full automation B. Import substitution C. Labour intensive D. Market oriented E. Raw material oriented
28. The following is a description of a type of climate:
very cold winters (-34°C or colder), hot summers (about 210C); mean annual rainfall under 380mm, most of it occurring in summer’. To which of the following does the description relate?
A. Tropical continental B. Tropical monsoon C. Temperate western margin D. Temperate continental E. Temperate eastern margin.
29 Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of a glaciated area?
A. Hanging valleys B. Aretes C. Interlocking spurs D. U-shaped valleys F. Fjords
30 Which one of the following terms gives us the best general description of the relief of West Africa?
A. Swamps and lowlands B. Hills and mountains C. Scarp slopes and dip slopes D. Plains and plateaux E. Flood plains.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
31 Which of the following is the most important reason why the highest densities of cattle in West Africa are to be found in the Sudan and Sahel savannah zones?
A.The two zones are far from the coast B. The two zones have abundant water resources C. The two zones have abundant fodder resources D. The two zones are largely free of tsetse flies E. The two zones have moderate temperatures.
32 Which of the following countries has few resources and yet has developed industries tremendously?
A. United Kingdom B. Italy C. France D. Norway D. Switzerland.
33. Which among the following is a producer of coal?
A. Wankie (Zimbabwe) B. Ndola (Zambia) C. Nsutta (Ghana) D. Jos(Nigeria) E. Marampa (Sierra Leone).
34. From the diagram, Brazil’s contribution to the export of bananas is
A. 60% B.50% C. 30% D. 20% E. 10%.
35 Which of these is the least important advantage of the transcontinental railways in Europe and North America?
A. Easy evacuation of mineral products B. Political integration C. Easy evacuation of agricultural products D. Promotion of industrial activities E. Employment of labour.
36 Which of the following can be regarded as the back-bone of a modern industrial economy?
A. Cement manufacturing industry B. Ship-building industry C. Motor vehicle manufacturing industry D. Textile industry E. Iron and Steel industry.
37 A hinterland is
A. the central part of a country B. an area which is far from the coast C. a landlocked country D. an area surrounding a city E. the area which is served by a port.
38. ‘Very large in area but very low in population’. Which of the following countries fits this description best?
A. Lesotho B. Tunisia C. Nigeria D. Zaire E. Burundi.
39. The industrial economy of South Africa is NOT based on one of the following factors:
A. Abundant coal resources B. Abundant crude petroleum resources C. Abundant agricultural resources D. Abundant cheap labour E. Large-scale investment by such countries as West Germany, the U.S.A and United Kingdom.
40. Volcanoes are considered a natural resource because of all but one of the following reasons
A. Mountainous landscapes of volcanic origin have much scenic beauty B. Most volcanic rocks yield fertile soils C. Intrusive volcanoes sometimes contain economic minerals D. Volcanic explosions help to control world population E. Most volcanic rocks are good sources of structural materials like building stones.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
41. Which of these sets best arranges these settlement types in ascending order in terms of their complexity of functions?
A. Hamlet, village, town, city, metropolis B. Village, hamlet, city, town, metropolis C.Metropolis, town, city, village, hamlet, D. Town, hamlet, village, city, metropolis E. Metropolis, city, town, village, hamlet.
42. The great agricultural regions of the world include all but one of these.
A. The Corn Belt of USA B. The Pampas of Argentina C. The Black Soils Region of Ukraine D. The High Veldt of South Africa E. The Sahel of West Africa.
43. Which of these sea routes carries the heaviest traffic?
A. The North Atlantic route between Europe and North America B. The Suez Canal route between Europe and Asia C. The Cape route between Europe and Asia D. The Panama Canal route between Europe and Asia E. The Atlantic route between North America and West Africa.
44. The Nigerian petroleum refineries are located at one of the following pairs of towns?
A. Lagos and Port-Harcourt B. Port-Harcourt and Calabar C. Benin and Warri D. Calabar and Kaduna E. Port-Harcourt and Warn.
45. Which of these statements is true of Africa?
A. Africa is the fourth largest continent in the world B. Africa is the least urbanized continent C. Tropical Africa is so warm that nowhere within it can you find snow or ice D. There are no more than ten land-locked countries in Africa E. Africa produces nearly all the world’s hard-wood timber.
46. Nigeria’s proposed iron and steel industry based on the direct reduction method would be located at
A. Oshogbo B. Port-Harcourt C. Enugu D. Warn.
47. Vegetables are usually grown near markets or their places of consumption because
A. they are easily perishable B. they are not susceptible to attack from pests C. they are meant to be eaten mainly by
town dwellers D. they can withstand heat for a long time E. they are bulky and weight gaining in transit.
48. Industries can be classified as either light or heavy. Which of the following groups of industries can be classified as light?
A. Textile, clothing, footwear and printing B. Iron and steel, cement and sugar C. Non-metallic products and chemicals D. Tobacco, chemicals and automobiles E. Petroleum, sugar and block-making.
49. The climatic data shown below are for a representative station in one of the following climatic types:
A. Tropical wet climate B. Mediterranean climate or sub-tropical dry summer C. Tropical wet and dry climate or savannah D. Temperate oceanic climate E. Sub-tropical steppe (semi-desert) climate.
50. Which one of the areas shaded on the world map above is NOT an area of high population?
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 E. 5
JAMB 1980 Past Questions Geography ANSWERS 1980
1.E 2.D 3.E 4.E 5.E 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.E 11.E 12.C 13.D 14.E 15.A 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.B 21.B 22.E 23.E 24.B 25.B 26.E 27.A 28.D 29.C 30.D 31.D 32.A 33.A 34.C 35.E 36.E 37.B 38.D 39.B 40.D 41.A 42.E 43.A 44.E 45.B 46.D 47.A 48.A 49.C 50.B
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Economics
1. If the government is interested in raising the highest revenue from a tax system, then for any two commodities
A. it is better to tax one whose demand is more elastic B. it is better to tax one whose demand is more inelastic C. revenue will be the same from both commodities D. it is not possible to say which will yield higher revenue
E. government cannot make much revenue from taxing commodities
2. Production in economics occurs when
A. a commodity or service is sold B. utility is created or added C. a commodity is manufactured D. raw materials are produced or extracted from mines E. all of these
3. From an economic point of view, an activity does not have a cost when
A. someone else pays for it B. the returns are greater than costs C. the choice involves giving up nothing D. the government pays for it E. it is paid for from a gift
4. Which would you NOT consider an agro-based industry in Nigeria?
A. A dairy enterprise producing milk B. A yam flour mill C. A poultry industry D. A fertilizer plant E. None of the above
5. Price control indicates the following
A. price is fixed at equilibrium level B. price is fixed above equilibrium level
C. price is not fixed but is determined by supply and demand D. price is fixed below equilibrium level E. none of the above
6. The terms of trade are said to be favourable only if
A. value of total exports equals value of total imports B. value of merchandise exports is greater than value of merchandise imports C. there are no balance of payments problems
D. there is an increase in the value of a unit of expert in terms of imports E. foreign exchange reserves do not change
7. Which is the dominant form of tax in Nigeria?
A. Direct tax B. Indirect tax C. Inheritance tax D. Personal income tax E. Value added tax
8. Which is NOT a function of Central Banks in West Africa? A. Dealing in foreign exchange B. Issuing of currencies C. Accepting deposits from private customers D. Acting as government bank E. Acting as bankers’ bank
9. Which is NOT a cause of high population growth in Nigeria?
A. Family planning Unit of Nigeria B. Improved medical facilities C. Reduction in death rate D. improve hygiene E. Increased birth rate
10. In the figure below we can describe the demand, as
A. perfectly elastic B. having unit elasticity C. perfectly inelastic D. fairly elastic E. all of the above
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
11. Commercial banks can create money in the following ways
A. by issuing coins and paper money B. by borrowing money from Banks abroad C. by receiving deposits from Individuals D. by printing money on the instructions of the Central Bank E. none of the above
12. Utility of a commodity means
A. its usefulness B. power to satisfy a want C. price of the commodity D. satisfaction derived from the production of a commodity E. its adaptability.
13. International trade arises because
A. one country has more abundant resources than the other country B. one country has the technology to produce the commodity whilst the other has not C. one country has the maximum comparative advantage or minimum comparative disadvantage in the production of a commodity over the other country D. one country has more manpower to produce the commodity than the other country E. all of the above.
14. By balance of visible trade we mean
A. Import and export of goods B. import and export of services C. balance of current account in the balance of payments D. balance of capital account in the balance of payments E. all of these
15. Nigeria earns the major part of her foreign exchange from the export of
A. manpower to other countries B. crude oil C. petroleum products D. groundnut and cotton E. palm oil and coal.
16. In the above diagram supply and demand conditions of sugar in a Nigerian market are given. An indirect tax of 10 kobo per kg is imposed, Y it will be paid
A. wholly by the supplier B. wholly by the consumer C. partly by the supplier and partly by the consumer D. wholly by the middlemen E. partly by stockholder and partly by consumer
17. Which would you NOT consider an advantage of a one-man business?
A. Freedom of action B. Limited liability C. Quick decision making D. Personal contact with customers E. None of the above
18. The Budget of Nigeria will be in deficit if
A. revenue expenditure exceeds the revenue receipts B. capital expenditure exceeds the capital receipts C. revenue and capital expenditure exceed revenue and capital receipts D. the government is spending more than its income E. an of the above
19. An economic problem arises when
A. manufactured goods are in short supply B. money is in short supply C. buyers are many D. sellers are few E. scarcity and choice are Involved
20. By subsistence production we mean
A. goods and services are produced for consumption only B. goods and services are sold to others C. raw materials are produced In the country D. goods and services are produced for the market E. none of these
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
21. Division of labour means that
A. the labour is divided Into different sections B. the work Is divided into different parts to be completed by each labour C. production is completed by the different departments of a factory D. commodities are produced at different times by a single labourer E. the labour forces in the country Is not united
22. A limited liability company Is owned by
A. an individual B. two or more partners C. shareholders D. government E. a bank
23. If the price of a commodity falls and the quantity purchased of It does not rise, the commodity can be described as
A. normal B. abnormal C. inferior D. superior E. scarce.
24. Mr. A. earns N300 and pays N15 in tax. Mr. B. earns N100 and pays N6 in tax. This tax system can be described as
A. proportion tax B. progressive tax C. competitive tax D. excise tax E. regressive tax
25. Which sector can you say is growing the fastest in the Nigerian economy?
A. Agriculture B. Industry C. Education D. Transport E. Labour
26. Which is NOT a method of raising capital funds In Nigeria?
A. Borrowing from abroad B. Internal borrowing C. Nigerianization of foreign companies D. Gifts from abroad E. Selling government bonds
27. If a firm doubles its output and its costs increase by 60%, the firm is experiencing
A. increasing costs B. economies of scale C. decreasing returns D. decreasing costs E. none of the above
28. The fundamental problem of economics is
A. money B. poverty C. unemployment D. the scarcity of resources relative to wants E. inflation
29. If you do not have to give up anything in order to get a particular thing, then its opportunity cost is
A. zero B. not measurable C. its price in money D. infinite E. equal to one
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
30. Which of the following is the standard concept for measuring and analyzing population growth?
A. The rate of natural increase B. The net migration rate C. The rate of population increase D. The fertility rate E. All of the above
31. When we draw a market demand curve, we
A. ignore tastes, incomes and other prices B. assume that tastes, incomes and other prices do not matter C. assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices change in the same direction as prices D. assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices remain constant E. both (A) and (B) above
32. Capital earns income because
A. it is productive B. it is expensive C, it is always cheaper to substitute capital for labour D. it is technically more efficient than labour E. both (A) and (B) above
33. In a free-market economy, the rationing of scarce goods is done principally by
A. the government B. business organizations C. the price mechanism D. consumers E. both (A) and (B) above
34. A disadvantage of the corporate form of business is the
A. risk of the owners of loss of personal effects if the business should fail B. ability of the corporation to raise financial resources C. limited life span of the corporation D. problems presented by separation of ownership from control E. none of the above
35. The value of money depends primarily on
A. the gold backing of the currency B. the gold backing of both-currency and deposits C. the general price level D. government decree that it is legal tender E. none of the above
36. A commercial bank is able to create money
A. by printing it B. by maintaining reserves C. by creating a demand deposit as it gives a new loan D. by issuing cheque to depositors E. by borrowing from the Central Bank
37. Which one of the following is NOT one of the balance of payments entries?
A. The current account B. Foreign reserves C. Import and export duties D. Short-term capital E. Long-term capital
38. Which of the following taxes appear generally progressive in nature?
A. Sales taxes B. The personal income tax C. Property taxes D. Corporation taxes E. None of the above
39. In a subsistence economy
A. there is no shortage of goods and services B. the State is the sole owner of resources C. production is largely oriented towards consumption In the rural sector D. there is no exchange of goods and services E. women predominate in all economic activities
40. Which of the following is a correct definition of equilibrium price?
A. A price which covers production cost B. A price which maximizes entrepreneur’s profits C. A price at which the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied D. A price at which a competitive firm is at equilibrium E. A price which stabilizes farmers’ income
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
41. In a normal (typical) demand schedule, the quantity demanded is
A. directly related to price B. inversely related to price C. independent of price D. proportionally related to supply E. solely dependent on haggling skill.
42. Division of labour is limited by the
A. availability of raw materials B. size of the labour force C. size of the firm D. absolute size of a country’s population E. per capital income and number of potential buyers.
43. In a limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by
A. shareholders debentures B. company executives C. ordinary shareholders D. preference shareholders E. board of directors.
44. Which of the following is NOT a function of Nigerian commercial banks?
A. Acceptance of deposits B. Lending of money C. Investment in securities and businesses D. Issue of currency E. Selling and buying of travellers cheque
45. In Nigeria, cheque are not money because
A. their use is confined to business houses B. there are no banks in rural areas C. they are not legal tender D. they are not generally acceptable as a medium of exchange E. most Nigerians cannot identify them.
46. Indicate which of the following are invisible trade items in a country’s balance of payments
A. Oil exports and imports B. Gold and foreign reserves C. Foreign investments D. Dividends and profits E. Expenditure on shipping and tourism.
47. Which of the following is NOT a measure for controlling inflation?
A. Reduction in money supply B. Wage restraint and wage freeze C. Reduction in taxes and increase in government spending D. Price control E. Credit restriction
48. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of changes in supply?
A. Changes in the cost of production B. Technical progress C. Weather D. Changes in the number of producers E. Changes in the number of buyers
49. The marginal physical product of labour is
A. the output of labour unaided by machinery B. the extra revenue from the output of one additional worker C. the difference in the output of two workers D. additional output achieved when one extra worker is added to fixed account of other factors E. none of the above
50. One of the disadvantages of division of labour is that
A. there is a saving of time B. It results in workers acquiring greater skill at their jobs C. there is a greater risk of unemployment D. it makes possible the use of machinery E. it makes the worker less fatigued by his work.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions ANSWERS
1.B 4 E 7.A 10. D 13.E 16. B 19.E 22.C 25.C 28.D 31.D 34.D 37.B 40. C 43.C 46. E 49.D
2.E 5.D 8.C 11. E 14.A 17. B 20.A 23.C 26.C 29.A 32.A 35.C 38.B 41. B 44.D 47. C 50.C
3.C 6.D 9.A 12. B 15.B 18. D 21.B 24.E 27.B 30.E 33.C 36.C 39.C 42. E 45.C 48. E
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Government
1. An electoral district is
A. a polling booth B. a constituency C. a ward D. a local government area E. a subdivision of the State.
2. Pressure groups’ politics are usually directed to
A. limited or sectoral goals B. national objectives C. the interests of the Nigerian Medical Association D. the goals of the Nigerian Union of Teachers E. none of the above.
3. The principle of separation of powers ensures
A. the erosion of executive power B. that the Legislature is supreme C. the preservation of the fundamental liberties of the citizens D. that all the branches of government have equal powers and functions E. that the rights of the ethnic minorities are safeguarded.
4. A democratic system of government is
A. an efficient government B. a mass government on behalf of the people C. a government that grants absolute freedom to all the citizens D. a patriotic government E. a government of the people, by the people and for the people.
5. When we talk about the constitution of any given country, we mean
A. the general body of rules and principles controlling the distribution of governmental power B. a guide book containing the functions of Trade Union movements C. a document embodying rules and principles regulating the exercise of governmental power D. a document defining the relations between the rulers and the ruled E. A, C, and D. above.
6. The concept of Indirect Rule in Nigeria is usually associated with
A. Sir George T. Goldie B. Sir Donald Cameron C. Major Claude Macdonald D. Lord Lugard E. SirArthur Richards.
7. In a parliamentary system of government, a bill is almost certain to be passed after the
A. second reading B. third reading C. fourth reading D. fifth reading E. none of the above.
8. A good example of a country which operates a cabinet system of government is
A. France B. the United Kingdom C. the U.S.A. D. the Soviet Union E. none of the above.
9. A constitution is a document
A. drafted by the Constituent Assembly B. which states in written form the basic laws governing a country C. which spells out how the president is to be elected D. which forms the basis upon which a government rules a given state. E. which states that the central government is superior to state government.
10. The legislative arm of a government is always
A. the parliament B. the cabinet C. the highest organ of government D. the body that makes laws. E. the body that interprets laws.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Government
11. The Executive is the body that
A. executes armed robbers B. interprets laws C. implements laws D. enacts laws E. none of the above.
12. The principle of separation of powers implies that
A. the Executive is supreme B. the Executive is powerless C. power is shared by different but co-ordinate organs in the state D. the rule of law obtains E. power is shared by competing departments in the state.
13. The term ‘rule of law’ is applicable only
A. in Western-type democracies B. in Socialist countries C. in developing countries D. in states where laws are supreme E. if the regime is not military.
14. A Presidential system of government is one
A. where the Head of State possesses real power B. where the principle of separation of powers is inapplicable. C. which provides for a ceremonial Head of State D. in which the president is not accountable to anyone E. in which the parliament cannot remove the president from office before the expiration of his term of office.
15. Fundamental Human Rights of citizens are provided for in
A. the United Nations Charter B. the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation C. the 0. A. U. Charter D. Amnesty International Edict E. the constitution of states.
16. It is the duty of every citizen
A. to go to school B. to participate in the Operation Feed the Nation scheme C. to perform his civic responsibilities D. not to jump queues E. to sing the national anthem every day.
17. A one-party state is a state where
A. there are no general elections B. the president cannot be opposed C. there is complete agreement on issues among party members D. the ruling party is the only legal one E. all the above.
18. The term ‘franchise refers to
A. French-speaking people B. property owners C. the right to choose representatives to the Legislature D. the educated electorate E. the voting card.
19. The doctrine ‘The Dual Mandate’ was put forward to justify
A. apartheid in South Africa B. the Neo colonialism C.the introduction of Islam in Africa D. Slavery E. colonialism.
20. Delegated legislation
A. means sharing responsibility between central and local government on a fifty-fifty basis B. decentralizes responsibility for law making subject to agreed controls from the centre C. as permitted, is almost impossible to control E. decentralizes problems without providing suitable solutions.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Government
21. The main role of pressure groups is to
A. influence the legislature to make decision favourable to them B. inject emotion and selfish debates C. influence the public D. use all means, including bribery, to achieve their objectives E. assist selected multinational corporations in fulfilling their objectives.
22. Within a democracy, citizens
A. can use all and any means to overthrow an offensive government B. have the right and duty to be involved in the political process C. have the duty to eliminate their political opponents D. are advised to be eternally vigilant E. have the positive right to prevent military coups from taking place.
23. The concept of Parliamentary Government in Britain is
A. turning into prime ministerial and government whitehall in practice B. now a complete myth C. in fact identical with the presidential system in the U.S.A. D. supported by a tiny segment of the population E. rejected by the aristocracy of that country.
24. The basic element of the United States Constitution is that
A. it presupposes and relies upon the existence of a highly educated and very articulate electorate B. presidents like Richard Nixon cannot get away with gross abuse of power C. it guarantees the enjoyment of equal rights and protection by every citizen D. murderers who are found guilty by law courts are executed on electric chairs E. it embodies the concept of separation of powers.
25. Military coups are a common feature of many African countries. Which of the following pairs of West African
countries have not experienced a military coup?
A. Mali, Cameroon B. Gambia, Liberia C. Togo, Libya D. Benin, Ethiopia E. Upper Volta, Ghana.
26. Which of the following constitutes the political sovereign in a democracy?
A. The Executive B. The Judiciary C. The press D. The Legislature E. The Electorate.
27. The principle of the ‘Separation of Powers’ in the new constitution of Nigeria is different from that of the U.S.A. because
A. traditional rulers can play a dominant role B. there are two houses of the National Assembly C. the
president is above the law D. the vice president is not the president of the Senate E. the Senate has the power of veto.
28. The determination of issues before the courts in accordance with the body of rules backed by the organized force
of community refers essentially to
A. judicial revision B. human rights C. the rule of law D. habeas corpus E. certiorari.
29. The five political parties recognized by the Nigerian Federal Electoral Commission (FEDECO) for the 1979 elections were
A. UPN, GNPP, PRP and NPC B. GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and NAP C. PRP, UPN, MOP, GNPP and NPP D. NPN, NPP, UPN, PRP and GNPP E. NPP, PRP, GNPP, NPN and NEPU.
30. The common colonial institutions in British West Africa included
A. the West African Research Council and Gambian Police Force B. the West African Universities Commission and West African Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board C. the West African Currency Board and the West African Airways Corporation D. the West African Teacher’s Association and West African Labour Union E. none of the above.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Government
31. An ideology is essentially A. a guide to direct political action B. a manual for revolution C. a curse on political actors
D. a non-political concept E. negative in connotation.
32. In all countries, the role of law making and law interpretation revolve respectively on
A. the Executive and Judiciary B. the Judiciary and Legislature C. the Judiciary and Executive D. the Legislature and Judiciary E. the Legislature and Executive.
33. The (former) Northern Region of Nigeria became internally self governing in
A. 1956 B. 1957 C. 1958 D. 1959 E 1960.
34. The Convention Peoples Party was a popular political party in
A. Sierra Leone B. Senegal C. Ivory Coast D. Ghana E. Nigeria.
35. Which of the following political movements had the greatest impact on Nigerian nationalists before the 1950s
A. Universal Negro improvement Association B. The African Peoples Union C. National Congress of British West Africa D. The Pan-African Congress E. None of the above.
36. The abolition of the ‘indiginat’ was effected in French colonies in
A. 1943 B. 1944 C. 1946 D. 1956 E. 1958.
37. The ratification of the appointment of an Emir in the pre-colonial Fulani society was done by the
A. Galadima B. the Emir of Sokoto C. the Emir of Gwandu D. Uthman Dan Fodio E. B or C above.
38. Sekou Toure is famous for having said
A. that he preferred independence with difficulty than heavy colonial rule B. ‘no’ to Gaulle’s idea of a French Community and opting instead for immediate independence for Guinea C. ‘seek ye first the political kingdom and all else will follow, given the right combination of leadership and national ideology’ D. that ‘power tends to corrupt and absolute power corrupts absolutely’.
39. Nationalist movements in West Africa
A. began earlier in the French colonies than in the British ones B. were given all necessary support by the colonial governors who were liberal at heart C. were assisted by economic discontent and led by indigenous individuals educated in Europe and North America. D. were in fact encouraged and later led by traditional rulers who had the much-needed fore sight and courage. E. were parochial and did not really influence one another.
40. The French policy of Assimilation
A enabled Europeans to assimilate and come to terms, with African cultural values B. produced radical African leaders who were anxious to terminate cordial relationships with France C. was aimed at converting Africans into French men D. was the same in theory as the British policy of Indirect Rule E. was a device to transfer French technology to Africa.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Government
41. The crisis in the… contributed to the breakdown of the McPherson Constitution
A. Action Group B. National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon’s C. Northern Elements Progressive Union D. Northern People’s Congress. E. United Middle Belt Congress
42. It was through the activities of …. that the Niger area became a British sphere of influence A. Lord Lugard B. the
United Africa Company C Herbert Macauley D. the Royal Niger Company E. Ajayi Crowther.
43. The 1976 Local government reforms provide for a …. term of office A. 4-year B. 5-year C. 2-year D. permanent E. 3-year.
44. Under the regulations for the conduct of the 1979 elections in Nigeria a candidate could be declared ineligible
if A. he did not pay his tax and when due B. he did not pay his tax annually C. he did not pay his Federal Tax E. none of the above.
45. The major problem that confront public corporations in Nigeria include
A. management problems, corruption and ethnic loyalty B. excessive government directives and lack of funds C. red tape and manpower shortage D. lack of public patronage and excessive competition from the private sector E. A, Band C.
46. The highest court in Nigeria is called the
A. Federal Court of Appeal B. High Court C. Upper Area Court D. Supreme Court E. Sharia Court of Appeal.
47. The Government of Nigeria from 1960 to l964 was formed by the
A. NCNC (National Council of Nigeria Citizens) B. NPC (Northern People’s Congress) C. Action Group D. NCNC/NEPU (Northern Elements Progressive Union) alliance E. B and D above.
48. The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) came into being
A. through the combined efforts of Gambia, Ivory Coast and Liberia B. to promote economic growth and development through free and expanded trade between its members C. to enable the sixteen member states surrender their sovereignties to supranational regional community D. to help the poorest countries in the region catch up with the richer ones E. to establish mutual
defence and security arrangements between members.
49. Which of the following bodies is the most representative organ of the United Nations Organisation?
A. The Security Council B. The Trusteeship Council C. The General Assembly D. The International Court of Justice E. The Economicand Social council.
50. Which of the following bodies in Nigeria performs the function of an Ombudsman?
A. The public Service Commission B. The National Economic planning Commission C. The National Security Organisation D. The National Complaints Commission E. The Civil Service Commission.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Government ANSWERS
1. B 4. E 7. B 10. D 13. D 16 C 19. E 22. B 25. E 28. E 31. A 34.0 37. E 40. C 43. E 46. D 49. C
2. A 5. E 8. B 11. C 14.A 17. D 20 B 23.A 26. E 29. D 32. D 35.0 38. B 41. B 44.A 47. E 50.A
3. C 6. D 9. D 12. C 15. E 18. C 21.A 24. B 27. D 30. C 33. D 36.0 39. C 42. D 45. E 48. B
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Physics
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Chemistry
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
JAMB 1980 Past Questions for Biology
1. In Mucor or Rhizopus, carbohydrate is absorbed in the form of
A. starch B. sucrose C. glucose D. glycogen E. arabinose
2. One of the following statements is NOT true of spirogyra
A. It is a simple multicellular plant B. During conjugation, its gametes, which are structurally and physiologically similar, fuse to form a zygote. C. It possesses spiral chloroplast which enables the plant to photosynthesize. D. Its cells are protected externally by a layer of mucilage E. There are pyrenoids along the chloroplast.
3. Which of the following spreads malaria in Nigeria?
A. Anopheles mosquito B. Culex mosquito C. Aedes mosquito D. Tsetse fly E. House fly.
4. The vacuole of a plant cell is
A. a large empty space B. smaller than that of an animal cell C. filled with air D. an ordinary vacuum E surrounded by a membrane.
5. Which one of the following animals is NEVER a secondary host of tapeworms?
A. Cow B. Fish C. Pig D. Man E. Dog
6. Some of the features of an animal are scales, teeth, nares and backbones. The animal is likely to be a
A. toad B. bird C. lizard D. rat E. bat.
7. Milk can be pasteurized by
A. the addition of common salt B. boiling for one hour C. heating to 75°C for 20 minutes D. the addition of vinegar E. heating to 100°C for 12 hours.
8. Human beings require vitamins in their diet because vitamins
A. contain carbohydrates and fats B. prevent kwashiorkor C. stimulate the alimentary canal D. digest proteins in the body E. influence many important chemical processes in the body.
9. Which of the following organs produces bile?
A. Gall bladder B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver E. Stomach
10. The organ through which food and oxygen are supplied to the human embryo and which also prevents harmful materials from reaching the embryo, is
A. arteris B. uterus C. placenta D. umbilical cord E. fallopian tube
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
11. A true fruit is formed from
A. a fertilized ovary and other floral parts B. a fertilized ovary C. a fertilized ovary and calyx D. a fertilized ovary and fleshy receptacle E. an unfertilized ovary and other floral parts.
12. Water is required for seed germination to take place because it
A. activates the enzymes B. softens the testa C. liberates energy for growth D. permits radical growth E. allows oxygen to diffuse into the seed.
13. A fresh kolanut weighing ig was put into salt solution. After 3 hours the kolanut weighed 1.2g. This simple experiment demonstrates that
A. the salt solution is more concentrated than the cell sap of the kolanut B. the cell sap of the kolanut is more concentrated than the salt solution C. the salt solution has the same concentration as the cell sap of the kolanut D. kolanut cells can multiply in water E. the kolanut lost some water moleéules to the salt solution.
14. The joint between the atlas and axis vertebrate allows for
A. rotary movements only B. up and down or nodding movement only C. rotatory and nodding movements D. no movement at all E. slight movement.
15. Which of the following food substances is digested in the stomach?
A. Carbohydrates B. Fats and Oils C. Fats and Proteins D. Proteins E. Carbohydrates and Fats.
16. The conversion of excess amino acids into urea occurs in the
A. kidney B. pancreas C. villi D. liver E. spleen
17. In Fig. 1 the structure which prevents friction between the bones is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D 4 E
18. In testing for glucose, the necessary reagent and the condition under which the reagent reacts best are
A. Fehling’s reagent in the cold b. B. Million’s reagent, boiled C. Fehling’s reagent in acid medium; heated D. iodine solution, boiled E. Fehling’s reagent in neutral or alkaline medium, boiled.
Use Fig. 2 above to answer questions 19 to 20
19. Why is the part labelled 5 thicker than 6?
A. 5 is the ventricle and 6 the right ventricle B. 6 is the left ventricle and 5 the right ventricle C. 5 receives blood from the left auricle and 6 from the right D. 5 pumps blood round the body and 6 pumps blood only into the lungs E. 5 deals
with oxygenated blood and 6 deoxygenated blood.
20. Which of the labelled parts is the vena caval opening?
A.1 B. 2. C 3. D. 4 E.9
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
21. For pollination and fruit formation, the essential part(s) of the flower should be the
A. corolla B. ovary C. pistil (gynaccium) D. ovules E. receptacle
22. Which one of the following parts of the mammalian body is most closely associated with the production of urine?
A. Malpighian capsule B. Urinary bladder C. Ureter D. Vas deferens E. Urethra
Use Fig. 3 above to answer questions 23 and 24
23. The testa
A. is normally absent B. is included in the part numbered(1) C. is fused with the part numbered(3) D. is the part numbered (1) E. surrounds the parts numbered(4) and (5).
24. Reserved food material is
A. stored in the parts numbered (2) and (3) B. stored in the part numbered (3) only C. stored in the parts numbered (4) and (5)
D. not concentrated in any particular part E. found in all the parts except (1).
25. A potometer is used to determine the rate at which a shoot
A. respires B. sucks air bubbles C. loses weight D. absorbs water E. transpires.
26. A green plant growing in a compost pit is feeding
A. horizoically B. parasitically C. saprophytically D holophytically E. in none of the above ways.
27. The part of the cell solely responsible for respiration is the
A. nucleus B. nucleolus C. mitochondria D. golgi apparatus E. endoplasmic reticulum.
28. In anaerobic respiration, glucose is converted to one of the following
A. Carbon dioxide and water B. Carbon dioxide only C. Carbon dioxide and alcohol D. Alcohol and water E. Water and acetic acid.
29. During excretion of urea, there is also a corresponding re-absorption of water into the blood stream. This re-absorption takes place in the
A. uriniferous tubes B. Bowman’s capsule C. glomerulus D. malpighian capsule E. renal artery.
30. If the bark and phloem tissues of a woody shoot peeled off by ringing, the whole plant will eventually die because
A. water does not reach the leaves B. water and salts remain below the ringed portion C. there is a withdrawal of water from the root by soil D. manufactured food does not reach the roots E. the roots store too much water.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
31. The filaments of Spirogyra were put into equal volume of sugar solutions X and Y. After 5 minutes, filaments from solution X had their contents rounded up while those from Y were unaffected. The experiment shows that
A. solution X was stronger than Y B. solution Y was stronger than X C. Spirogyra used up the sugar in solution X D. solution X is good for stimulating sexual reproduction in Spirogyra E. solution Y was less contaminated than X.
32. Which part of the human brain is concerned with reflexes controlling the rate of heart beat and breathing?
A. Medulla B. Cerebrum C. Cerebellum D. Pineal body E. Olfactory lobe.
33. Which of the following hormones is produced during fright or when agitated?
A. Insulin B. Adrenalin C. Thyroxine D. Pituitary E. Progesterone.
34. The following are connected with the movement of a reflex action. (1) Central nervous system (2) Muscle (3) Skin (4) Sensory nerve (5) Motor nerve. Which of the following sequences indicates a correct path?
A.12-3-4-5 B. 2-1-4-5-3 C. 3-4-1-2-5 D. 4 -1-5-2-3 E. 3-4-1-5-2.
35. The lime water in container C turned milky because
A. carbon dioxide was produced by plant B during respiration. B. carbon dioxide entered C through the filter pump C. oxygen reacts with lime water to produce milkiness D. soda lime did not remove carb dioxide from air. E. the delivery tubes were not well connected.
36. Biconcave lenses are used in the correction of an eye defect called
A. myopia B. colour blindness C. old age D. hypermetropia E. weakening of ciliary musc
37. The centre which controls respiratory activities in the mammalian brain is the
A. cerebrum B. olfactory lobes C. pituitary organ D. cerebellum E. medulla.
38. A student trying to find out the order in which organisms appear on a cleared plot is studying one of the following.
A. Ecosystem B. Food chain C. Food D. Succession E. Community
39. An organism X lives entirely on the waste products Light of another organism Y. in this association X is
A. symbiont B. commensal C. saprophyte D. parasite E. epiphyte
40. The tips of some rice seedlings were cut off while some were left intact. Both were covered with a container which had only one small hole to allow light through. After twenty-four hours it was observed that
A. the cut tips bent away from light B. the cut tips bent towards source of light C. the intact tips bent away from the light D. the intact tips bent towards light E. both tips bent away from light.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
41. If three 30cm lengths of glass tubes are tightly packed with clay, sand and loamy soils respectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week, the level of water will be
A. lowest in the tube with clay B. the same in all the tubes C. lowest in the tube with sandy soil D. highest
in the tube with loamy soil E. lowest in the tube with sandy Soil.
42. If a baby is a female, her mother’s ovum must have been fertilized by sperm carrying the chromosome
A. X B. XY C . XX D. YY E. Y
43. Leguminous plants, e.g. Mucana, are usually planted in cultivated farmlands because they
A. enrich the soil with phosphates B. provide animals with food C. enrich the soil with organic nitrogen D. protect the soil from being overheated E. protect the micro organisms in the soil.
44. During thunderstorms, the energy of lightning discharged causes
A. oxygen and nitrogen to combine B. more carbon dioxide to be formed C. nitrites to be converted to nitrates D. nitrates to be converted to nitrogen E. death.
45. A few grams of dried soil were first heated until red hot, then further heated until no more smoke was released.
This experiment was to determine the
A. amount of water in soil B. percentage of water in soil C. presence of humus in soil D. resistance of laterites to heat E. release of smoke from the soil.
46. Oxygen from the atmosphere reaches the mammalian bloodstream through one of the paths indicated below.
Indicate the correct path. a= mouth, b= trachea, c= bronchiole, d= nostril, e= bronchus, f= alveoli
A. a->b->e->f- >d B. b->d->f>e->c C. d->b->e->c->f D. b->a->f->e->c E. f->a->e->d->c.
47. Below are some groups of diseases, which group of diseases is caused by bacteria?
A. Tuberculosis, small pox
B. Gonorrhoea, measles C. Tuberculosis, polio D. Sleeping sickness, measles E. Syphilis, gonorrhoea
48. A mosquito which produces eggs which float, and whose larvae lie horizontal to the water surface, also rests at
an angle on a vertical surface. This type of mosquito is
A. Aedes B. Anopheles. C. Culex D. Tiger mosquito E. None of the above.
49. The amount of water loss from a leaf can be detected using
A. lime -water B. red litmus paper C. blue litmus paper D. blue cobalt chloride paper E. Pink cobalt chloride paper.
50. In animals, cilia, flagella, pseudopodia, and chaetae, can be used for
A. reproduction B. fighting enemies C. attachment to plants D. locomotion E. locating sensation.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions Biology ANSWERS
1.C 4.E 7.C 10.C 13.B 16.D 19.D 22.A 25.E 28.C 31.A 34.E 37.E 40.D 43.C 46.C 49.D
2.A 5.D 8.E 11.B 14.C 17.B 20.C 23.B 26.D 29.A 32.A 35.A 38.D 41.E 44.A 47.E 50.D
3.A 6.C 9.D 12.A 15.C 18.E 21.C 24.A 27.C 30.D 33.B 36.A 39.B 42.A 45.C 48.B
Mathematics
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
English
COMPREHENSION:
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
A.
The great herald of things to come was Ezekiel, not only in the sense that he predicted the future, but also because, in the manner and content of his prophetic ministry, he foreshadowed many of the important religious developments which were characteristic of the age after the Exile. He, rather than Ezra, was the founder of Judaism. He not only pointed forward; but as we shall see; he represented some of the great elements in Israel’s religious past.
The book which bears his name is outwardly impressive in its orderliness and symmetry and in the careful chronological arrangement of its contents. It purports to present the record of prophecies uttered in the Babylonian Exile between 593 and 571 B.C.; and for long this was not seriously questioned. Even when other prophetic books had been dissected and assigned to sundry authors and editors, this book continued to be regarded by most scholars as having come in its entirety from Ezekiel. Then came a period in which many extreme theories were advanced, assigning much of it to other. hands, or presupposing complicated processes of editorial revision, or dating the book to a period much later than the Babylonian Exile, or maintaining that Ezekiel’s ministry was not exercised in Babylonia but in Palestine, or at least was begun there. Such theories have been subjected to damaging criticism and are now somewhat discredited. The account of Ezekiel’s ministry and teaching is based on the view that he lived and worked among the exiles in babylonia, at the period indicated, and that the bulk of the material in the book comes from him, though, like other prophetic collections, it owes much in its compilation, arrangement and transmission to prophetic disciples.
1. Ezekiel was a great herald of thing to come because
A. he was a prophet B. he preached about events which were to characterize the period after the exile C. God showed him what was going to happen after the exile D. he ran a prophetic ministry E. God was With him.
2. In his work, Ezekiel
A. was friendly with Ezra B. founded Judaism in conjunction with Ezra C. had a large religious
following D. forged a link between the past and the future E. demonstrated that he was a man of God.
3. By and large critics of Ezekiel and his work were
A. successful B. ungodly C. unsuccessful D. jealous E. angered by his acceptance.
4. When other prophetic books were discredit, Ezekiel’s book was accepted because
A. the people loved him B. the other prophetic writers were not as original C. the critics were biased in their judgement D. he was a great prophet E. his work was convincingly documented.
5. The account of Ezekiel’s ministry was
A. compiled with the collaboration of others B. his and his alone C. shared by many writers D. partly composed by him and partly by Ezra E. produced as a result of God’s inspiration.
B.
Although our aim is to nurture healthy children, Nigerian children are still subjected to severe physical, social and mental stress as they develop. So, far our interest and activities have been to ensure their physical well-being through the reduction of the high mortality and morbidity rates, still inadequate as this may be. But we need to examine from time to time the other needs of the Nigerian child which will ensure a totally health development.
We are split between two cultures our traditional and the Western, a relic of our colonial past. This also affects our child-bearing practices. Therefore, these practices must have a very important bearing on how the child prepare for our world of today so that he fits into our disturbed cultural milieu. Different styles of child-rearing and education can produce different personalities in terms of motivation, aggressiveness, achievement and the integration of the individual into the community socially and culturally. It is important that, while we struggle with the visible organic diseases, we fix our gaze on the other important measures to attain this end – a healthy child.
The process of social adjustment begins from the moment of birth. Many of our traditional birth practices ensure that the mother either carries or suckles her child immediately after birth. The baby therefore comes into close contact with the mother at this critical time.
Moreover she is forced to stay indoors with the baby for varying periods of time. By this means, the attachment of the baby to the mother, so essential for the child’s ability to relate to her in future, is secured. This crucial moment in the baby’s life is now being recognize in Western countries, whilst birth practices in some hospitals and maternity homes separate mother and child immediately after birth to the extent that the ability to develop a close relationship may be jeopardized.
Our Nigerian child of today may, therefore, be worse off than that of yesterday. As we move towards the training of our traditional birth attendants with a view to incorporating them into our health services, healthy practices such as the one described above must be maintained and encouraged.
6. In the passage, there is an attempt to explain that to ensure a totally healthy child
A. it is necessary to concentrate on the child’s physical well-being alone B. it is essential to reduce the high child mortality and morbidity rate C. it is necessary to take care of other things in addition to the child’s physical well-being D. It is important to keep to the rules of hygiene E. it is necessary to copy foreign ways of bringing up children.
7. It is said that differences in ways of bringing children and educating them
A. achieve the same results B. are reflected in the personalities, attitudes and achievements of the individual C. make people aggressive D. have nothing to do with educational attainments E. are a matter of the cultural background of people.
8. Since the training for Social adjustment begins from the moment of birth, our traditional practices
A. are too uncivilized to be helpful to the child B. need to be modernized C. are very helpful to the proper growth of the child D. make the child a stranger to modern civilization E. are the cause of under-development.
9. In spite of the fact that the Western countries now recognize the importance of the early period of childhood in forming a relationship, Nigerian hospitals and maternity homes.
A. copy the wrong Western practice now being criticized in Western countries B. improve on local practices and make the future of the child secure C. ensure that the child is brought up in the right way D. ensure that the child develops the right skills for establishing relationships E. do not know which practice to choose.
10. Unless the training of our traditional birth attendants is based on healthy practices
A. our children will be underdeveloped B. our children will be worse off than those brought up in the traditional way C. our medical services will be unable to provide the right services D. our economic progress will be adversely affected E. the role of the mother will be rendered useless.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
C.
Over the years, there has been this hue and cry by governments and public policy advisers against the phenomenon of the rural-urban drift. Researchers have been conducted on various aspect of this phenomenon which have resulted in the identification of the various causes and consequences of it. In addition prescription have been given for controlling the rural-urban drift.
Among the causes most often mentioned are population pressures in some rural areas resulting in dwindling lands increasing school enrollments and the resultant rise in educational levels which qualify many people for urban in the cities so much touted by early foreign sociologists.
The most often mentioned consequences of this rural-urban migration include depopulation of the rural areas leading to overcrowding of the cities and the resultant housing and sanitation problems; decline in the agricultural population resulting in less food crops being grown and high food prices in the cities, and increasing urban unemployment. The results of the phenomenon are seen largely as negative.
Measures to control the rural-urban drift include the establishment of essential amenities like water, electricity, hospitals, colleges, and cinema houses; the location employment-generating establishments and the building of good interconnecting roads. The sum total of these prescriptions in essence, unwittingly or paradoxically, is for the rural areas to be transformed into urban centres. This is so because to industrialize the rural areas would draw many more people out of agriculture than if industries were restricted to urban centres.
When industries are located in the rural areas, it involves much less cost for the prospective rural-urban migrant to change to a non-agricultural job, than is involved in his leaving a rural abode for a distant urban centre. Therefore, rural industrialization holds a higher potential for the de-agriculturalization of the rural population than when industries are concentrated in urban areas. The phenomenon of rural-urban migration has been intensively and extensively researched and studied; but it would seem that it has largely been misinterpreted and misunderstood. Consequently, public policies on the subject ha’e largely been misdirected.
11. The author explains that researches conducted on various aspect of rural-urban drift have
A. failed to provide effective solutions B. revealed the causes and effects of this drift C. increased the hue and cry against it D. provided effective solutions to the problem E. not only provided solutions but also brought out the causes and effects of this drift.
12. One of the reasons why people drift from the rural areas to the urban areas is
A. hunger resulting from drought B. laziness and ignorance C. better rural education and possession of qualifications which make better jobs available in urban areas D. the easy life and the comfort in the cfty E. the freedom from traditional control and pagan practices.
13. Migration in large numbers is said to result in A. juvenile delinquency B. a fall in the production of food, accommodation and health in cities C. highway robbery D. difficulty of life in rural areas E. mental stress by parents and relations.
14. One suggested solution to the problem is to
A. provide social amenities and create employment opportunities in rural areas B. encourage mechanized agriculture in order to raise iricoe C. force the young rural people to stay by warning them about the problems in cities D. mount road blocks E. lower the level of education in rural areas and increase qualifications for employment in cities.
15. The consequences of the rural-urban drift are in the above passage as being
A. useful to the cities and not to the rural area B. a national disaster C. a natural occurrence and sign of progress D. negative E. a healthy economic phenomenon. –
D.
I began work at the smithy on the Monday morning. My wages were half a crown a week. My hours were from six in the morning till six at night, with an hour’s break for lunch. My boss, Boeta Dick, was a tall, bent reedy consumptive. He had a parched yellow skin, drawn tight over his jutting bones, his cheeks were so sunken it was as though he were permanently sucking them in. His eyes were far back in his head, he coughed violently, and beside his seat was a bucket of sand into which he spat. Changing the sand daily was the only part of my job I hated.
The smithy was divided into two parts. At one end were the machines that cut, shaped, and put the tins together. The men who worked on the machines were on a regular weekly wage. At the other end, was a row of small furnances, each with its own bellows and pile of fuel. Here, at each furnance, a man sat soldering the seams of the tins as they mountainous amount of soldering. Each solderer had a boy to cart the tins from the machines to him, them to smear the seams of each tin with sulphur powder so that the lead took easily, and after checking, to cart the tins out of the yard where the lorries collected them.
16. The boss, Boeta Dick, can be described as being
A. skinny B. hard working C. ambitious D. a Chinese E. slender.
17. Boeta Dick spat in the bucket because
A. he was sick B: he had a dirty habit C. he coughed D. the smithy smelled badly E. it is good to spit regularly.
18. Without the solderers in the smithy
A. no work can be done B. the boss will go into debt C. the products cannot be completed D. the boss will be unhappy E. the other workers will not like their job.
19. The solderers received
A. occasional money for their work B. too much for their work C. just enough for their work D.a fair wage E. not so much as their work demanded.
20. Sulphur powder was added to
A. beautify the tin. B. complete the manufacture C. strengthen the tin D. satisfy the boss E. ensure that the tins were not damaged during transportation.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
E.
Rufus Okeke-Roof, for short – was a very popular man in his village. Although the villagers did not explain in so many words, Roofs popularity was a measure of their gratitude to an energetic young man who, unlike most of his fellows nowadays, had not abandoned the village in order to seek work, any work, in the towns. .Roof was nct a village tout either. Everyone knew how he had spent two years as a bicycle repairer’s apprentice in Port-Harcourt and had given up of his own free will a bright future to return to his people and guide them in these political times. Not that Umuofia needed a lot of guidance. The village already belonged en masse to the People’s Alliance Party, and its most illustrious son, Chief the Honourable Marcus Ibe, was Minister of Culture in the outgoing government (which was pretty certain to be the incoming one as well). Nobody doubted that the Honourable Minister would be elected in his constituency. Opposition to him was like the proverbial fly trying to move a dunghill. It Would have been ridiculous enough without coming, as it did now, from a complete nonentity.
As was to be expected, Roof was in the service of the Honourable Minister for the coming elections. He had become a real expert in election campaigning at all levels – village, local government or national; He could tell the mood and temper of the electorate at any given time. For instance, he had warned the Minister months ago about the radical change that had come into the thinking of Umuofia since the last national election.
21. Rufus Okeke was very popular with the people because he
A. was energetic B. had decided to pitch his tent with the villagers C. did not like town life D. could not live without his parents E. made more money for the villagers.
22. A village tout can be described as being.
A. unemployed B. crazy C. energetic D. lazy E. servile.
23. The reference to Okeke’s ‘bright future’ in Port-harcourt can be described as being
A. sarcastic B. true C. untrue D. irrelevant E. impossible.
24. The writer is saying indirectly that political parties in power could be
A. unpredictable B. honest C. corrupt D. servile E. autocratic
25. Which of the following statements would you consider correct with reference to Okeke as an election expert?
A. It is true that he was an expert. B. It is doubtful that he was an expert. C. It is most likely to be true that he was an expert. D. There are no election experts. E. He was not an election experts at all.
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
Fill in the blank in the following sentences making use of the best of the five options.
26. The telephone……in the nineteenth century and is now used in most countries in the world.
A. had been invented B. was invented C. would have been invented D. has been invented E. was being invented.
27. By the end of the next Semester, he…..his University education.
A. would have completed B. will be completing C. shall have completed D. was completing E. must complete.
28. In the past his father used to walk but nowadays he …..to work by bicycle.
A. was going B. is going C. seldomly goes D. goes E. has gone
29. The students……so much noise while the lecture was going on that the lecturer had to walk out of the. class.
A. made B. had been making C. were making D. had made E. would have been making.
30. Olukayode……as a mechanic when he was young, but now his is a driver.
A. had been working B. used to work C. would work D. would have worked E. had worked.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
31 …….it might not look such a rosy proposition.
A. From his viewing proposal B When he views the proposal C. Having viewed the proposal D. From his point of view E. From his seeing it.
32. If we went to any European country …….. Britain we should need a substantial amount of money to pay our way.
A. like B. let us say C. as an example D. like say E. If we say.
33. The horse is a winner . ……
A. you can take that from me B. you can say I say so C. you can take my word for it D. it is my word against theirs E. you may or may not believe it.
34. If he had entered the room . …… him.
A. saw B. had seen C. would have seen D. may see E. will see.
35. You should show some consideration……the feelings of others.
A. with B. about C. by D. to E. for.
36. The old car …… several times this year
A. was repaired B. has been repaired C. had been repaired D. has repaired E. was being repaired.
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word.
37. His penury gave him a lifetime of hunger.
A. a variciousness B. affluence C. poverty D. penny-pinching E. greed.
38. The Bible’s prodigal on became quite wealthy eventually.
A. prestigious B. phlegmatic C. errant D. pecuniary E. extravagant.
39. Don’t eat just any innocuous-looking mushroom you see around.
A. haul B. harmless C. innocent D. immunized E. conspicuous.
40. Colossal means
A. a Greek column B. gigantic C. something which has lost too much fluid D. a calamity E. the sale of cobs
Choose the best options to fill the gaps in the following sentences
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
41. The prices ……… are too high for us.
A. you lent me B. you quoted C. you attended D. you gave me E. you want to buy.
42. The method………does not give the expected results.
A. you recommended B. you visited C. you told D. you sent me E. you wanted
43. Oxygen is necessary to life. Nothing can live without it. It was……a century ago.
A. invented B. found out C. discovered D. learnt E. extracted.
44. Why does a flamingo stand on one leg? Because if it lifted the other one, it would
A. go down B. let down C. fall down D. come down E. get down.
45. I am traveling by the 6.30 train tomorrow morning. Will you ……… me ……?
A. see/off B. look/up C. take/down D. see/to E. put/up
46. I am a student and……Musa. I left for the University, and………Musa.
A. was, does B. so is, so did C. so was, so does D. he is, he did E. so he is, so he went.
47. You have been absent from classes for four months. How can you……for the lost time?
A. make in B. make up C. make off D. make out E make over.
48. I am afraid you cannot use this telephone; it is……
A. out of order B. in order C. for order D. at order E with order.
49. You should make an……to improve the situation.
A. effect B. efficiency C. effectiveness D. effort E. effectualness.
50. Must you always………lies Why don’t you………the truth for once?
A. speak B. say C. talk D. tell E utter; For questions 51-64, complete the sentence with the correct options from the list below.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
51 ………..listening to the news when I
A. There were B. There was C. It was D. There are going to be E. They were.
52. They said that ……….about 20 candidates for the job of a shorthand typist.
A. they were B. it will be C. there were D. it was E there are.
53. He told me to go on………till seven
A. to work B. worked C. works D. working E. work.
54. Many goods ………tape recorders and cameras find a ready market in every country.
A. like B. such a C. such as D. such E. as.
55. He acts ………he were a general manager.
A. as B. if C. as if D. so as E. that.
56. Must you say Good Morning’ to everybody in the street No,
A. I needn’t B. 1 mustn’t C. I can’t D. I do not need E. I’ll have to.
57. Could I ring him up? I rather you………
A. visit him B. visited him C. would visit him D. visiting him E. will visit him.
58. Don’t study on the examination day? What did he tell you? He told me …..on the examination day.
A. no studying B. don’t study C. not study D. not to study E. to not study.
59. I …… to gain admission to the college for the past three years.
A. have been trying B. tried C. am trying D. was trying E. try. .
60 ………a lot of arguments for and against car loans in the press recently.
A. There are B. There has been C. There have been D. There is E. There was.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
61. He reported to his manager that he ……… overseas.
A. had never been B. never was C. has never been D. is never E. will never be..
62…. Shall we go to the Union meeting? No, thank you, I do not feel like……anywhere
A. go B. going C. to go D. to have gone E. went.
63. ….Will they sign any contracts at the Fair? They will not only sign the contracts but a lot of goods …..as well.
A. will buy B. to buy C. they buy D. they bought E. will be bought.
64. I started writing this test at 8.00 a.m. It is 10. a.m. now. By 11 a.m. I ………it for three hours.
A. shall be writing B. have been writing C. shall have been writing D. am writing late E. was writing
Choose the word or phrase from A to E which has the same meaning as the underlined word or words in ich sentence.
65. Writing for newspapers is exciting and lucrative especially when one is a free-lance journalist.
A. a forthright B. an eloquent C. an unattached D. a political E. a convincing.
66. He has never been a good mediator, even in minor family disputes, because in most cases his views are always jaundiced.
A. coloured B. sick C. suspicious D. unscrupulous E. prejudiced.
67. After the wife had covered her misdeeds by prevaricating on several occasions, the poor husband accused her point blank of adultery. }
A. bluntly B. pointedly C. emphatically D. unreservedly E. unmistakingly.
68. The vote of thanks which was elaborately moved by the social secretary did not ring true particularly as the fund raising had been a big failure.
A. was all lies B. was not honest C. was inaudible D. was not genuine E. was distorted.
69. I listened with rapt attention as he spoke and he never suspected that I knew he was telling me a cock and bull story
A. a story about cock B. a story about bull C. an incredible story D. an interesting story E. an eye-witness story.
70. When a man is immune to an illness, he is
A. opposed to it B. attached to it C. hated by it D. protected against it E. addicted to it.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
71. The two boxer were neck and neck up till the sixth round but in the seventh and final round, the bigger one jj around
A. could no longer stand on his feet B. failed to maintain his position C. was beaten D. became dizzy E. became a punching bag.
72. While the mother and father were arguing furiously their small boy sat patiently taking in everything they said
A. absorbing B. accommodating C. embracing D. accepting E. noting.
73. For a priest to be successful, he should, from time to time, review his actions.
A. inspect B. examine C. stare at D. visualize E. conceptualize.
74. In some parts of our society, people are ostracized purely on the basis of their parentage.
A. hated B. disrespected C. shut off from others D. locked up E abandoned.
75. Sitting majestically on his throne is the Oba of Benin flanked by some of his wives.
A. surrounded B. supported C. guarded D. protected E. neglected.
76. In a civilized society, it is unseemly to emit e loud belch at the end of a meal.
A. noisy B. annoying C. stupid D. outrageous E. impolite.
Choose the appropriate option to fill the gap in the following sentences.
77. As a result of the injury sustained on the football field, Seguri was………with a broken leg for months.
A. laid down B.laid out C. laid on D.laid up E. Iaid off.
78. The Principal was able to establish a functional language laboratory for his school because he acted ……the advice of experts on the subject.
A. through B. at C. from D. on E by.
79. Dume ……in Abraka for three years when I met her.
A. lived B. had lived C. would have lived D. was living E. was lived.
80. If I were the head of the English Department in my school, I……make oral English a compulsory subject.
A. would B. could C. should D. might E. had.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
81. If Remi performs poorly in her forthcoming examination, then either her mother or I ……to blame.
A. must B. has C. will be D. are E. am.
82. I was able to ………Olu my book because he promised to return it the following day.
A. borrow B. give C. lend D. lease E. secure.
83. You cannot have a vague idea of the content of this comprehension text unless you first………the whole passage for a few minutes’, said the teacher to his pupils.
A. digest B. decipher C. skim through D. chew through E. master.
84. The prefect came to the class five minutes after the lesson ………
A. has started B. had started e. have started D. is started E. has been started.
85. Bimbo signs beautifully……?
A. isn’t it B. doesn’t she C. isn’t she D. does she E is she.
86. We couldn’t find the official who was to act as our guide………he had left before we arrived.
A. Moreover B. Actually C. Nevertheless D. However E Even.
87. No sooner had the examination ended……the students started vacating the halls of residence.
A. when B. that C. than D. before E and.
88. Ogedengbe kept goal for his club team because there wasn’t ……to do it.
A. somebody else B. nobody else C. any other body D. no other body E. anybody else.
89. Grace must be allergic ………smoke because any time she sits by someone who is smoking, she sneezes.
A. to B. from C. for D. with E by.
Choose the word(s) that best fit(s) in with the meaning of the sentence.
90. Now that I realize the full extent of your …….I am afraid it will be impossible for me to ever trust you again.
A. dubiousness B. corruption C. deceptiveness D. duplicity E inconsistency.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions
91. Legislators must be trained to ………the truth.
A. disguise B. discern C. digest D. disturb E distort.
92. He must be a good student because he is a ………reader
A. romanesque B. veracious C. voracious D. mendacious E. sarcastic
93. It is very difficult to capture the subtle………of words when translated from one language to another.
A. essence B. denotations C. connotations D. inflexions E. insults
94. As it holds true that, unless you train your body you cannot be an athlete, so also unless you train your ………you cannot be a ………
A. kicking – footballer B. voice – choirmaster C. mind – scholar D. courage – hero E. arms – swimmer.
Choose the correct word to fill the space in the following sentences.
95. The meeting starts………two o’clock. Please be punctual.
A. about B. in C. on D. at E. around.
96. Every time you pay a bill you must insist ………being given a receipt.
A. in B. from C. on D. by E. onto.
97. The elections ……the Senate were held in July
A. into B. of C. from D. onto E. on.
98. There is a filling station……the corner, to you right.
A. about B. by C. from D. around E to.
99. It is difficult these days to get a seat……the plane in spite of a confirmed booking.
A. inside B. in C. on D. upon E. into.
100. He traveled to Jos……train when he came last month.
A. by B. in C. on D. inside E. through.
JAMB 1980 Past Questions English ANSWERS
1.B 6.C 11.B 16.A 21.B 26.B 31.D 36.B 41.13 46.B 51.E 56.B 61.A 66.E 71.B 76.E 81.E 86B 91B 96.C
2.D 7.C 12.C 17.C 22.E 27.A 32.A 37.C 42.A 47.B 52.C 57.B 62.B 67.A 72.A 77.A 82.C 87C 92.C 97.A
3.C B.C 13.B 18.C 23.A 28.D 33.C 38.C 43.A 48.A 53.D 58.D 63.E 68.D 73.B 78.D 83.C 88.E 93.C 98.B
4.B 9. A 14.A 19.E 24.E 29.A 34.C 39.E 44.C 49.D 54.C 59.A 64.C 69.C 74.C 79.B 84B 89A 94.B 99.B
5.A 10.B 15.D 20.B 25.C 30.B 35.E 40.B 45.A 50.A 5.C 60.C 65.C 70.D 75.A 80.A 85.B 90A 95.E 100.A